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Axial & Appendicular Skeleton: Learning Targets 1 & 2 (Part 1)

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which set lists ONLY axial skeleton components?

a)

Coxa, femur, patella, tibia

b)

Clavicle, humerus, radius, ulna

c)

Skull, vertebrae, ribs, sternum

d)

Scapula, carpals, metacarpals, phalanges

e)

Fibula, tarsals, metatarsals, phalanges

2.

Which bone group belongs to the appendicular skeleton of the upper limb?

a)

Scapula, clavicle, humerus, radius, ulna

b)

Skull, vertebrae, sacrum, coccyx, ribs

c)

Sternum, ribs, vertebrae, sacrum

d)

Fibula, tarsals, metatarsals, phalanges

e)

Coxa, femur, tibia, patella

3.

Select the correct classification for the lower limb bones listed: fibula, patella, tarsals.

a)

Cranial skeleton components

b)

Axial skeleton components

c)

Vertebral column components

d)

Thoracic cage components

e)

Appendicular skeleton components

4.

On a scapula diagram, which anatomical term names a shallow depression for muscle attachment?

a)

Condyle

b)

Epicondyle

c)

Tubercle

d)

Fossa

e)

Foramen

5.

Which term best describes a rounded bump on a bone, smaller than a tuberosity?

a)

Tubercle

b)

Angle

c)

Process

d)

Ramus

e)

Facet

6.

A student must color-code a skeleton to separate axial and appendicular regions. Which planning step will most reduce mistakes?

a)

Ignore the rib cage until the end

b)

Color all long bones first

c)

Use the brightest colors available

d)

Start coloring from the feet upward

e)

List axial bones before coloring

7.

You are labeling a vertebra. Which feature is an opening that allows passage of nerves or vessels?

a)

Foramen

b)

Facet

c)

Condyle

d)

Ramus

e)

Process

8.

Which term describes a shallow depression on a bone surface commonly found near articular areas?

a)

Fossa shallow depression

b)

Notch deep indentation

c)

Spine ridge on bone

d)

Tuberosity rough bump

9.

On long bones, what is the narrowed region between the head and the body called?

a)

Ramus projecting arm

b)

Foramen round opening

c)

Neck constricted region

d)

Process small extension

10.

Which bones are classified as cranial bones? Select the option that lists only cranial bones.

a)

Frontal, parietal, temporal

b)

Lacrimal, ethmoid, inferior concha

c)

Mandible, vomer, palatine

d)

Maxilla, zygomatic, nasal

11.

Which structure forms the small, flat articular surface on a vertebra that helps joint movement between adjacent vertebrae?

a)

Tubercle rounded bump

b)

Spinous posterior ridge

c)

Foramen nerve opening

d)

Facet articular surface

12.

Which sutures of the skull connect the parietal bones to neighboring bones?

a)

Zygomatic and maxillary

b)

Metopic and palatine

c)

Sagittal and lambdoid

d)

Coronal and squamous

13.

What is the only movable joint of the skull?

a)

Occipital condyles

b)

Nasal cartilages

c)

Suture lines

d)

TMJ at mandible

14.

Which sequence correctly lists vertebral column regions from superior to inferior?

a)

Cervical thoracic lumbar

b)

Lumbar thoracic cervical

c)

Thoracic cervical lumbar

d)

Sacral lumbar cervical

15.

You are comparing cervical and thoracic vertebrae. Which feature best distinguishes a typical cervical vertebra from a typical thoracic vertebra?

a)

Large heart-shaped body

b)

Transverse foramina present

c)

Long inferior spinous

d)

Costal facets for ribs

16.

Which vertebral region has short, bifid spinous processes and transverse foramina?

a)

Thoracic vertebrae T1–T12

b)

Lumbar vertebrae L1–L5

c)

Cervical vertebrae C1–C7

d)

Sacral vertebrae S1–S5

17.

Which vertebra is called the atlas and primarily supports the skull?

a)

L1 with largest vertebral body

b)

T1 with rib facets

c)

C2 with dens odontoid process

d)

C1 with superior articular facets

18.

Which feature distinguishes the axis from other cervical vertebrae?

a)

Long inferior spinous process

b)

Costal facets for ribs

c)

Presence of the dens process

d)

Large kidney-shaped body

19.

