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Management Accounting Quiz 1-113

Total questions: 224

Worksheet time: 2hrs 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Place the five steps in the decision-making process in the correct order: A = Obtain information; B = Make decisions by choosing among alternatives; C = Identify the problem and uncertainties; D = Implement the decision, evaluate performance, and learn; E = Make predictions about the future.

a)

E D A B C

b)

C D B E A

c)

A E B D C

d)

C A E B D

2.

Which of the following groups would be least likely to receive detailed management accounting reports?

a)

sales managers

b)

Stockholders

c)

distribution managers

d)

production supervisors

3.

Place the four business functions in the order they appear along the value chain: CUSTOMER SERVICE, DESIGN, MARKETING, and PRODUCTION.

a)

Customer Service, Design, Production, Marketing

b)

Design, Production, Marketing, Customer Service

c)

Design, Customer Service, Production, Marketing

d)

Customer Service, Marketing, Production, Design

4.

________ is the detailed planning and engineering and testing of products, services, or processes.

a)

Plan of implementation

b)

Research and development

c)

Design

d)

Production

5.

________ is an after-sale support provided to customers.

a)

Customer service

b)

Marketing

c)

Distribution

d)

Production

6.

The scenario that resources should be spent if the expected benefits to the company exceed the expected costs describes ________.

a)

balanced scorecard

b)

different costs for different purposes

c)

cost-benefit approach

d)

behavioral and technical considerations

7.

Which of the following is a guideline used by management accountants to assist in strategic and operational decision making?

a)

employing a six sigma approach

b)

employing a cost-benefit approach

c)

employing a regression approach

d)

employing a supply chain approach

8.

The primary user of financial accounting information is a ________.

a)

factory shift supervisor

b)

department manager

c)

current shareholder

d)

distribution manager

9.

Which of the following is true of a budgeting system?

a)

It is easy to measure the exact benefits of a budgeting system.

b)

It increases agency costs.

c)

It leads to operational inefficiency.

d)

It compels managers to plan ahead.

10.

Which of the following is true of cost accounting?

a)

It provides financial information about cash-based transactions only

b)

It accounts only the financial information of business transactions, not the nonfinancial information.

c)

It provides financial information regarding the cost of acquiring resources.

d)

It must be prepared in accordance with GAAP.

11.

________ includes providing financial information for reports to managers and shareholders, and overseeing the overall operations of the accounting system.

a)

Controllership

b)

Strategic planning

c)

Risk management

d)

Treasury management

12.

Which of the following is true of management accounting information?

a)

It is prepared for shareholders

b)

It focuses on documenting past business actions of a firm.

c)

It helps you be happy

d)

It co-ordinates product design, production, and marketing decisions.

13.

Which of the following is true of planning in decision making?

a)

It helps in evaluating performance.

b)

It improves the quality of products.

c)

It helps in the analysis of actual performance.

d)

It helps an organization to select goals and strategies.

14.

R&D, production, and customer service are business functions that are all included as part of ________.

a)

the value chain

b)

customer relationship management

c)

benchmarking

d)

the supply chain

15.

Strategy is formulated ________.

a)

by identifying the most important customers

b)

based on the qualified opinion of external auditors

c)

by eliminating sunk costs

d)

by forecasting the composition of adequate fixed assets

16.

Financial accounting provides a historical perspective, whereas management accounting emphasizes ________.

a)

reports to shareholders

b)

a current perspective

c)

the future

d)

past transactions

17.

Financial accounting provides the primary source of information for ________.

a)

improving customer service

b)

decision making in the finishing department

c)

preparing the income statement for shareholders

d)

planning next year's operating budget

18.

The value chain is the sequence of business functions in which ________.

a)

value is deducted from the products or services of an organization

b)

usefulness is added to the products or services of an organization

c)

producing and delivering the product or service is of prime importance

d)

products and services are evaluated with respect to their value to the supply chain

19.

Which of the following statements refers to management accounting information?

a)

The reports are generally delayed and historical.

b)

There are no regulations governing the reports.

c)

It primarily measures manager's compensation on reported financial results

d)

The audience tends to be stockholders, creditors, and tax authorities.

20.

A budget ________.

a)

helps in identifying problems and uncertainties

b)

is an aid to coordinating what needs to be done to execute a plan

c)

is the qualitative expression of a proposed plan of action by management

d)

promotes production automation

21.

Management accounting ________.

a)

reports information that has occurred in the past that is verifiable and reliable

b)

provides information that is generally available only on a quarterly or annual basis

c)

provides information about the company as a whole

d)

focuses on estimating future revenues, costs, and other measures to forecast activities and their results

22.

The most important planning tool is a ________.

a)

Budget

b)

fishbone diagram

c)

control chart

d)

performance evaluation report

23.

Which of the following statements about a company's supply chain is true?

a)

A company's supply chain is the same thing as a company's value chain.

b)

Management accountants provide information to enhance a company's supply chain.

c)

A company's supply chain is always external to a firm.

d)

A company's supply chain is always internal to a firm.

24.

