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CJUS 101 Final exam — Extracted Questions

Total questions: 141

Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Match the discipline to its goal for students who study that discipline: A set of theories that explain why laws are made, why some people break laws, and how society punishes lawbreakers.

a)

Criminology

b)

Criminal Justice

c)

Law

d)

Sociology

2.

Match the discipline to its goal for students who study that discipline: The who, what, and where of systems that attempt to curb crime.

a)

Criminology

b)

Criminal Justice

c)

Law

d)

Sociology

3.

Match the discipline to its goal for students who study that discipline: The systematic preparation of individuals to represent the accused in a court of law.

a)

Criminology

b)

Criminal Justice

c)

Law

d)

Sociology

4.

Match the discipline to its goal for students who study that discipline: The scientific study of human behavior in social settings.

a)

Criminology

b)

Criminal Justice

c)

Law

d)

Sociology

5.

Which of the following was NOT an event in US history thought to affect change in our criminal justice system?

a)

The Civil War

b)

The Civil Rights Movement

c)

Prohibition

d)

The War on Drugs

6.

In the United States, the police force's history has roots in

a)

slave patrols

b)

frontier posses

c)

merchant guild watches

d)

federal marshals

7.

What Supreme Court case guarantees individuals the right to an attorney at trial?

a)

Gideon v. Wainwright

b)

Miranda v. Arizona

c)

Mapp v. Ohio

d)

Terry v. Ohio

8.

What is the last name of the theorist thought to have come up with the term “criminologia,” from which “criminology” is adapted?

a)

Garofalo

b)

Lombroso

c)

Beccaria

d)

Durkheim

9.

The more alike members of a society are and the more these members share similar values, the ________ likely the society is to need formal means of controlling behavior.

a)

less

b)

more

c)

equally

d)

increasingly variable

10.

Protesting may occur if people in a society believe that the government is __________ individual rights.

a)

violating

b)

expanding

c)

delegating

d)

clarifying

11.

Which of the following is an example of a “formal sanction?”

a)

The police arresting someone for shoplifting a bag of potato chips at a gas station

b)

A clerk scolding a customer for cutting in line

c)

Friends refusing to invite someone to a party

d)

A passerby frowning at rude behavior

12.

There are __________ steps to “processing” an individual into the CJ system.

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

13.

What is the name of the method of crime control that makes sure authorities carefully follow rules and regulations in order to protect individuals accused of a crime?

a)

due process model

b)

crime control model

c)

deterrence doctrine

d)

broken windows approach

14.

Italian doctor Cesare Lombroso believed that criminal behavior resulted from

a)

the failure to develop into "modern" men and women

b)

rational cost–benefit choices by offenders

c)

disorganized neighborhoods and weak social ties

d)

labeling by authorities that creates deviance

15.

The majority of researchers who study criminal behavior no longer believe that criminals are that much different from noncriminals.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Sigmund Freud believed that __________ was the cause of all behavior, criminal and non-criminal.

a)

the subconscious

b)

inherited biological traits

c)

social class position

d)

rational calculation

17.

Prior to Beccaria, Bethem, and Lombroso's theories, most individuals and legal institutions believed that _________ caused criminal behavior.

a)

supernatural forces and religious explanations

b)

biological heredity

c)

poverty and social disorganization

d)

learning from peers and family

18.

Match the supposed cause of criminal behavior to the theoretical school of thought that promoted it. Cause: criminal behavior is the result of imbalances of power in society.

a)

conflict theories

b)

control theories

c)

biological theories

d)

differential association theory

19.

Match the supposed cause of criminal behavior to the theoretical school of thought that promoted it. Cause: criminal acts are caused by unconscious desires.

a)

psychoanalytic theories

b)

social disorganization theory

c)

control theories

d)

biological theories

20.

Match the supposed cause of criminal behavior to the theoretical school of thought that promoted it. Cause: all behavior, including criminal behavior, is learned from significant others.

a)

differential association theory

b)

conflict theories

c)

biological theories

d)

psychoanalytic theories

21.

Match the supposed cause of criminal behavior to the theoretical school of thought that promoted it. Cause: criminal behavior is caused by poor neighborhoods with no resources.

a)

social disorganization theory

b)

control theories

c)

biological theories

d)

differential association theory

22.

