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Pharma 1

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Select all that are among the six "rights" of medication administration.

a)

Right patient

b)

Right medication

c)

Right dose

d)

Right route

e)

Right time

2.

Which route has the fastest medication absorption?

a)

Intravenous (IV)

b)

Intramuscular (IM)

c)

Subcutaneous

d)

Oral

3.

What does sublingual administration mean?

a)

Placing medication under the tongue where it dissolves and is absorbed through mucous membranes

b)

Delivering medication into a vein for immediate distribution

c)

Inserting medication rectally for absorption through the colon

d)

Swallowing medication to be digested and absorbed in the stomach and intestines

4.

Which route of administration involves breathing medication directly into the lungs?

a)

Inhalation (e.g., inhaler or nebulizer)

b)

Oral

c)

Intravenous (IV)

d)

Subcutaneous

5.

Which statement best describes the difference between parenteral and enteral routes?

a)

Parenteral routes bypass the digestive system; enteral routes use the digestive system

b)

Parenteral routes use the digestive system; enteral routes bypass it

c)

Both parenteral and enteral routes use the digestive system

d)

Both parenteral and enteral routes bypass the digestive system

6.

When is oxygen administration indicated?

a)

For any patient with suspected hypoxia, respiratory distress, or SpO2 below 94% (or below 90% for COPD)

b)

Only when cyanosis is present

c)

Only when SpO2 is above 94%

d)

Only in cases of head injury without respiratory symptoms

7.

What is a primary concern about giving high-flow oxygen to some COPD patients?

a)

They may have hypoxic drive, and excessive oxygen can reduce their respiratory drive

b)

High-flow oxygen causes immediate bronchoconstriction in all COPD patients

c)

COPD patients cannot tolerate any supplemental oxygen

d)

High-flow oxygen always eliminates the need for medications

8.

What is the normal flow rate for a nasal cannula?

a)

1–6 liters per minute (providing approximately 24–44% oxygen)

b)

8–15 liters per minute (providing 60–100% oxygen)

c)

0.5–1 liter per minute (providing 5–10% oxygen)

d)

10–20 liters per minute (providing 80–100% oxygen)

9.

What is nitroglycerin's mechanism of action?

a)

It dilates blood vessels, reducing cardiac workload and improving blood flow to the heart muscle

b)

It constricts blood vessels to raise blood pressure

c)

It increases heart rate and contractility directly

d)

It reduces lung secretions to improve oxygenation

10.

Select all contraindications for nitroglycerin.

a)

Systolic blood pressure below 100100 mmHg

b)

Use of erectile dysfunction medications within the prior 24–48 hours

c)

Head injury

d)

Patient has already taken the maximum dose

e)

Active gastrointestinal bleeding

11.

What is the typical nitroglycerin dose and repetition schedule?

a)

0.40.4 mg sublingual tablet or spray; may repeat every 3–5 minutes up to 3 doses if blood pressure remains adequate

b)

11 mg oral tablet; repeat hourly as needed

c)

0.10.1 mg subcutaneous injection; one-time dose only

d)

0.80.8 mg inhaled dose; may repeat every minute without limit

12.

What position should a patient be in when taking nitroglycerin to reduce the risk of hypotension and syncope?

a)

Sitting or lying down

b)

Standing upright and walking

c)

Trendelenburg position

d)

Kneeling with the head between the knees

13.

Which common side effect should patients be warned about when taking nitroglycerin due to vasodilation and potential drop in blood pressure?

a)

Headache with dizziness

b)

Constipation

c)

Skin rash

d)

Urinary retention

14.

In cardiac emergencies, what is aspirin’s mechanism of action that helps prevent blood clots from growing larger?

a)

It inhibits platelet aggregation (antiplatelet)

b)

It acts as a bronchodilator

c)

It increases blood pressure

d)

It causes vasodilation of coronary arteries

15.

For suspected acute coronary syndrome, what is the standard aspirin dose administered and how should it be taken?

a)

81 mg swallowed whole

b)

160–325 mg chewed

c)

500 mg crushed and mixed with water

d)

1,000 mg swallowed with food

16.

Which conditions are contraindications for administering aspirin? Select all that apply.

a)

Known aspirin allergy

b)

Active gastrointestinal bleeding

c)

Recent stroke

d)

Asthma triggered by aspirin

e)

Inability to swallow

17.