Which of the following is true of planning?

a)

It evaluates customer feedback.

b)

It makes predictions about the future.

c)

It improves the quality of products.

d)

It assumes the functional hierarchy of any business is linear.

25.

Which of the following is true of financial accounting information?

a)

It is primarily used by managers to make internal business decisions.

b)

It focuses on the past-oriented financial performance of a company.

c)

It is prepared based on cost-benefit analysis.

d)

It only measures the cash transactions of a company.

26.

Management accounting is considered most likely to be successful when it ________.

a)

helps investors improve their decisions

b)

helps creditors evaluate the company's performance

c)

is timely

d)

is relevant and reported annually

27.

Staff management includes ________.

a)

distribution managers

b)

management accountants

c)

manufacturing managers

d)

purchasing managers

28.

Managers use management accounting information to ________.

a)

help external users such as investors, banks, regulators, and suppliers

b)

communicate a firm's financial position to investors, banks, regulators, and other outside parties

c)

communicate, develop, and implement strategies

d)

ensure that financial statements are consistent with the SEC rules

29.

Marketing is the ________.

a)

acquisition, coordination, and assembly of resources to produce a product or deliver a service

b)

generation of, and experimentation with, ideas related to new products, services, or processes

c)

the manner by which companies promote and sell their products or services to customers or perspective customers

d)

detailed planning and engineering of products, services, or processes

30.

Line management includes ________.

a)

management-accounting managers

b)

distribution managers

c)

human-resource managers

d)

information-technology managers

31.

________ is a strategy that integrates people and technology in all business functions to enhance relationships with customers, partners, and distributors.

a)

Customer relationship management

b)

Continuous quality improvement

c)

Supply-chain analysis

d)

Value-chain analysis

32.

Which of the following is true of line management?

a)

It only includes the top level management.

b)

It is directly responsible for achieving the goals of the organization.

c)

It provides advice, support, and assistance to staff management.

d)

It is responsible of management accounting functions.

33.

Financial accounting ________.

a)

focuses on the future and includes activities such as preparing next year's operating budget

b)

is prepared for the use of department heads and other employees

c)

is the process of measuring, analyzing, and reporting financial and nonfinancial information related to the costs of acquiring or using resources

34.

The primary user of management accounting information is a(n) ________.

a)

bondholder

b)

a shareholder evaluating a stock investment

c)

external regulator

d)

the controller

35.

________ is the generation of, and experimentation with, ideas related to new products, services, or processes.

a)

Research and development

b)

Marketing

c)

Production

d)

Design of products, services, or processes

36.

Which of the following statements concerning an organization's strategy is true?

a)

Cost accountants formulate strategy in an organization since they have more inputs about costs.

b)

A good strategy will always overcome poor implementation.

c)

Strategy specifies how an organization matches its own capabilities with the opportunities in the marketplace to accomplish its objectives.

d)

Businesses usually follow one of two broad strategies: offering a quality product at a high price, or offering a unique product or service priced lower than the competition.

37.

________ includes banking and short- and long-term financing, investments, and cash management.

a)

Controllership

b)

Risk management

c)

Strategic planning

d)

Treasury management

38.

Which of the following is an area that customers want to see improved levels of performance?

a)

lower marginal costs

b)

profit margins

c)

quality of the product

d)

higher sales margin

39.

The ________ function supports the six functions of value-chain analysis.

a)

Controlling

b)

Administration

c)

Planning

d)

Direction

40.

Which of the following differentiates cost accounting and financial accounting?

a)

Cost accounting deals with product design, production, and marketing strategies, whereas financial accounting deals mainly with pricing of the products.

b)

Cost accounting measures only the financial information related to the costs of acquiring fixed assets in an organization, whereas financial accounting measures financial and nonfinancial information of a company's business transactions.

c)

The primary users of cost accounting are the investors, whereas the primary users of financial accounting are the managers.

d)

Cost accounting measures information related to the costs of acquiring or using resources in an organization, whereas financial accounting measures a financial position of a company to investors, banks, and external parties.

41.

Which of the following is a responsibility of the CFO?

a)

managing short-term and long-term financing

b)

investing in new equipment

c)

preparing financial statements

d)

conducting internal audit

42.

________ is a philosophy in which management improves operations throughout the value chain to deliver products and services that exceed customer expectations.

a)

Customer focus

b)

Customer relationship management

c)

Cost-benefit approach

d)

Total quality management

43.

A data warehouse or infobarn ________.

a)

gathers only nonfinancial information

b)

is reserved for exclusive use by the CFO

c)

stores information used by different managers for multiple purposes

d)

is primarily used for financial reporting purposes

44.

Production is the ________.

a)

detailed planning and engineering of products, services, or processes

b)

acquisition, coordination, and assembly of resources to produce a product or deliver a service

c)

processing orders and shipping products or services to customers

d)

generation of, and experimentation with, ideas related to new products, services, or processes

45.

Processing orders and shipping products or providing services to customers is known as ________.

a)

Distribution

b)

marketing

c)

supply chain

d)

after-sales services

46.