Match the supposed cause of criminal behavior to the theoretical school of thought that promoted it. Cause: criminal behavior is hereditary.

a)

biological theories

b)

conflict theories

c)

control theories

d)

psychoanalytic theories

23.

Match the supposed cause of criminal behavior to the theoretical school of thought that promoted it. Cause: the absence of criminal behavior is a result of strong bonds with one's family, church, and school, for example.

a)

control theories

b)

conflict theories

c)

social disorganization theory

d)

biological theories

24.

In Shaw and McKay's research, the further they moved away from the center of the city, the more crime they encountered.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Merton's strain theory argues that criminal behavior emerges from the ________ adaption to norms.

a)

innovative

b)

conformist

c)

ritualistic

d)

retreatist

26.

The opposite of social determinism is:

a)

free will

b)

positivism

c)

social control

d)

fatalism

27.

Italian judge Cesare Beccaria thought criminal activity existed because the criminal justice system did not:

a)

provide punishment that was swift, appropriate, and certain

b)

deter criminals through lengthy rehabilitation programs

c)

emphasize retribution over deterrence

d)

eliminate jury trials in serious cases

28.

Which collection of crime statistics depends upon victims responding to a survey?

a)

NCVS

b)

UCR

c)

NIBRS

d)

NIJ Crime Panel

29.

Phillip, a student disgruntled about limited vegetarian options at the university, set fire to the cafeteria last month. Is this a UCR Part I offense or Part II offense?

a)

Part I offense

b)

Part II offense

c)

Status offense

d)

Civil infraction

30.

What agency is responsible for collecting data from all crimes occurring in the US?

a)

FBI

b)

CIA

c)

U.S. Census Bureau

d)

Department of Justice—Education Division

31.

Currently, the general public in the US believes crime to be lower than it actually is.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

What is pain and suffering caused by inappropriate responses of the criminal justice system and other significant agencies to victims of crime or violence?

a)

secondary victimization

b)

primary victimization

c)

tertiary prevention

d)

victim precipitation

33.

Which age group of individuals in the US are considered to be the least victimized by crime?

a)

65 and over

b)

under 12

c)

12–17

d)

18–24

34.

What percentage of crime victims eventually receive some sort of financial aid from victim service agencies?

a)

10%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

35.

Many crimes are simply not reported to the police. This is referred to as:

a)

the clearance rate

b)

the dark figure of crime

c)

the crime rate

d)

victim precipitation

36.

The public did not begin to insist on official crime statistics until what period?

a)

1920s/1930s

b)

1950s

c)

1970s

d)

1890s/1910s

37.

The FBI concluded that in the year 2015, a murder occurred every 33.5 seconds.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

The surveillance cameras at Wal-Mart are a form of:

a)

target hardening

b)

broken windows policing

c)

displacement

d)

community policing

39.

Two people are accidentally locked in a museum overnight. They eat the food at the museum cafe and use priceless, antique rugs to keep warm. The best defense would be:

a)

necessity

b)

duress

c)

consent

d)

self-defense

40.

A speeding car accidentally runs over and kills someone in a crosswalk. This is an example of:

a)

manslaughter

b)

first-degree murder

c)

felony murder

d)

justifiable homicide

41.

An elderly man in Florida was arrested for giving food to homeless people, which is against the law. This is a good example of:

a)

overcriminalization

b)

selective enforcement

c)

due process

d)

general deterrence

42.

______ are crimes for which an offender can receive a punishment of one year or more in a state or federal prison.

a)

misdemeanors

b)

violations

c)

felonies

d)

infractions

43.

Many states have very similar state criminal laws because:

a)

they are required by the federal supremacy clause

b)

they are modeled on the Uniform Crime Reports

c)

all state criminal laws are descended from English common law

d)

they all adopted the same version of the Model Penal Code

44.

An alibi defense involves proving the offender was mentally ill at the time of the offense.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

If someone commits a crime and intended to cause harm, this is legally known as:

a)

mens rea

b)

actus reus

c)

strict liability

d)

criminal negligence

46.