Why should aspirin be chewed rather than swallowed in an emergency?

a)

Chewing increases surface area for faster absorption through oral mucosa

b)

Chewing prevents nausea in most patients

c)

Chewing improves taste compared with tablets

d)

Chewing reduces tooth pain during administration

18.

What is the primary indication for using an epinephrine auto‑injector?

a)

Minor allergic rash without breathing difficulty

b)

Severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis) with respiratory distress or signs of shock

c)

Fever with sore throat

d)

Mild cold symptoms

19.

What is the typical adult dose for an EpiPen and route of administration?

a)

0.15 mg intramuscular

b)

0.3 mg intramuscular

c)

1 mg intravenous

d)

5 mg oral

20.

Where should an epinephrine auto‑injector be administered to ensure proper delivery?

a)

Deltoid muscle of the upper arm

b)

Lateral mid‑thigh muscle (vastus lateralis), through clothing if needed

c)

Abdominal subcutaneous tissue

d)

Gluteal muscle

21.

Following manufacturer instructions, how long should you hold the epinephrine auto‑injector in place after activation?

a)

1 second

b)

3 seconds

c)

30 seconds

d)

Until bleeding stops

22.

Which are common side effects of epinephrine? Select all that apply.

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Tremors

c)

Pallor

d)

Dizziness

e)

Bradycardia

23.

What is albuterol’s primary action in the airways?

a)

Beta‑2 agonist bronchodilator that relaxes smooth muscle

b)

Platelet inhibitor that prevents clot formation

c)

Antihistamine that blocks H1 receptors

d)

Alpha‑1 vasoconstrictor that raises blood pressure

24.

Which scenario indicates assisting a patient with albuterol?

a)

Chest pain consistent with acute coronary syndrome

b)

Wheezing and respiratory distress due to asthma or COPD bronchospasm

c)

Low blood sugar with diaphoresis

d)

Allergic rash without wheezing

25.

What is a common side effect of albuterol?

a)

Tachycardia (increased heart rate)

b)

Tremors

c)

Nervousness

d)

Bradycardia

e)

Severe hypertension

26.

How is albuterol typically administered in the field?

a)

Via metered-dose inhaler (MDI)

b)

Via small-volume nebulizer

c)

Oral tablet

d)

Intramuscular injection

27.

What is the indication for oral glucose administration?

a)

Altered mental status with suspected hypoglycemia in a patient who can swallow and protect the airway

b)

Any altered mental status regardless of cause

c)

Hyperglycemia with polyuria and polydipsia

d)

Unconscious patient who cannot protect the airway

28.

What is the contraindication for oral glucose?

a)

Decreased level of consciousness with inability to swallow or protect the airway

b)

Mild hypoglycemia with intact airway reflexes

c)

Patient reports hunger but has normal blood glucose

d)

History of diabetes without symptoms

29.

What is the typical dose of oral glucose?

a)

15–20 grams (one tube) between the cheek and gum; may repeat if needed

b)

5 grams once, do not repeat

c)

30–40 grams all at once

d)

10 grams intravenously

30.

What blood glucose level typically indicates hypoglycemia requiring treatment?

a)

Below 60–70 mg/dL with symptoms

b)

Above 200 mg/dL

c)

Exactly 100 mg/dL

d)

Below 30 mg/dL only

31.

What is naloxone's mechanism of action?

a)

Opioid antagonist that reverses opioid effects by binding to opioid receptors

b)

Cholinergic agonist that increases secretions

c)

Beta-adrenergic blocker that slows heart rate

d)

Diuretic that increases urine output

32.

What are signs of opioid overdose requiring naloxone?

a)

Respiratory depression

b)

Decreased level of consciousness

c)

Pinpoint pupils

d)

Dilated pupils

33.

What routes can naloxone be administered?

a)

Intranasal (IN)

b)

Intramuscular (IM)

c)

Intravenous (IV)

d)

Subcutaneous

e)

Oral

34.

What is the typical intranasal naloxone dose?

a)

2–4 mg (typically one spray per nostril)

b)

0.2 mg total

c)

10 mg per nostril

d)

1 mg orally

35.

What should you be prepared for after naloxone administration?

a)

Possible aggressive behavior

b)

Vomiting

c)

Withdrawal symptoms as the patient regains consciousness

d)

Immediate long-lasting sedation

36.

What is the action of beta-blockers (e.g., metoprolol, atenolol)?

a)

They slow heart rate and reduce blood pressure by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors

b)

They increase heart rate by stimulating beta receptors

c)

They act as opioid antagonists

d)

They primarily increase blood glucose levels

37.