Customer relationship management initiatives use technology to coordinate all ________.

a)

advertising and marketing techniques to attract customers

b)

quality control management activities

c)

customer-facing activities

d)

research activities

47.

________ describes the flow of goods, services, and information from the purchase of materials to the delivery of products to consumers, regardless of whether those activities occur in the same organization or with other organizations.

a)

Supply chain

b)

Quality control

c)

Customer relationship management

d)

Production process

48.

Which of the following statements about customer value is true?

a)

Customer value is shown in a corporation's balance sheet.

b)

Customer value is lost with increase in costs of the product.

c)

Creating value for customers is an important part of planning and implementing strategy.

d)

Customer value is the only focus that helps managers to formulate strategies.

49.

________ are the acquisition costs of all materials that eventually become part of the cost object and can be traced to the cost object.

a)

Plant depreciation incurred

b)

Sales taxes paid to acquire materials

c)

Wages paid to assembly-line workers

d)

Property taxes on plant

50.

Variable costs ________.

a)

increase in total when the actual level of activity increases

b)

are always indirect costs

c)

include most personnel costs and depreciation on machinery

d)

are never considered a part of prime cost

51.

Which one of the following is a variable cost for an insurance company?

a)

electricity expenses

b)

CEO's salary

c)

property taxes

d)

rent of the building

52.

Total manufacturing costs equal ________.

a)

direct materials plus prime costs

b)

direct manufacturing labor costs plus sunk costs

c)

direct manufacturing labor costs plus conversion costs

d)

direct materials plus conversion costs

53.

________ sector companies purchase materials and components and convert them into finished goods.

a)

Professional

b)

Service

c)

Manufacturing

d)

Merchandising

54.

Which one of the following items is a direct cost?

a)

The salary of a maintenance supervisor in a multiproduct manufacturing plant; Product B is the cost object

b)

Utility costs of the administrative offices; the accounting department is the cost object.

c)

Printing costs incurred for payroll check processing; payroll check processing is the cost object.

d)

Customer-service costs of a multiproduct firm; Product A is the cost object.

55.

Which of the following is true of indirect costs?

a)

Indirect costs cannot be traced to a particular cost object in an economically feasible way.

b)

Indirect costs always vary in direct proportion to the level of production.

c)

Indirect costs are always considered sunk costs.

d)

All indirect costs are included in cost of goods sold.

56.

An actual cost is ________.

a)

is the cost incurred

b)

is the collection of cost data in some organized way by means of an accounting system

c)

is a predicted or forecasted cost

d)

is anything for which a cost measurement is desired

57.

For a manufacturing company, indirect manufacturing costs may be included in ________.

a)

merchandise inventory only

b)

direct materials inventory only

c)

both work-in-process inventory and finished goods inventory

d)

direct materials inventory, work-in-process inventory, and finished goods inventory accounts

58.

The most likely cost driver of distribution costs is the ________.

a)

number of products manufactured

b)

number of parts within the product

c)

number of production hours

d)

number of miles driven

59.

Which of the following is an inventoriable cost?

a)

marketing costs

b)

distribution costs

c)

manufacturing overhead cost

d)

customer service costs

60.

If each motorcycle requires a belt that costs $20 and 2,000 motorcycles are produced for the month, the total cost for belts is ________.

a)

considered to be an indirect variable cost

b)

considered to be a direct fixed cost

c)

considered to be an indirect fixed cost

d)

considered to be a direct variable cost

61.

Under GAAP, for the purposes of calculating inventory costs, product costs include ________.

a)

only research and development costs

b)

design costs

c)

only inventoriable costs

d)

all costs incurred along the value chain

62.

Finished goods inventory would normally include ________.

a)

goods returned after being sold to be re-worked on further improvements and quality

b)

direct materials in stock and awaiting use in the manufacturing process

c)

goods partially worked on but not yet fully completed

d)

goods fully completed but not yet sold

63.

Merchandising-sectors ________.

a)

purchase and then sell tangible products without changing their basic form

b)

purchase and then sell tangible products by changing their basic form

c)

purchase materials and components and convert them into finished goods

d)

provide intangible products

64.

Budgeted costs are ________.

a)

planned or forecasted costs

b)

competitor's costs

c)

the costs incurred last year

d)
65.

Budgeted costs are ________.

a)

planned or forecasted costs

b)

competitor's costs

c)

the costs incurred last year

d)

the costs incurred this year

66.

The most likely cost driver of direct labor costs is the ________.

a)

number of miles driven

b)

number of production hours

c)

number of machine hours

d)

number of machine setups for the product

67.

At a plant where a union agreement sets annual salaries and conditions, annual labor costs usually ________.

a)

depend on the scheduling of floor workers

b)

depend on the scheduling of production runs

c)

are considered a variable cost

d)

are considered a fixed cost

68.

Wages paid to machine operators on an assembly line are classified as a ________.

a)

direct material cost

b)

period cost

c)

manufacturing overhead cost

d)

direct manufacturing labor cost

69.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Inventoriable costs are assigned to inventories under GAAP.

b)

Manufacturing costs are a special case of period costs.

c)

Intangible costs refer to a particular cost of a product.

d)

Product costs and design costs are interchangeable terms.