Solicitation, conspiracy, and attempt are the three most common types of:

a)

status offenses

b)

inchoate offenses

c)

mala prohibita crimes

d)

affirmative defenses

47.

Using force or threatening to use force to take someone's property is legally known as:

a)

burglary

b)

robbery

c)

larceny

d)

embezzlement

48.

A crime against the state specifically means crimes that are considered to have been committed against:

a)

individual victims

b)

municipal corporations

c)

the federal government or a state government

d)

international organizations

49.

Some states have enacted rape shield laws to prohibit questioning the victim about past sexual experiences.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Which agency is responsible for investigating arson?

a)

the FBI

b)

the ATF

c)

the DEA

d)

the Secret Service

51.

One of the most popular models for problem-oriented policing is:

a)

SARA

b)

COMPSTAT

c)

CPTED

d)

DARE

52.

One area where local police have very little jurisdiction (or none at all) is:

a)

on tribal reservations

b)

on military bases

c)

in national parks

d)

on college campuses

53.

A police rank of "Captain" is higher than the rank of "Lieutenant."

a)

True

b)

False

54.

The 2nd largest police force in the US is in:

a)

New York City

b)

Los Angeles

c)

Chicago

d)

Houston

55.

Which agency is responsible for investigating white collar crime?

a)

Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)

b)

Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

c)

Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF)

d)

U.S. Marshals Service

56.

There are national standards for police academies which every academy must teach.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

When policing efforts are focused on one neighborhood, crime may decrease there but move to a nearby neighborhood. This phenomenon is known as:

a)

displacement

b)

diffusion of benefits

c)

deterrence

d)

hot-spot saturation

58.

What does FRSS stand for?

a)

Facial Recognition Software Systems

b)

Federal Regional Security Service

c)

Forensic Record Storage System

d)

Facial Recognition Surveillance Suite

59.

An individual attains the title of "sheriff" when:

a)

appointed by the governor

b)

elected

c)

promoted from deputy

d)

certified by the state POST commission

60.

Police and other law enforcement organizations publish their formal policies and procedures into something called:

a)

Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)

b)

Memoranda of Understanding (MOUs)

c)

Field Training Manuals

d)

General Orders

61.

Weeks v. United States (1914) determined that evidence in a case can be:

a)

declared inadmissible

b)

admitted regardless of how obtained

c)

suppressed only in civil cases

d)

used if obtained by private citizens

62.

State-level courts were able to write their own "exclusion of evidence" rules until which year?

a)

1949

b)

1961

c)

1914

d)

1973

63.

If you agree to allow police to search your dorm room, anything they find is admissible in court. Which court case determined this?

a)

Florida v. Jimeno

b)

Mapp v. Ohio

c)

Miranda v. Arizona

d)

Terry v. Ohio

64.

There are few instances in which police can search without a warrant. The two most common reasons are:

a)

in matters of public safety

b)

consent

c)

plain view

d)

good faith

65.

Do juveniles have the right to remain silent while questioned by police?

a)

Yes

b)

No

66.

An undercover police officer pretends to offer to sell you some marijuana. This tactic is known as a:

a)

reverse sting

b)

buy-bust

c)

entrapment operation

d)

decoy deployment

67.

All students have a right to privacy in their own lockers at school.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

The Eighth Amendment contains the terminology that established Miranda Rights.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

An individual who is suspected of terrorism might be held indefinitely under the:

a)

material witness law

b)

habeas corpus statute

c)

USA Patriot Act detention order

d)

immigration hold

70.

The USA Patriot Act has significantly altered the limits of:

a)

law enforcement to conduct searches

b)

judicial review of sentences

c)

federal taxation authority

d)

bail procedures

71.

Courts of General Jurisdiction (Trial Courts) can be found on which tier of the federal court system?

a)

Tier 1

b)

Tier 2

c)

Tier 3

d)

Tier 4

72.

The Supreme Court holds what power that allows it to choose what cases it will hear?

a)

certiorari power

b)

judicial review

c)

original jurisdiction

d)

writ of prohibition

73.

There are federal judicial circuits.

a)

11

b)

12

c)

13

d)

14

74.

Of the following choices, which one is a lower federal court with control limited to setting bail, assisting district courts, and trying lesser misdemeanors?

a)

U.S. Magistrate Courts

b)

U.S. Courts of Appeals

c)

U.S. District Courts

d)

U.S. Supreme Court

75.