What are common side effects of beta-blockers?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Hypotension

c)

Fatigue

d)

Masking hypoglycemia symptoms in diabetics

e)

Severe hyperglycemia

38.

What is warfarin (Coumadin) and what is a major risk associated with its use?

a)

An anticoagulant that prevents clots; major risk is bleeding/hemorrhage

b)

An antiplatelet drug; major risk is severe hypertension

c)

An antibiotic; major risk is opportunistic infections

d)

A diuretic; major risk is dehydration and electrolyte loss

39.

What do ACE inhibitors (medications ending in "-pril") do?

a)

Lower blood pressure by preventing formation of angiotensin II

b)

Increase heart rate to improve cardiac output

c)

Raise blood pressure by stimulating vasoconstriction

d)

Lower cholesterol by inhibiting hepatic synthesis

40.

What is metformin and what emergency can it cause?

a)

An oral diabetes medication that can cause lactic acidosis

b)

A thyroid hormone that can cause thyrotoxicosis

c)

An antihypertensive that can cause hypertensive crisis

d)

An antibiotic that can cause anaphylaxis

41.

What are statins used for?

a)

To lower cholesterol and reduce cardiovascular risk

b)

To increase heart rate in bradycardia

c)

To treat acute infections

d)

To reduce fluid overload in heart failure

42.

What is digoxin and which effect indicates toxicity?

a)

A cardiac glycoside; toxicity may cause nausea, vision changes (yellow halos), and dysrhythmias

b)

A beta-blocker; toxicity may cause severe hypertension and tremors

c)

An anticoagulant; toxicity may cause excessive clotting and stroke

d)

A diuretic; toxicity may cause hyperhydration and edema

43.

What does furosemide (Lasix) do?

a)

It is a loop diuretic that increases urine output to reduce fluid overload

b)

It is an analgesic that reduces pain perception

c)

It is a vasoconstrictor that raises blood pressure

d)

It is an antipyretic that lowers fever only

44.

What are SSRIs and what syndrome can occur with overdose?

a)

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (antidepressants); overdose can cause serotonin syndrome with agitation, hyperthermia, and muscle rigidity

b)

Dopamine antagonists (antipsychotics); overdose can cause neuroleptic malignant syndrome only

c)

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors; overdose can cause hypothermia and bradykinesia

d)

Tricyclic antidepressants; overdose can cause iron-deficiency anemia

45.

What is the danger of combining erectile dysfunction medications with nitroglycerin?

a)

Both cause vasodilation, leading to severe life-threatening hypotension

b)

They cancel each other, causing no hemodynamic effect

c)

They cause vasoconstriction, leading to hypertensive crisis

d)

They primarily cause tachycardia without blood pressure changes

46.

Before assisting with any medication, which actions must you verify? Select all that apply.

a)

The medication is prescribed to the patient

b)

The medication has not expired

c)

You have permission from medical direction

d)

No contraindications exist

47.

What does "PRN" mean on a medication label?

a)

As needed—taken only when necessary, not on a regular schedule

b)

Every day—taken on a fixed schedule

c)

Before meals—taken prior to eating

d)

At bedtime—taken nightly

48.

What should you do with all medication containers when transporting or documenting a patient’s medications?

a)

Bring them to the hospital or document all medications the patient takes (bring the "brown bag")

b)

Discard them to avoid confusion during transport

c)

Return them to the pharmacy immediately

d)

Leave them at the patient’s home and rely on memory

49.

If a patient has altered mental status, how should you assess their medications? Select all actions that are appropriate.

a)

Check the scene for pill bottles and medication packaging

b)

Ask family members and caregivers about recent medication use

c)

Look for medical alert tags

d)

Ignore medications until the patient regains normal mentation

e)

Ask the patient what they have taken today if possible

50.

Which statements accurately describe polypharmacy and its concerns? Select all that apply.

a)

Taking multiple medications simultaneously

b)

Increases risk of drug interactions and adverse effects

c)

Decreases the likelihood of medication errors in elderly patients

d)

Refers only to using herbal supplements

e)

Often raises the risk of medication mistakes

51.