70.

Cost allocation is ________.

a)

the assignment of indirect costs to the chosen cost object

b)

the process of determining the opportunity cost of a cost object chosen

c)

the process of tracking both direct and indirect costs associated with a cost object

d)

made based on material acquisition document

71.

Under GAAP, only ________ can be assigned to inventories in the financial statements.

a)

period costs

b)

cost of goods sold

c)

manufacturing costs

d)

historical costs

72.

Service-sector companies report ________.

a)

work-in-process inventory, and finished goods inventory accounts

b)

no inventory accounts

c)

direct materials inventory, work-in-process inventory, and finished goods inventory accounts

d)

only finished goods inventory

73.

Work-in-process inventory would normally include ________.

a)

goods fully completed but not yet sold

b)

goods partially worked on but not yet fully completed

c)

goods returned after being sold to be re-worked on further improvements and quality

d)

direct materials in stock and awaiting use in the manufacturing process

74.

Period costs ________.

a)

should be treated as an indirect cost rather than as a direct manufacturing cost

b)

seldom influence financial success or failure

c)

include the cost of selling, delivering, and after-sales support for customers

d)

include only fixed costs

75.

In making product mix and pricing decisions, managers should focus on ________.

a)

manufacturing costs

b)

unit costs

c)

total costs

d)

variable costs

76.

Which of the following is a manufacturing overhead cost?

a)

overtime premiums paid to plant workers

b)

labor cost that can be traced to individual products

c)

cost of conversion of direct materials to finished goods

d)

cost of materials that can be traced to individual products

77.

Which of the following is true if the production volume decreases?

a)

average cost per unit decreases

b)

fixed cost per unit increases

c)

variable cost per unit decreases

d)

variable cost per unit increases

78.

Which of the following is a direct manufacturing cost?

a)

plant rent

b)

fringe benefits paid to machine operators

c)

plant maintenance

d)

property taxes on plant

79.

Product costs for financial statements may refer to ________.

a)

exchange cost incurred during transportation

b)

only the costs incurred along the supply chain

c)

inventoriable costs for external reporting purposes

d)

opportunity costs incurred for the decisions forgone

80.

Which of the following is true if the volume of sales increases?

a)

variable cost increases

b)

fixed cost decreases

c)

variable cost decreases

d)

fixed cost increases

81.

Fixed costs depend on the ________.

a)

volume of production

b)

amount of resources acquired

c)

amount of resources used

d)

total number of units sold

82.

Direct materials inventory would normally include ________.

a)

goods fully completed but not yet sold

b)

direct materials in stock and awaiting use in the manufacturing process

c)

goods partially worked on but not yet fully completed

d)

products in their original form intended to be sold without changing their basic form

83.

Cost assignment ________.

a)

is the difference between budgeted and actual costs

b)

encompasses allocating indirect costs to a cost object

c)

includes future and arbitrary costs

d)

is the same as cost accumulation

84.

Product costs used for government contracts generally include ________.

a)

production costs, distribution costs, marketing costs, and customer service costs

b)

design costs and production costs

c)

all the costs for pricing and product-mix decisions

d)

marketing costs, and customer service costs

85.

A manufacturing plant produces two product lines: golf equipment and soccer equipment. An example of direct costs for the golf equipment line is ________.

a)

salaries of the clerical staff that work in the company administrative offices

b)

overheads incurred in producing both golf and soccer equipment

c)

beverages provided daily in the plant break room

d)

monthly lease payments for a specialized piece of equipment needed to manufacture the golf driver

86.

Which of the following cost is included in cost of goods sold?

a)

distribution cost

b)

customer service cost

c)

marketing cost

d)

manufacturing labor cost

87.

Inventoriable costs ________.

a)

are expensed in the accounting period in which the products are sold

b)

are expensed in the accounting period in which the products are manufactured

c)

include administrative and marketing costs

d)

are also referred to as nonmanufacturing costs

88.

Cost tracing is ________.

a)

the assignment of direct costs to the chosen cost object

b)

the process of tracking both direct and indirect costs associated with a cost object

c)

a function of cost allocation

d)

the process of determining the actual cost of the cost object

89.

Which of the following is a cost driver for a company's human resource costs?

a)

the number of units sold

b)

the square footage of the office space used by the human resource department

c)

the number of employees in the company

d)

the number of job applications processed

90.

Comparing budgeted costs to actual costs helps managers to improve ________.

a)

Implementation

b)

Planning

c)

Control

d)

Coordination

91.

A manufacturing plant produces two product lines: golf equipment and soccer equipment. An example of indirect cost for the soccer equipment line is the ________.

a)

salary paid to plant supervisor

b)

material used to make the soccer balls

c)

labor to shape the leather used to make the soccer ball

d)

material used to manufacture the soccer studs

92.