Article ___ of the U.S. Constitution granted authority to establish the federal court system.

a)

Article I

b)

Article II

c)

Article III

d)

Article IV

76.

Enforcement of federal codes is the responsibility of the federal court system in which type(s) of trial?

a)

Criminal

b)

Administrative

c)

Civil

d)

All of the above

77.

Cases heard by the U.S. Supreme Court that result in how the Constitution will be interpreted are called ___.

a)

landmark cases

b)

statutory cases

c)

per curiam cases

d)

advisory cases

78.

In the federal court system, trial courts are known as ___.

a)

U.S. Circuit Courts

b)

U.S. District Courts

c)

U.S. Magistrate Courts

d)

U.S. Supreme Court

79.

There are ___ federal judicial districts.

a)

50

b)

94

c)

102

d)

13

80.

Identify the court(s) considered a court of last resort.

a)

U.S. Supreme Court

b)

State supreme courts

c)

U.S. Courts of Appeals

d)

U.S. District Courts

81.

According to your text, a plea bargain is the disposition in what percent of cases at the federal level?

a)

90%

b)

97%

c)

75%

d)

50%

82.

What type of bond bases release on the defendant's promise to pay the court an amount similar to a cash bail bond if he/she does not fulfill the promise to return for trial?

a)

Unsecured bond

b)

Secured bond

c)

Cash bond

d)

Property bond

83.

The time between _____ and _____ is included in the right to a speedy trial.

a)

arrest and trial

b)

investigation and sentencing

c)

indictment and appeal

d)

arraignment and parole

84.

Releasing a defendant upon his/her signature with a promise to return to trial is which type of bond?

a)

pipelines?

b)

Signature bond

c)

Secured bond

d)

Property bond

e)

Cash bond

85.

The Amendment to the Constitution preventing a person from being charged for the same crime twice is the ____________.

a)

Fifth Amendment

b)

First Amendment

c)

Sixth Amendment

d)

Eighth Amendment

86.

The fee a bail bondsman charges is usually what percentage of the total bail amount?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

15%

d)

25%

87.

Most felony trials are held in which of the following venues?

a)

State courts of general jurisdiction

b)

Federal district courts

c)

U.S. magistrate courts

d)

Appellate courts

88.

If a defendant cannot afford a private attorney to represent them, defense counsel is providing what type of defense?

a)

Indigent defense

b)

Private defense

c)

Pro se defense

d)

Appellate defense

89.

A ______ is a judge's order to both participants and observers at a trial stating that neither evidence nor proceedings of the court may be released in any way to the general public.

a)

gag order

b)

writ of certiorari

c)

subpoena

d)

bench warrant

90.

Each of these makes up the courtroom work group EXCEPT _______.

a)

Prosecutor

b)

Defense attorney

c)

Judge

d)

Witness

91.

_____ refers to comments made by an injured party during an offender's sentencing hearing.

a)

Victim impact statements

b)

Hearsay testimony

c)

Allocution by the judge

d)

Plea colloquy

92.

Bifurcated trial structure was required by the U.S. Supreme Court for death penalty cases as a result of which case?

a)

Gregg v. Georgia

b)

Furman v. Georgia

c)

Gideon v. Wainwright

d)

Miranda v. Arizona

93.

Refers to mandatory sentencing that makes prison terms longer for repeat offenders.

a)

Three-strikes laws

b)

Truth-in-sentencing policies

c)

Sentencing guidelines

d)

Good-time credit systems

94.

Which of the following refers to the principle that prevention from future offending is best done by removing them from society?

a)

Incapacitation

b)

Rehabilitation

c)

Restitution

d)

Diversion

95.

Of the following sentencing models, which one allows the judge to have nearly complete discretion during sentencing?

a)

Indeterminate sentencing

b)

Determinate sentencing

c)

Mandatory minimums

d)

Structured sentencing guidelines

96.

Of the following states, which adopted "guilty but mentally ill" as a potential verdict?

a)

Michigan

b)

Texas

c)

California

d)

New York

97.