Which vertebral region has costal facets on the body for rib articulation?

a)

Lumbar vertebrae L1–L5

b)

Cervical vertebrae C1–C7

c)

Coccygeal vertebrae Co1–Co4

d)

Thoracic vertebrae T1–T12

20.

Which vertebral region typically has the largest vertebral bodies to bear weight?

a)

Lumbar vertebrae L1–L5

b)

Cervical vertebrae C1–C7

c)

Thoracic vertebrae T1–T12

d)

Sacral vertebrae S1–S5

21.

What is the primary function of intervertebral disks?

a)

Anchor ribs to the sternum

b)

Shock absorption and load distribution

c)

Protect cranial nerves in foramina

d)

Enable rotation of the atlas on axis

22.

Which two main components make up an intervertebral disk?

a)

Nucleus pulposus and annulus fibrosus

b)

Trabecular bone and cortical shell

c)

Ligamentum flavum and interspinous ligament

d)

Synovial capsule and articular cartilage

23.

Which set of ribs is classified as true ribs in the thoracic cage?

a)

Rib pairs 3–10 articulate with xiphoid

b)

Rib pairs 1–7 attach directly to sternum

c)

Rib pairs 8–12 attach via cartilage

d)

Rib pairs 11–12 have no anterior attachment

24.

Which ribs are considered floating ribs?

a)

Rib pairs 3–7 connect by costal cartilage

b)

Rib pairs 11–12 lack anterior attachment

c)

Rib pairs 8–10 attach to xiphoid

d)

Rib pairs 1–2 fuse with manubrium

25.

What is the primary function of costal cartilage in the thoracic cage?

a)

Protect spinal cord from compression

b)

Increase rib thickness for force absorption

c)

Anchor clavicle to manubrium firmly

d)

Connect ribs to sternum and add flexibility

26.

Which part of the sternum articulates with the clavicles?

a)

Manubrium at clavicular notches

b)

Sternal angle at rib tubercle

c)

Body at intercostal facets

d)

Xiphoid at costal margin

27.

Which bones form the pectoral girdle?

a)

Scapula and radius

b)

Sternum and rib one

c)

Humerus and ulna

d)

Clavicle and scapula pair

28.

Which upper limb bone contains the trochlea that articulates with the ulna?

a)

Distal humerus at trochlea

b)

Clavicle at acromial end

c)

Proximal radius at head

d)

Scapula at coracoid

29.

Which landmark is found on the ulna and forms the elbow tip?

a)

Greater tubercle superiorly

b)

Coracoid process anteriorly

c)

Radial styloid laterally

d)

Olecranon process posteriorly

30.

Which statement best compares true, false, and floating ribs?

a)

True attach to sternum; false via shared cartilage; floating no anterior

b)

True attach by ligaments; false by tendons; floating by muscles

c)

True are upper; false are lower; floating are middle

d)

True attach to xiphoid; false to manubrium; floating to clavicle

31.

In the labeled scapula diagram, which structure forms the superior-lateral projection that articulates with the clavicle?

a)

Scapular spine on posterior surface

b)

Glenoid cavity on lateral border

c)

Acromion projecting laterally

d)

Coracoid process at superior border

32.

In the anterior view hand diagram, which carpal lies anterior to (palmar to) the triquetrum and is visible as a pea-shaped bone?

a)

Pisiform on palmar side

b)

Capitate central carpal

c)

Scaphoid near radius

d)

Hamate with hook

33.

Which statement correctly distinguishes thumb phalanges compared with other digits in the diagrams?

a)

Thumb lacks a middle phalanx

b)

Thumb has fused proximal and distal

c)

Thumb lacks a distal phalanx

d)

Thumb has four phalanges

e)

Thumb has three metacarpals

34.

Identify the carpal that articulates primarily with the radius at the wrist in the diagrams.

a)

Capitate central carpal

b)

Lunate proximal carpal

c)

Pisiform sesamoid carpal

d)

Hamate ulnar carpal

35.

In the posterior view diagram, which pair of carpals is most radial (lateral) in the proximal row?

a)

Scaphoid and trapezium

b)

Scaphoid and lunate

c)

Triquetrum and pisiform

d)

Hamate and capitate

36.