Which of the following formulas determine cost of goods sold in a merchandising entity?

a)

Beginning inventory + Purchases + Ending inventory = Cost of goods sold

b)

Beginning inventory - Purchases + Ending inventory = Cost of goods sold

c)

Beginning inventory - Ending inventory - Purchases = Cost of goods sold

d)

Beginning inventory + Purchases - Ending inventory = Costs of goods sold

93.

A plant manufactures several different products. The wages of the plant supervisor can be classified as a(n) ________.

a)

direct cost

b)

period cost

c)

inventoriable cost

d)

variable cost

94.

Total manufacturing costs is comprised of ________.

a)

indirect materials costs, indirect manufacturing labor costs, and manufacturing overhead costs

b)

prime costs and period costs

c)

direct materials costs and period costs

d)

direct materials costs, direct manufacturing labor costs, and manufacturing overhead costs

95.

Cost behavior refers to ________.

a)

whether a particular expense is expensed in the same or the following period

b)

whether a cost is incurred in a manufacturing, merchandising, or service company

c)

classifying costs as either perpetual or period costs

d)

how costs react to a change in the level of activity

96.

A unit cost is computed by ________.

a)

dividing total cost by the number of units produced

b)

dividing fixed cost by the number of units produced

c)

multiplying total cost by the number of units produced

d)

dividing variable cost by the number of units produced

97.

Which of the following companies is part of the manufacturing sector of economy?

a)

Ernst & Young

b)

NAZIK

c)

PWC

d)

Halyk Finance

98.

Costs that are initially recorded as assets and expensed when goods sold are called ________.

a)

irrelevant costs

b)

period costs

c)

inventoriable costs

d)

research an

99.

For manufacturing firms, inventoriable costs include ________.

a)

distribution costs

b)

plant supervisor salaries

c)

research and development costs

d)

costs of dealing with customers after the sale

100.

R&D costs are treated as period costs because ________.

a)

these costs are expensed when the goods are sold

b)

these costs may increase revenues in the current period

c)

these costs may increase revenues in the future period

d)

these costs may decrease revenues in the current period

101.

For an automobile manufacturer, period costs include the cost of ________.

a)

advertising

b)

the dashboard

c)

labor used for assembly

d)

assembly-line equipment

102.

A cost system determines the cost of a cost object by ________.

a)

assigning costs

b)

accumulating and then assigning costs

c)

accumulating costs

d)

assigning and then accumulating costs

103.

Which of the following is included in product cost for pricing and product-mix decisions?

a)

opportunity costs

b)

design costs

c)

cost of capital

d)

sunk costs

104.

For a manufacturing company, direct labor costs may be included in ________.

a)

merchandise inventory only

b)

direct materials inventory only

c)

both work-in-process inventory and finished goods inventory

d)

direct materials inventory, work-in-process inventory, and finished goods inventory accounts

105.

Period costs ________.

a)

are treated as expenses in the following period they are incurred

b)

are also referred to as manufacturing overhead costs

c)

are directly traceable to products

d)

are treated as expenses in the period they are incurred

106.

The general term used to identify both the tracing and the allocation of accumulated costs to a cost object is ________.

a)

cost tracing

b)

conversion costing

c)

cost accumulation

d)

cost assignment

107.

The income statement of a service-sector firm reports ________.

a)

period costs only

b)

both period and inventoriable costs

c)

inventoriable costs only

d)

direct labor costs

108.

Cost accumulation is ________.

a)

anything for which a cost measurement is desired

b)

the collection of cost data in some organized way by means of an accounting system

c)

anything for which a profit measurement is desired

d)

the collection of profit data in some organized way by means of an accounting system

109.

The determination of a cost as either direct or indirect depends upon the ________.

a)

inventory valuation

b)

cost object chosen

c)

tax system chosen

d)

accounting standards

110.

Manufacturing-sector companies report ________.

a)

direct materials inventory and finished goods inventory accounts only

b)

direct materials inventory, work-in-process inventory, and finished goods inventory accounts

c)

only finished goods inventory

d)

only merchandise inventory

111.

Which of the following is a fixed cost?

a)

monthly rent payment

b)

travel expenses

c)

direct material costs

d)

electricity expenses

112.

Service-sector companies ________.

a)

purchase and then sell tangible products without changing their basic form

b)

purchase and then sell tangible products by changing their basic form

c)

provide intangible products

d)

purchase materials and components and convert them into finished goods

113.

Which of the following statements is true of direct costs?

a)

A direct cost of one cost object is a true sense of the budgeted costs.

b)

All variable costs are direct costs.

c)

All fixed costs are direct costs.

d)

A direct cost of one cost object can be an indirect cost of another cost object.

114.

For a manufacturing company, direct material costs may be included in ________.

a)

direct materials inventory, work-in-process inventory, and finished goods inventory accounts

b)

direct materials inventory only

c)

both work-in-process inventory and finished goods inventory

d)

merchandise inventory only

115.

________ are all manufacturing costs that are related to the cost object but cannot be traced to that cost object.

a)

Marketing costs incurred

b)

Custom duties paid for the materials

c)

Indirect manufacturing costs

d)

Variable manufacturing costs

116.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

A direct cost of one cost object will always be a direct cost of another cost object.

b)

Because of a cost-benefit tradeoff, some direct costs may be treated as indirect costs.

c)

All fixed costs are indirect costs.

d)

All direct costs are variable costs.

