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NRF BUSINESS OF RETAIL — 100 QUESTION PRACTICE EXAM

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Marketing is best defined as:

a)

Selling products

b)

Promoting discount offers

c)

Creating, communicating, and delivering value to customers

d)

Distributing goods through supply chains

2.

A target market refers to:

a)

Everyone in the world

b)

A specific group of customers a company aims to serve

c)

The employees within a business

d)

Competitors in the same industry

3.

Which is an example of positioning?

a)

Increasing inventory

b)

Creating the perception of a luxury, premium shoe brand

c)

Changing store hours

d)

Training employees

4.

A value proposition communicates:

a)

Tax information for customers

b)

The reason customers should choose your product

c)

Where products are manufactured

d)

Your yearly advertising schedule

5.

The 4Ps of marketing include:

a)

Product, Price, Place, Promotion

b)

People, Process, Policy, Promotion

c)

Product, People, Profit, Price

d)

Production, Packaging, Pricing, Promotion

6.

Which of the following creates competitive advantage?

a)

Being average at everything

b)

Offering the same products as competitors

c)

A unique service that competitors cannot easily copy

d)

Charging the highest price

7.

Which is included in a marketing plan?

a)

Employee payroll

b)

Weather reports

c)

Target market description

d)

Personal employee goals

8.

A SWOT analysis examines all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Strengths

b)

Weaknesses

c)

Opportunities

9.

The purpose of a marketing plan is to:

a)

Randomly choose promotions

b)

Guide decisions and align actions

c)

Predict competitor failure

d)

Eliminate customer service issues

10.

A brand that positions itself as "affordable style for all" is using:

a)

Niche marketing

b)

Repositioning

c)

Value-based positioning

d)

Seasonal marketing

11.

Which is a demographic characteristic?

a)

Hobbies

b)

Personality

c)

Income

d)

Lifestyle

12.

Psychographics describe:

a)

Gender

b)

Age

c)

Interests and values

d)

Zip code

13.

A company analyzing emerging fashion trends is performing:

a)

Market research

b)

Production planning

c)

Inventory control

d)

Accounting

14.

A brand refresh to modernize appearance is an example of:

a)

Pricing strategy

b)

Repositioning

c)

Merchandising

d)

Inventory turnover

15.

The place element of the marketing mix refers to:

a)

Pricing discounts

b)

Where and how products are sold

c)

How products are advertised

d)

The design of the logo

16.

The promotion element focuses on:

a)

Sales, advertising, and communication

b)

Packaging and labeling

c)

Vendor negotiation

d)

Pricing markdowns

17.

A strategic decision is:

a)

Short-term and repetitive

b)

Long-term and goal-directed

c)

Based only on employee opinions

18.

A company offering exclusive sneaker drops is using:

a)

Mass marketing

b)

Differentiation

c)

Decline stage strategy

d)

Trading down

19.

Customer satisfaction increases when a business:

a)

Ignores complaints

b)

Meets or exceeds expectations

c)

Avoids surveys

d)

Reduces employee training

20.

A marketing plan timeline shows:

a)

Risks only

b)

Tasks, dates, and responsibilities

c)

Safety rules

d)

Customer birthdays

21.

Which is a SMART objective?

a)

We want to improve sales someday.

b)

We will increase sales by 10% by June 30.

c)

We will get better this year.

d)

We want more customers.

22.

A retailer studying holiday spending habits is analyzing:

a)

Weather forecasts

b)

Seasonal buying patterns

c)

Internal staffing

d)

Supplier issues

23.

A brand's unique selling proposition (USP) is:

a)

The store's net profit

b)

What sets the brand apart

c)

A yearly sales report

d)

A government regulation

24.

Which example best shows segmentation?

a)

Selling the same product to everyone

b)

Offering customized ads for teens versus adults

c)

Increasing floor space

d)

Hiring more employees

25.

A company forecasting next year's sales is engaged in:

a)

Guessing

b)

Market analysis

c)

Personal opinion

d)

Public relations

26.

Marketing research is used to:

a)

Increase employee pay

b)

Reduce business risk

c)

Determine tax laws

d)

Replace management

27.

Primary data is collected:

a)

By someone else previously

b)

Directly from the source for a specific purpose

c)

From government agencies only

d)

From competitors illegally

28.

Which is an example of primary research?

a)

Census data

b)

Surveying customers after checkout

c)

Industry reports

d)

Newspaper articles

29.

Secondary data includes:

a)

Store loyalty program analytics

b)

Customer interviews

c)

Test markets

d)

Observation studies

30.

A major disadvantage of primary research is:

a)

It is illegal

b)

It is time-consuming and expensive

c)

It cannot be used for decision making

d)

It is never accurate

31.

Exploratory research helps:

a)

Make final decisions

b)

Clarify unclear problems

c)

Determine prices

d)

Measure profit

32.

Descriptive research is designed to:

a)

Show cause and effect

b)

Describe characteristics of a population

c)

Replace customer surveys

d)

Test product durability

33.