Which metacarpal is aligned with the little finger in both views of the hand diagrams?

a)

1st metacarpal medial

b)

3rd metacarpal central

c)

2nd metacarpal lateral

d)

5th metacarpal ulnar

37.

A fall onto an outstretched hand often injures the scaphoid. Based on the diagrams, where is the scaphoid located relative to the radius?

a)

Central to the radius, distal row

b)

Radial to the radius, proximal row

c)

Radial to the radius, distal row

d)

Ulnar to the radius, proximal row

38.

Which bones fuse to form a single coxa in the pelvic girdle?

a)

Ischium, acetabulum, coccyx

b)

Sacrum, coccyx, ilium

c)

Femur, pubis, sacrum

d)

Ilium, ischium, pubis

39.

What is the cup-shaped socket where the femoral head articulates with the pelvis?

a)

Acetabulum

b)

Obturator foramen

c)

Iliac fossa

d)

Greater sciatic notch

40.

Identify the large opening formed by the ischium and pubis that reduces bone mass while maintaining strength.

a)

Iliac crest

b)

Lesser sciatic notch

c)

Obturator foramen

d)

Acetabular fossa

41.

Which feature is a prominent ridge along the superior border of the ilium used for muscle attachment?

a)

Acetabular rim

b)

Pubic tubercle

c)

Ischial spine

d)

Iliac crest

42.

A nerve exits the pelvis through a notch posterior to the acetabulum. Which landmark is this?

a)

Anterior superior iliac spine

b)

Ischial tuberosity

c)

Lesser sciatic notch

d)

Greater sciatic notch

43.

Which feature is located inferior to the ischial spine and transmits structures to the gluteal region?

a)

Acetabular fossa

b)

Pubic symphysis

c)

Iliac crest

d)

Lesser sciatic notch

44.

In the foot diagram, which row correctly orders the phalanges from the toes toward the ankle?

a)

Middle, distal, proximal

b)

Proximal, distal, middle

c)

Proximal, middle, distal

d)

Distal, middle, proximal

45.

Which bone is labeled as the heel bone in the foot diagram?

a)

Talus

b)

Calcaneus

c)

Navicular

d)

Cuboid

46.

Which pairing correctly matches a distal ankle landmark to its bone?

a)

Lateral malleolus—talus

b)

Medial malleolus—tibia

c)

Lateral malleolus—tibia

d)

Medial malleolus—fibula

47.

In the femur diagram, which large projection is lateral and provides muscle attachment?

a)

Intercondylar fossa

b)

Medial condyle

c)

Lesser trochanter

d)

Greater trochanter

48.

Which tarsal bones articulate with metatarsals I–III on the medial side of the foot?

a)

Calcaneus, navicular, cuboid

b)

Medial, intermediate, lateral cuneiforms

c)

Cuboid, navicular, talus

d)

Talus, calcaneus, navicular

49.

A patient has pain along the membrane between tibia and fibula. Which structure is most likely affected?

a)

Head of fibula

b)

Anterior tibial crest

c)

Interosseous membrane

d)

Tibial tuberosity

50.

In a superior view diagram showing two major sutures across the skull vault, which suture runs between the two parietal bones along the midline?

a)

Squamous suture above temporal bone

b)

Sagittal suture between parietal bones

c)

Coronal suture across frontal-parietal

d)

Lambdoid suture across occipital border

51.

In a lateral view highlighting temporal region labels, which opening leads into the ear canal on the temporal bone?

a)

Foramen magnum aperture

b)

Carotid canal entrance

c)

Jugular foramen passageway

d)

External auditory meatus opening

52.

Identify the bone forming the forehead and contributing to the roof of the orbits in an anterior-lateral view.

a)

Frontal bone of the forehead

b)

Maxilla of upper jaw

c)

Ethmoid bone of medial orbit

d)

Zygomatic bone of cheek

53.

Which suture separates the parietal bones from the occipital bone in a posterior-superior view?

a)

Sagittal suture midline vault

b)

Squamous suture lateral margin

c)

Lambdoid suture posterior margin

d)

Coronal suture anterior margin

54.

In an inferior cranial base view, what large opening allows passage of the spinal cord from the cranial cavity to the vertebral canal?

a)

External auditory meatus canal

b)

Foramen magnum central opening

c)

Jugular foramen lateral notch

d)

Carotid canal anterior tunnel

55.