You arrive on scene to find a 62-year-old male with crushing chest pain radiating to his left arm. He took one nitroglycerin tablet 10 minutes ago with no relief. His blood pressure is 118/76, pulse 88, respirations 20. What actions should you take? Select all that apply.

a)

Contact medical direction and, if approved, assist with a second nitroglycerin dose (systolic BP adequate above 100)

b)

Apply oxygen

c)

Administer aspirin if not contraindicated

d)

Withhold transport until pain fully resolves

e)

Avoid nitroglycerin due to adequate blood pressure

52.

A 28-year-old female is experiencing severe difficulty breathing after a bee sting. She has hives on her chest and her blood pressure is 88/60. She has her own epinephrine auto-injector but is hesitant to use it because "it makes her heart race." What is the best action?

a)

Assist with the epinephrine auto-injector immediately; tachycardia is expected and benefits outweigh side effects

b)

Wait and monitor until hives resolve, then consider epinephrine

c)

Administer antihistamines only and avoid epinephrine due to tachycardia

d)

Provide fluids and transport without epinephrine

53.

You are assisting a patient with his metered-dose inhaler. After the first puff, he immediately inhales deeply and holds his breath. What instruction should you give for the next puff? Select all correct steps.

a)

Exhale completely before the next inhalation

b)

Press the inhaler during inhalation, then inhale slowly and deeply

c)

Hold the breath for 5–10 seconds after inhalation

d)

Take the next puff immediately with no wait

e)

Wait 1–2 minutes between puffs

54.

A 45-year-old diabetic patient is confused with cool, clammy skin. Family states he took his insulin this morning but did not eat breakfast. His blood glucose reads 52 mg/dL. He keeps pushing your hand away and will not cooperate. What is the best course of action?

a)

Administer oral glucose despite his mental status

b)

Offer small sips of juice and reassess

c)

Do not give oral glucose due to aspiration risk; request ALS for IV dextrose or consider glucagon

d)

Administer insulin to correct hypoglycemia

55.

A 70-year-old male with chest pain tells you he took Viagra yesterday afternoon. It is now 10 AM the next day (approximately 19 hours later). His blood pressure is 106/70. Can you assist with nitroglycerin?

a)

Yes, nitroglycerin is safe 12 hours after erectile dysfunction medication

b)

Contact medical direction; nitroglycerin is likely still contraindicated at 19 hours based on most protocols

c)

Administer aspirin only and avoid contacting medical direction

d)

Withhold all medications and transport without consultation

56.

You administered naloxone to an unresponsive patient with slow, shallow respirations. Two minutes later, the patient becomes combative and tries to leave. Vital signs are now blood pressure 160/92, pulse 110, respirations 18. What is your primary concern?

a)

Naloxone will wear off in 30–60 minutes while the opioid may last longer, causing possible re-sedation; the patient requires transport and monitoring

b)

The patient is cured and can be released at the scene

c)

Naloxone permanently blocks all opioid effects for 24 hours

d)

Combative behavior indicates stroke rather than opioid involvement

57.

A 55-year-old COPD patient on home oxygen at 2 LPM is now in severe respiratory distress with SpO2 of 76%. What oxygen delivery should you provide?

a)

Continue home oxygen at 2 LPM via nasal cannula

b)

Increase to 4 LPM via nasal cannula

c)

Apply high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask at 10–15 LPM

d)

Withhold oxygen to avoid respiratory depression

58.

You are transporting a patient who took aspirin for chest pain. He suddenly complains of severe upper abdominal pain and vomits bright red blood. What is the likely complication?

a)

Allergic reaction to aspirin causing hives

b)

Pulmonary embolism

c)

Gastrointestinal bleeding, potentially from a gastric ulcer exacerbated by aspirin

d)

Kidney failure

59.

A patient with asthma used his albuterol inhaler 4 times in the last hour before calling 911. He is still wheezing with moderate distress. Can you assist with another dose?

a)

Yes, immediately administer another dose without consultation

b)

Contact medical direction; frequent recent use suggests possible overuse or severe bronchospasm, and typical dosing allows every 4–6 hours

c)

Advise the patient to stop all medications and wait for symptoms to pass

d)

Administer epinephrine instead of consulting

60.

An elderly patient's daughter brings you a bag with 15 different medication bottles. The patient is confused and cannot tell you what she took today. What actions should you take? Select all that apply.

a)

Bring all medications to the hospital and document names if possible

b)

Check for empty bottles suggesting overdose

c)

Look for medications that could cause altered mental status (sedatives, opioids, insulin)

d)

Discard unknown medications at the scene

e)

Report findings to the receiving facility and consider polypharmacy complications