Causal research is used to:

a)

Test cause-and-effect relationships

b)

Explore new ideas

c)

Identify product defects

d)

Train employees

34.

A retailer testing two promotional emails (A/B test) is conducting:

a)

Exploratory research

b)

Descriptive research

c)

Causal research

d)

Secondary research

35.

A sampling error occurs when:

a)

The sample represents the entire target market

b)

The sample is too small or unrepresentative

c)

The questions are easy to answer

d)

The researcher analyzes the data

36.

A leading question in a survey creates:

a)

Unbiased results

b)

Accurate insights

c)

Bias

d)

Larger sample sizes

37.

Which of the following is a qualitative research method?

a)

Online surveys

b)

Focus groups

c)

Retail math calculations

d)

Inventory reports

38.

Which is a quantitative method?

a)

Journaling

b)

Focus groups

c)

Online numeric surveys

d)

Storytelling

39.

39. POS (point-of-sale) data is useful for analyzing:

a)

Weather trends

b)

Customer purchase patterns

c)

Employee birthdays

d)

Competitor payroll

40.

Which is the FIRST step in the research process?

a)

Collect data

b)

Define the problem

c)

Analyze data

d)

Report findings

41.

After data is analyzed, the next step is to:

a)

Destroy the data

b)

Interpret and report findings

c)

Replace employees

d)

Set new taxes

42.

Observational research includes:

a)

Watching customers shop

b)

Writing emails

c)

Checking inventory levels

d)

Posting on social media

43.

A retailer examining social media comments is using:

a)

Internal data

b)

External data

c)

Illegal data

44.

Test markets are used to:

a)

Evaluate customer service

b)

Try a product in a small area before a national rollout

c)

Measure employee behavior

d)

Determine tax laws

45.

A company that incorrectly interprets data may:

a)

Increase accuracy

b)

Make poor business decisions

c)

Improve customer loyalty

d)

Improve competition

46.

Which of the following is an internal data source?

a)

U.S. Census

b)

POS sales history

c)

Social media reviews

d)

Competitor websites

47.

Secondary data is beneficial because:

a)

It is always perfect

b)

It is quick and inexpensive

c)

It replaces primary research

d)

It is illegal to use

48.

Which factor is NOT a problem in marketing research?

a)

Time limitations

b)

Bias

c)

Inaccurate data

d)

Proper training of employees

49.

A retailer using loyalty card data is gathering:

a)

External data

b)

Internal behavioral data

c)

Primary experimental data

d)

Qualitative observation

50.

A business should conduct marketing research primarily to:

a)

Reduce uncertainty and make better decisions

b)

Replace managers

c)

Train employees

d)

Create new stores only

51.

The purpose of marketing communication is to:

a)

Confuse customers

b)

Persuade, inform, or remind customers

c)

Create product defects

52.

An example of advertising is:

a)

A cashier greeting a customer

b)

A television commercial

c)

A store manager resolving a complaint

d)

A loyalty card scan

53.

Personal selling occurs when:

a)

Automated kiosks handle orders

b)

Sales associates interact directly with customers

c)

Ads run on social media

d)

Coupons are emailed

54.

Public relations involves:

a)

Paid messages only

b)

Building a positive company image

c)

Setting company salaries

d)

Designing store layout

55.

A coupon is an example of:

a)

Publicity

b)

Sales promotion

c)

Advertising

d)

Direct marketing

56.

Influencer marketing falls under:

a)

Refund policy

b)

Direct and digital marketing

c)

Packaging

d)

Loss prevention

57.

A communication mix is:

a)

A recipe

b)

A set of tools retailers use to communicate with customers

c)

Safety equipment

d)

A form of accounting

58.

A good promotional message is:

a)

Confusing

b)

Long and complicated

c)

Clear and relevant

d)

Filled with jargon

59.

The AIDA model stands for:

a)

Action-Interest-Decision-Analysis

b)

Attention-Interest-Desire-Action

c)

Aim-Initiate-Deliver-Assess

d)

Alert-Inform-Decide-Apply

60.

A company running back-to-school ads is using:

a)

Seasonal promotion

b)

unethical strategy

c)

Price deception

d)

Legal evasion

61.

The purpose of promotional objectives is to:

a)

Determine employee raises

b)

Guide promotional activities toward specific goals

c)

Increase product defects

d)

Replace tax regulations

62.

A QR code on a poster directing customers to a website is:

a)

Personal selling

b)

Digital communication

c)

Inventory planning

d)

Production

63.

The “remind” function of promotion is used when:

a)

A new product launches

b)

A brand is well known but must stay top-of-mind

c)

Sales decline permanently

d)

Competitors change names

64.

A promotion offering “Buy 1 Get 1 Free” aims to:

a)

Reduce store traffic

b)

Increase sales volume

c)

Reduce brand awareness

d)

Replace customer service

65.

Publicity differs from advertising because:

a)

It is unpaid

b)

It is expensive

c)

It is illegal

d)

It is optional

66.

A brand using consistent colors, fonts, and logos is practicing:

a)

Inconsistent messaging

b)

Branding

c)

Discounting

d)

Loss prevention

67.