A mandible diagram shows the U-shaped lower jaw with a vertical ramus and an anterior chin region. Which part articulates with the temporal bone at the TMJ?

a)

Mental protuberance chin area

b)

Coronoid process anterior ramus

c)

Mandibular symphysis midline fusion

d)

Condylar process posterior ramus

56.

In the lateral skull diagram, which thin bone contributes to the medial wall of the orbit and is labeled near the nasal cavity?

a)

Sphenoid bone greater wing

b)

Zygomatic bone lateral orbit

c)

Lacrimal bone medial orbit

d)

Nasal bone bridge region

57.

From the superior vault diagram, which suture runs transversely between the frontal bone and parietal bones?

a)

Squamous suture lateral curve

b)

Coronal suture transverse line

c)

Sagittal suture midline seam

d)

Lambdoid suture posterior arc

58.

Which bone is part of the axial skeleton and forms the posterior base of the skull?

a)

Parietal bone of cranial vault

b)

Temporal bone at lateral skull

c)

Occipital bone at skull base

d)

Frontal bone above the orbits

59.

Which paired long bone runs along the lateral side of the forearm in anatomical position?

a)

Humerus of the upper arm

b)

Radius on the lateral forearm

c)

Ulna on the medial forearm

d)

Clavicle across the shoulder

60.

Select the bone that is part of the appendicular skeleton and articulates with the glenoid fossa to form the shoulder joint.

a)

Ribs of the thoracic cage

b)

Humerus of the upper limb

c)

Scapula on the posterior shoulder

d)

Sternum in the thorax

61.

Which axial structure protects the heart by articulating with true ribs via costal cartilages?

a)

Clavicle at the anterior shoulder

b)

Lumbar vertebrae in lower back

c)

Scapula spine posteriorly

d)

Sternum body in the midline

62.

Identify the bone that transmits body weight from femur to the foot and is classified as a tarsal.

a)

Talus at the ankle mortise

b)

Navicular on the medial foot

c)

Cuboid on the lateral foot

d)

Calcaneus forming the heel

63.

Which sequence correctly orders the bones of the hand from proximal to distal?

a)

Phalanges, carpals, metacarpals

b)

Carpals, phalanges, metacarpals

c)

Carpals, metacarpals, phalanges

d)

Metacarpals, carpals, phalanges

64.

Choose the correct classification: Which of the following is axial rather than appendicular?

a)

Fibula along the lateral leg

b)

Sacrum at the pelvic base

c)

Patella at the knee

d)

Femur in the thigh

65.

A student labels the mandible as part of the appendicular skeleton. What correction should be made?

a)

Relabel as pelvic girdle bone

b)

Relabel as vertebral column bone

c)

Relabel as axial skull bone

d)

Relabel as upper limb bone

66.

Which pair correctly matches bone and location for weight-bearing in the leg?

a)

Fibula primarily weight-bearing laterally

b)

Tibia primarily weight-bearing medially

c)

Femur non–weight-bearing proximally

d)

Patella primary shaft for weight-bearing

67.

During labeling, which bone should be identified as part of the pectoral girdle connecting the sternum to the scapula?

a)

Radius of the forearm

b)

Clavicle at the anterior shoulder

c)

Ulna of the forearm

d)

Humerus of the arm

68.

Which pair correctly names the two major parts of the skull?

a)

Cranium and facial bones

b)

Mandible and maxilla

c)

Temporal and parietal bones

d)

Atlas and axis vertebrae

69.

What best describes a suture in the skull?

a)

Movable hinge at the jawline

b)

Flexible cartilage between vertebrae

c)

Immovable joints holding skull bones

d)

Elastic bands connecting facial muscles

70.

Which structure is the only movable joint of the skull?

a)

Mandible (jawbone)

b)

Zygomatic arch

c)

Occipital condyle

d)

Temporal squama

71.

Which feature helps you distinguish cervical vertebrae?

a)

Long spinous processes hooking down

b)

Smallest bodies and transverse foramina

c)

Large articulating surfaces for ribs

d)

Massive bodies and short spinous

72.