117.

The income statement of a manufacturing firm reports ________.

a)

cost of goods sold

b)

only manufacturing overhead costs

c)

sales promotion costs only

d)

inventoriable costs only

118.

Which of the following is a fixed cost for an automobile manufacturing plant?

a)

sales commissions

b)

electricity used by assembly-line machines

c)

tires

d)

administrative salaries

119.

Which of the following companies is part of the service sector of our economy?

a)

Magnum

b)

PwC

c)

Technodom

d)

Rahat

120.

Indirect manufacturing costs ________.

a)

can be traced to the product that created the costs

b)

can be easily identified with the cost object

c)

generally include the cost of material and the cost of labor

d)

may include both variable and fixed costs

121.

Product costs used for external reporting generally include ________.

a)

research and development costs along with production costs

b)

all costs incurred along the value chain

c)

design costs plus manufacturing costs

d)

manufacturing costs only

122.

For merchandising companies, inventoriable costs include ________.

a)

incoming freight costs

b)

distribution costs

c)

outgoing freight costs

d)

sales costs

123.

Which of the following formulas determine cost of goods sold in a manufacturing entity?

a)

Cost of goods manufactured + Beginning finished goods inventory - Ending finished goods inventory = Cost of goods sold

b)

Beginning work-in-process inventory + Cost of goods manufactured + Ending work-in-process inventory = Cost of goods sold

c)

Beginning work-in-process inventory + Cost of goods manufactured - Ending work-in-process inventory = Cost of goods sold

d)

Cost of goods manufactured - Beginning finished goods inventory - Ending finished goods inventory = Cost of goods sold

124.

Which of the following is a period cost?

a)

direct material cost

b)

indirect manufacturing costs like plant insurance

c)

sales promotion expenses

d)

direct labor cost

125.

Classifying a cost as either direct or indirect depends upon ________.

a)

whether a cost is fixed or variable

b)

whether the cost can be easily traced with the cost object

c)

the behavior of the cost in response to volume changes

d)

whether the cost is expensed in the period in which it is incurred

126.

Which of the following factors affect the direct/indirect classification of a cost?

a)

the estimation of time required to complete the order

b)

the ability to execute an order in the most cost-efficient manner

c)

the design of the operation

d)

the level of budgeted profit for the next year

127.

Conversion costs include ________.

a)

direct manufacturing labor and manufacturing overhead costs

b)

direct materials and direct manufacturing labor costs

c)

only direct materials

d)

direct materials and manufacturing overhead costs

128.

Manufacturing overhead costs are also referred to as ________.

a)

direct manufacturing costs

b)

prime costs

c)

indirect manufacturing costs

d)

direct material

129.

For external reporting ________.

a)

costs are classified as either inventoriable or period costs

b)

there are no prescribed rules since no one is exactly sure how investors and creditors will use these numbers

130.

Inventoriable costs are expensed on the income statement ________.

a)

when direct materials for the product are purchased

b)

after the products are manufactured

c)

when the goods move from work-in-process to finished goods account

d)

when the products are sold

131.

The planned operating income is calculated by ________.

a)

dividing net income by tax rate

b)

dividing net income by 1 − tax rate

c)

multiplying net income by 1 − tax rate

d)

multiplying net income by tax rate

132.

Which of the following is the mathematical expression of contribution margin ratio?

a)

Contribution margin ratio = Contribution margin percentage × Revenues (in dollars)

b)

Contribution margin ratio = Contribution margin percentage × Fixed costs (in dollars)

c)

Contribution margin ratio = Contribution margin percentage × Variable costs (in dollars)

d)

Contribution margin ratio = Contribution margin percentage × Operating leverage

133.

Which of the following is true of CVP analysis?

a)

Costs may be separated into separate inventoriable and period components with respect to the level of output.

b)

Proportion of different products will vary according to demand and supply when multiple products are sold.

c)

Unit selling price, unit variable costs, and unit fixed costs are known and remain constant.

d)

Total revenues and total costs are linear in relation to output units.

134.

Contribution margin equals ________.

a)

revenues minus fixed costs

b)

revenues minus product costs

c)

revenues minus variable costs

d)

revenues minus period costs

135.

If a company would like to increase its degree of operating leverage it should ________.

a)

increase its variable costs relative to its fixed costs

b)

increase its sales relative to its variable costs

c)

increase its sales relative to its fixed costs

d)

increase its fixed costs relative to its variable costs

136.

At breakeven point, ________.

a)

breakeven revenues equal fixed costs divided by the variable cost per unit

b)

contribution margin minus fixed costs is equal to profits earned

c)

operating income is equal to zero

d)

revenues equal fixed costs minus variable costs

137.

Assume only the specified parameters change in a CVP analysis. The contribution margin percentage increases when ________.

a)

total fixed costs increase

b)

total variable costs increase

c)

total revenues increase

d)

total fixed costs decrease

138.