Which type of deterrence is based upon the idea that a person is best deterred from committing crimes in the future due to the specific nature of the punishment?

a)

Specific deterrence

b)

General deterrence

c)

Situational crime prevention

d)

Incapacitation

98.

Rehabilitating the victim, rather than the offender, is the center of which punishment philosophy?

a)

Restorative justice

b)

Retribution

c)

Deterrence

d)

Incapacitation

99.

Which of the sentencing philosophies, also know as "get-tough" sentencing, would support punishment because the criminal deserves it?

a)

Retribution

b)

Rehabilitation

c)

Restorative justice

d)

Incapacitation

100.

Of the following options, which refers to the U.S. Supreme Court effectively banning the use of the death penalty?

a)

Furman v. Georgia

b)

Gregg v. Georgia

c)

McCleskey v. Kemp

d)

Ring v. Arizona

101.

Over 50 percent of prisoners can be classified as drug dependent.

a)

True

b)

False

102.

The agency responsible for the administrative oversight of federal prisons and jails is which of the following?

a)

Federal Bureau of Prisons

b)

U.S. Marshals Service

c)

Bureau of Justice Statistics

d)

Federal Prison Industries

103.

Prisoners in Eastern State Penitentiary would be kept in ______.

a)

Isolation

b)

Congregate labor

c)

Work release

d)

Community custody

104.

The Eastern State Penitentiary was founded in what year?

a)

1790

b)

1819

c)

1829

d)

1845

105.

The idea that prisoners should be placed on self-contained, self-governing reservations completely isolated from society is a suggestion of which American criminologist?

a)

Earnest Hooton

b)

Robert Martinson

c)

Edwin Sutherland

d)

Travis Hirschi

106.

Annually, the average approximate cost of housing per inmate in a state prison is ______.

a)

$18,000

b)

$25,000

c)

$29,000

d)

$35,000

107.

Female inmates with dependent children make up approximately what percent of the state prison system?

a)

40%

b)

60%

c)

70%

d)

80%

108.

The practice of using inmate labor to maintain profit-making plantations in Southern prison systems was known as ______.

a)

Convict leasing

b)

Prison farm system

c)

Chain gang labor

d)

Industrial prisons

109.

_____ prison system became a prototype for future American prisons to model after.

a)

Auburn

b)

Pennsylvania

c)

Elmira

d)

Irish

110.

The Prison Rape Elimination Act was passed in what year?

a)

1996

b)

2000

c)

2003

d)

2010

111.

Of the following choices, which state no longer uses private prisons?

a)

Texas

b)

Florida

c)

Arizona

d)

Massachusetts

112.

The cost of probation for an individual for one year is approximately ______.

a)

$1,200

b)

$2,800

c)

$3,347

d)

$5,100

113.

The role of a parole officer includes:

a)

law enforcement officer

b)

community resource broker

c)

all of the above

d)

social worker

114.

Which of the following options is NOT one of the five common organizational structures discussed in the text regarding state probation officers?

a)

county-level agency within the executive branch

b)

statewide centralized probation agency

c)

within U.S. District courts

d)

locally administered probation under state standards

115.

____ of prisoners successfully complete parole, according to a 2014 report from BJS.

a)

42%

b)

58%

c)

65%

d)

75%

116.

A(n) ________ refers to an inmate's sentence being reduced either in severity or length.

a)

commutation of sentence

b)

pardon

c)

furlough

d)

detainer

117.

After completion of the first year of a prison sentence, how many days of good-time credit can a federal inmate earn annually?

a)

30 days

b)

47 days

c)

54 days

d)

60 days

118.

Later known as probation, who initiated the process in Boston's municipal courtroom?

a)

John Augustus

b)

Cesare Beccaria

c)

Jeremy Bentham

d)

William Penn

119.

____ passed the first probation statute.

a)

Massachusetts

b)

New York

c)

Pennsylvania

d)

Virginia

120.

Probation was considered to be ____ prior to the Warren Court in Escoe v. Zerbst.

a)

an act of grace

b)

a constitutional right

c)

a mandatory sentence

d)

a civil penalty

121.

Early release of an inmate is decided by the ____.

a)

parole board

b)

trial jury

c)

prosecutor

d)

Department of Treasury

122.