A communication strategy should always start with:

a)

The budget

b)

Target audience identification

c)

Employee names

d)

Competitor coupons

68.

The communication mix element that builds long-term relationships online is:

a)

Price lining

b)

Digital marketing

c)

Inventory management

d)

Store layout

69.

Sending emails to loyalty members is an example of:

a)

Direct marketing

b)

Personal selling

70.

A press release announcing a new store opening is:

a)

Public relations

b)

Sales promotion

c)

Personal selling

d)

Pricing strategy

71.

The purpose of integrated marketing communication (IMC) is to:

a)

Use random messages

b)

Keep messages consistent across all channels

c)

Reduce store hours

d)

Avoid customer complaints

72.

A retailer promoting eco-friendly packaging is communicating:

a)

Product benefits

b)

Employee goals

c)

Accounting procedures

73.

Social media engagement metrics help retailers measure:

a)

Customer awareness and interaction

b)

Inventory errors

c)

Weather patterns

d)

Hiring needs

74.

A cashier recommending accessories during checkout is practicing:

a)

Suggestive selling

b)

Loss prevention

c)

Public relations

d)

Inventory counting

75.

A promotional calendar helps businesses:

a)

Track inventory

b)

Plan promotions over time

c)

Lay off staff

d)

Predict tax audits

76.

Retail operations include:

a)

A. All tasks required to keep a store running effectively

b)

B. Only cleaning

c)

C. Manufacturing

77.

Shrink refers to:

a)

Increased profits

b)

Inventory loss

c)

Seasonal items

d)

New products

78.

Which is NOT a cause of shrink?

a)

Employee theft

b)

Shoplifting

c)

Vendor fraud

d)

Customer satisfaction

79.

Conversion rate is calculated by:

a)

Sales ÷ employees

b)

Number of shoppers + total inventory

c)

Number of purchases ÷ number of visitors

d)

Profit ÷ expenses

80.

If 400 customers enter a store and 80 make purchases, the conversion rate is:

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

20%

d)

25%

81.

Gross margin is:

a)

Total sales minus cost of goods sold

b)

Total revenue plus expenses

c)

Total inventory minus markdowns

d)

Total profit plus taxes

82.

Sales tax is calculated by multiplying:

a)

Price × quantity

b)

Price × tax rate

c)

Profit × tax rate

d)

Inventory × tax rate

83.

If sales tax is 6% and the item costs $40, tax amount is:

a)

$1

b)

$2

c)

$2.40

d)

$4

84.

Markdown is:

a)

An increase in price

b)

A reduction in price

c)

Customer discount fraud

d)

Employee training

85.

If a $100 jacket is discounted 25%, the markdown amount is:

a)

$15

b)

$20

c)

$25

d)

$50

86.

The new selling price after a 25% markdown on $100 is:

a)

$50

b)

$75

c)

$80

d)

$85

87.

Customer loyalty programs aim to:

a)

Punish shoppers

b)

Reward repeat purchases

c)

Increase shrink

d)

Replace customer service

88.

The BEST way to handle a customer complaint is to:

a)

Interrupt the customer

b)

Listen actively and offer solutions

c)

Argue with the customer

d)

Ignore the issue

89.

Suggestive selling should be:

a)

Pushy

b)

Helpful and relevant

c)

Forced

d)

Used only during emergencies

90.

A cashier greeting customers is an example of:

a)

Poor service

b)

Initial contact in the sales process

c)

Inventory management

d)

Publicity

91.

"Following up" with a customer is part of:

a)

The selling process

b)

Loss prevention

c)

Pricing strategy

d)

Social media promotion

92.

A safety hazard in retail is:

a)

A clean, dry floor

b)

Boxes blocking walkways

c)

Organized shelves

d)

Employee training

93.

Proper customer service includes:

a)

Avoiding eye contact

b)

Talking on your phone

c)

Being attentive and helpful

d)

Ignoring questions

94.

If a customer seems confused, an employee should:

a)

Ignore them

b)

Offer assistance

c)

Walk away

d)

Call loss prevention

95.

A UPT (Units Per Transaction) of 4 means:

a)

The customer purchased 4 items in a single transaction.

b)

The customer made 4 transactions in a day.

c)

The customer spent 4 dollars in a transaction.

d)

The customer visited the store 4 times.

96.

If a customer buys 3 items totaling $45, the average unit retail (AUR) is:

a)

$10

b)

$12

c)

$14

d)

$15

97.

Inventory turnover measures:

a)

How quickly inventory sells

b)

Employee scheduling

c)

Store cleanliness

d)

Weather impact

98.

A retailer with slow turnover should:

a)

Increase inventory

b)

Reduce promotions

c)

Consider markdowns or new product strategy

d)

Close immediately

99.

Upselling occurs when an associate:

a)

Sells a more expensive or upgraded version

b)

Refuses service

c)

Ignores customers

d)

Only bags items

100.

A successful retail employee should demonstrate:

a)

Poor communication

b)

Professionalism and strong customer service

c)

Avoidance behavior

d)

Disrespect