Which statement best characterizes thoracic vertebrae?

a)

Smallest and lightest with foramina

b)

No body, supports occipital condyles

c)

Massive bodies and short spinous

d)

Long spinous processes that hook downward

73.

Which statement best characterizes lumbar vertebrae?

a)

Small bodies and bifid spinous processes

b)

Transverse foramina for vertebral arteries

c)

Long spinous processes that hook downward

d)

Massive bodies with short spinous processes

74.

Which pairing of cervical vertebra and property is correct?

a)

Axis: smallest and lightest vertebra

b)

Atlas: no body, nodding “yes” motion

c)

Axis: occipital condyles rest on top

d)

Atlas: dens process, shaking “no” motion

75.

Which term is another name for the coccyx?

a)

Lumbar base

b)

Sacrum

c)

Tailbone

d)

Iliac crest

76.

What is the primary function of intervertebral disks?

a)

Store minerals for bone growth

b)

Control spinal cord reflexes

c)

Anchor ribs to the sternum

d)

Act as cushions between vertebrae

77.

Which statement best describes a herniated disk?

a)

A thickened disk that improves shock absorption

b)

A fused disk that increases flexibility of the spine

c)

A slipped disk that can press on the spinal cord

d)

A dehydrated disk that always heals without pain

78.

How do true ribs differ from false ribs?

a)

True ribs connect only by costal cartilage

b)

True ribs are the last two rib pairs

c)

True ribs attach directly to the sternum

d)

True ribs attach indirectly to the vertebrae

79.

Why are the floating ribs called “floating”?

a)

They are connected solely by costal cartilage

b)

They do not attach to the sternum at all

c)

They are suspended by intervertebral disks

d)

They attach only to the manubrium

80.

Which ribs articulate with the manubrium?

a)

The first pair

b)

Pairs two through seven

c)

Pairs eight through ten

d)

The last two pairs

81.

What is costal cartilage?

a)

Segments of cartilage connecting the sternum to ribs

b)

Elastic tissue cushioning vertebral bodies

c)

Fibrous bands linking vertebrae to pelvis

d)

Cartilage pads protecting the spinal cord

82.

Which bones form the pectoral girdle?

a)

Clavicle and scapula

b)

Humerus and radius

c)

Ulna and carpal bones

d)

Sternum and ribs

83.

Which list correctly names the parts of the upper limb?

a)

Arm, forearm, wrist, hand

b)

Shoulder, elbow, knee, foot

c)

Neck, back, hip, leg

d)

Pelvis, thigh, shin, ankle

84.

To which part of the scapula does the humerus connect?

a)

Glenoid fossa of the scapula

b)

Spine of the scapula

c)

Acromion process of the scapula

d)

Coracoid process of the scapula

85.

What is the primary purpose of the clavicle?

a)

Protects the brachial plexus from injury

b)

Transfers weight from trunk to lower limb

c)

Supports rib movement during breathing

d)

Prevents shoulder dislocation by bracing the arm

86.

Which bones make up the pelvic girdle?

a)

Femur and patella

b)

Sacrum and coccyx

c)

Ilium and sacrum

d)

Two fused coxal bones

87.

Which three bones fuse to form the coxa?

a)

Ilium, ischium, pubis

b)

Sacrum, coccyx, ilium

c)

Femur, tibia, fibula

d)

Patella, talus, calcaneus

88.

Where on the coxa does the head of the femur articulate?

a)

Acetabulum of the coxa

b)

Pubic symphysis

c)

Iliac crest

d)

Greater sciatic notch

89.

What is the function of the greater sciatic notch?

a)

Forms the socket for the femoral head

b)

Serves as attachment for gluteal muscles

c)

Allows vessels and the sciatic nerve to pass to the leg

d)

Anchors ligaments of the pelvic floor

90.

Which statement best distinguishes a typical female pelvis from a male pelvis?

a)

More prominent projections and smaller outlet

b)

Narrower inlet with thicker bones

c)

Heavier with more curved sacrum and coccyx

d)

Smoother and lighter with larger pelvic outlet

91.

Which bones make up the hallux in the human foot?

a)

Proximal phalanx and distal phalanx

b)

Middle phalanx and distal phalanx

c)

Proximal phalanx and middle phalanx

d)

Metatarsal and middle phalanx