What have results from "traditional" methods of incarceration, probation, and parole shown?

a)

failure to reduce recidivism effectively

b)

significant decreases in prison admissions

c)

near-elimination of repeat offending

d)

universal success when programs are fully funded

123.

A halfway house is a _______.

a)

transitional program moving from prison back to the community in steps

b)

maximum-security custodial facility

c)

form of electronic monitoring at home

d)

diversion that occurs prior to conviction

124.

Which of the following sentences involves a short period of imprisonment before starting probation?

a)

shock probation

b)

unsupervised probation

c)

intensive supervision only

d)

deferred adjudication

125.

Drug court programs differentiate from the traditional adjudication process in which of the following? Choose the best answer.

a)

successfully reducing recidivism through treatment and monitoring

b)

increasing prison overcrowding through longer sentences

c)

prioritizing punishment over rehabilitation at each stage

d)

eliminating judicial oversight once treatment begins

126.

_____ is identified as the most salient barrier to halfway housing.

a)

strong community opposition

b)

insufficient parole board authority

c)

lack of available prosecutors

d)

excessive electronic monitoring use

127.

_____ refers to treatment programming created in support of offenders transitioning back into the community after release from prison.

a)

community-based intermediate sanctions

b)

indeterminate sentencing guidelines

c)

mandatory minimum penalties

d)

truth-in-sentencing laws

128.

Data from Drug Using Forecasting (DUF) suggests that, at the time of their arrest, a majority of people were _____.

a)

under the influence of one or more illicit drugs

b)

abstaining from all substances for six months

c)

participating in a residential treatment program

d)

using only prescribed medications as directed

129.

Why does an offender NOT have to report to a probation officer while staying in a halfway house?

a)

the house staff performs this function

b)

probation reporting rules are suspended

c)

reporting occurs only after employment is found

d)

electronic monitoring makes reporting unnecessary

130.

What is the goal of drug courts?

a)

to stop the revolving door syndrome by reducing repeat offending

b)

to maximize fines collected for drug offenses

c)

to expedite convictions with mandatory minimums

d)

to replace treatment with incarceration for deterrence

131.

A sanction that begins with a person serving a short jail sentence, then being brought back in front of a judge to consider a probationary period is _____.

a)

split sentencing

b)

shock incarceration

c)

parole revocation

d)

day reporting

132.

_____ has seen a 300% increase in school-based incident referrals in the past ten years.

a)

juvenile court

b)

criminal court

c)

civil court

d)

small claims court

133.

All of the following are examples of situations where the juvenile court would assume authority for a child EXCEPT for which one?

a)

The child was abused

b)

The child was neglected

c)

The child was dependent

d)

The juvenile was mentally ill

134.

All of the following are considered to be models for juvenile classification EXCEPT for ______.

a)

Legal model

b)

Needs-based model

c)

Risk-based model

d)

Combination states

135.

Of the following, which case set the standard for juveniles being transferred to adult criminal court?

a)

Kent v. United States

b)

In re Gault

c)

Breed v. Jones

d)

Roper v. Simmons

136.

All of the following are status offenses EXCEPT which one?

a)

Truancy

b)

Running away

c)

Curfew violation

d)

Burglary

137.

________ established that juveniles cannot be tried in both juvenile court and adult criminal court for the same offense.

a)

Breed v. Jones

b)

Kent v. United States

c)

In re Winship

d)

McKeiver v. Pennsylvania

138.

All of the following statements are supported by research of the DARE program except for one. Which one is NOT?

a)

Effects on drug use are minimal or short-lived

b)

It may improve attitudes without changing behavior

c)

It has been very effective at preventing drug use in teens

d)

Long-term reductions in substance use have not been consistently demonstrated

139.

The targeted age group for the DARE program is ______ grades.

a)

3rd and 4th

b)

5th and 6th

c)

7th and 8th

d)

9th and 10th

140.

One could be found capable of forming mens rea at what age in colonial America?

a)

5

b)

7

c)

10

d)

12

141.

All of the following are characteristic of hybrid gangs EXCEPT for which one?

a)

Shifting alliances with other gangs

b)

Mixed race and ethnic composition

c)

Less organized leadership and structure

d)

They are more violent than in the past