Managers use cost-volume-profit (CVP) analysis to ________.

a)

forecast the cost of capital for a given period of time

b)

estimate the risks associated with a given job

c)

analyse a firm's profitability and help to decide wealth distribution among its stakeholders

d)

study the behavior of and relationship among the elements such as total revenues, total costs, and income

139.

The selling price per unit less the variable cost per unit is the ________.

a)

margin of safety

b)

contribution margin per unit

c)

gross margin

d)

fixed cost per unit

140.

The contribution margin income statement ________.

a)

reports gross margin

b)

categorizes costs as either direct or indirect

c)

can be used to predict future profits at different levels of activity

d)

is allowed for external reporting to shareholders

141.

Assume only the specified parameters change in a cost-volume-profit analysis. If the contribution margin increases by $6 per unit, then ________.

a)

operating profits increases by $6 per unit

b)

operating profits decreases by $6 per unit

c)

fixed costs decreases by $6 per unit

d)

fixed costs increases by $6 per unit

142.

In CVP analysis, focusing on target net income rather than operating income ________.

a)

will help managers construct a better capital policy

b)

will increase the breakeven point

c)

will not change the breakeven point

d)

will decrease the breakeven point

143.

Which of the following will increase a company's breakeven point?

a)

increasing the selling price per unit

b)

increasing variable cost per unit

c)

reducing its total fixed costs

d)

increasing contribution margin per unit

144.

Which of the following is an assumption of CVP analysis?

a)

The unit-selling price is variable as it is subject to demand and supply

b)

Total costs can be divided into inventoriable and period costs with respect to the level of output

c)

Total costs can be divided into a fixed component and a component that is variable with respect to the level of output

d)

When graphed, total costs curve upward

145.

All else being equal, a reduction in selling price will ________.

a)

increase contribution margin

b)

reduce fixed costs

c)

reduce operating income

d)

increase variable costs

146.

Fixed costs ________.

a)

are considered variable costs over the long run

b)

provide less operating leverage

c)

reduce the risk of loss

d)

are graphed as a steeply sloped line

147.

In a company with low operating leverage, ________.

a)

fixed costs are more than the contribution margin

b)

contribution margin and operating income are inversely related

c)

less risk is assumed than in a highly leveraged firm

d)

there is a higher possibility of net loss than a higher-leveraged firm

148.

Which of the following is true about the assumptions underlying basic CVP analysis?

a)

Only selling price, variable cost per unit, and total fixed costs are known and constant.

b)

Only selling price and variable cost per unit are known and constant.

c)

Selling price, variable cost per unit, fixed cost per unit, and total fixed costs are known and constant.

d)

Selling price varies with demand and supply of the product.

149.

Which of the following forms a part of decision making in CVP analysis?

a)

selection of inventory method for financial reporting purposes

b)

decision to form a capital policy

c)

decision to advertise

d)

decision to improve the efficiency of the work force

150.

A revenue driver is defined as ________.

a)

any factor that affects revenues

b)

any factor that affects costs and revenues

c)

the only factor that can influence a change in selling price

d)

the only factor that can influence a change in demand

151.

To apply CVP analysis in the hotel industry, which of the following is the most important measure of output ________.

a)

number of employees

b)

number of room-nights occupied

c)

number of visitors

d)

number of dishes on the menu

152.

One of the first steps to take when using CVP analysis to help make decisions is ________.

a)

identifying the variable and fixed cost

b)

calculating the break-even point

c)

estimating the volume of sales to make a good profit

d)

calculation of the degree of operating leverage for the company

153.

All else being equal, an increase in advertising expenditures will ________.

a)

increase variable costs

b)

reduce operating income

c)

increase selling price

d)

reduce contribution margin

154.

Globus Autos sells a single product. 8,000 units were sold resulting in $80,000 of sales revenue, $20,000 of variable costs, and $10,000 of fixed costs. If a change is made in one parameter of CVP analysis, it is an example of ________.

a)

multiple cost drivers

b)

incremental budgeting

c)

sensitivity analysis

d)

variance analysis

155.

Which of the following is true of net income?

a)

Net income is operating income minus nonoperating revenues minus nonoperating costs minus sales taxes.

b)

Net income is operating income plus operating revenues minus operating costs minus income taxes.

c)

Net income is operating income plus nonoperating revenues minus nonoperating costs minus income taxes.

d)

Net income is operating income minus operating revenues minus operating costs minus income taxes.

156.

The margin of safety is the difference between ________.

a)

budgeted revenues and breakeven revenues

b)

actual sales margin and budgeted sales margin

c)

actual operating income and budgeted operating income

d)

budgeted expenses and breakeven expenses

157.

Gross margin is ________.

a)

sales revenue less variable costs

b)

contribution margin less variable costs

c)

sales revenue less cost of goods sold

d)

contribution margin less fixed costs

158.

When a greater proportion of costs are fixed costs, then ________.

a)

a small increase in sales results in a small decrease in operating income

b)

when demand is low the risk of loss is high

c)

a decrease in sales reduces the cost per unit

d)

a decrease in sales reduces the total fixed cost per unit

159.

In the manufacturing sector, ________.

a)

fixed overhead costs are subtracted to determine contribution margin

b)

all operating costs are subtracted to determine contribution margin

c)

only variable costs are subtracted to determine gross margin

d)

fixed overhead costs are subtracted to determine gross margin

160.

In the merchandising sector ________.

a)

only variable costs are subtracted to determine gross margin

b)

fixed overhead costs are subtracted to determine contribution margin

c)

all operating costs are subtracted to determine contribution margin

d)

fixed overhead costs are subtracted to determine gross margin

161.

The breakeven point revenues is calculated by dividing ________.

a)

total revenues by fixed costs

b)

fixed costs by total revenues

c)

fixed costs by contribution margin percentage

d)

contribution margin percentage by fixed costs

162.

The breakeven point decreases if ________.

a)

the variable cost per unit increases

b)

the total fixed costs decrease

c)

the contribution margin per unit decreases

d)

the selling price per unit decreases

163.

If unit outputs exceed the breakeven point ________.

a)

there will be a profit

b)

there will be an increase in fixed costs

c)

total sales revenue will exceed variable costs

d)

total sales revenue will exceed fixed costs

164.

The breakeven point is the activity level where ________.

a)

revenues equal the sum of variable and fixed costs

b)

revenues equal variable costs

c)

revenues equal fixed costs

d)

contribution margin equals total costs

165.

Breakeven point in units is ________.

a)

total costs divided by profit margin per unit

b)

contribution margin per unit divided by total cost per unit

c)

the sum of fixed and variable costs divided by contribution margin per unit

d)

fixed costs divided by contribution margin per unit

166.

Multiple cost drivers ________.

a)

can utilize the simple CVP formula

b)

have only one revenue driver

c)

are the result of multiple products

d)

have no unique breakeven point

167.

In multiproduct situations, when sales mix shifts toward the product with the lowest contribution margin then ________.

a)

total revenues will increase

b)

operating income will decrease

c)

interest cost will decrease

d)

total contribution margin will increase

168.

The only factor that can influence a change in demand is ________.

a)

contribution margins and fixed costs

b)

income tax expense and net income

c)

net income and dividends

d)

nonoperating revenues and nonoperating expenses

169.

Which of the following is true of cost-volume-profit analysis?

a)

The theory states that total variable costs remain the same over a relevant range

b)

The theory assumes that all costs are variable

c)

The theory assumes that units manufactured equal units sold

d)

The theory states that total costs remain the same over the relevant range

170.

For a given job, the direct costs associated with the job are ________.

a)

sunk costs

b)

actual overhead

c)

raw materials

d)

fixed costs

171.

An increase in direct labor cost per unit ________.

a)

increases profits

b)

increases the fixed cost

c)

increases the variable cost

d)

increases overhead costs

172.

The budgeted indirect-cost rate is calculated ________.

a)

at the end of the year

b)

at the beginning of the year

c)

at the end of each quarter

d)

during the year

173.

The spreading of underallocated or overallocated overhead among ending work-in-process, finished goods, and cost of goods sold is called ________.

a)

the proration approach

b)

the write-off of cost of goods sold approach

c)

the weighted-average cost approach

d)

the adjusted allocation rate approach

174.

Job costing is ________.

a)

used to calculate equivalent units

b)

used by businesses to price identical products

c)

used by businesses to price unique products for different jobs

d)

used to calculate the percentage of work completed

175.

Assigning direct costs to a cost object is called ________.

a)

cost pooling

b)

cost tracing

c)

cost absorption

d)

cost allocation

e)

cost assignment

176.

The actual indirect-cost rate is calculated by ________.

a)

multiplying actual total indirect costs by the actual total quantity of the cost-allocation base

b)

multiplying the actual total quantity of the cost allocation base by actual total indirect costs

c)

dividing the actual total quantity of the cost allocation base by actual total indirect costs

d)

dividing actual total indirect costs by the actual total quantity of the cost-allocation base

177.

A job that shows low profitability may be the result of ________.

a)

overpricing the job

b)

insurance claim of the damaged goods

c)

excessive usage of direct materials

d)

inefficient direct manufacturing labor

178.

Which of the following statements about actual costing is true?

a)

Corrective actions can be implemented sooner under actual costing.

b)

Manufacturing costs of a job are available earlier under actual costing.

c)

Actual costing uses actual indirect-cost rates calculated annually.

d)

Actual costing uses budgeted indirect-cost rates calculated annually.

179.

When using a normal costing system, manufacturing overhead is allocated using the ________ manufacturing overhead rate and the ________ quantity of the allocation base.

a)

actual; actual

b)

actual; budgeted

c)

budgeted; actual

d)

budgeted; budgeted

180.

Product costing information will include ________.

a)

for efficient human resource management

b)

to increase profits

c)

to increase sales and image of the company

d)

to increase sales and image of the company

181.

In a costing system, ________.

a)

a cost-allocation base can be either financial or nonfinancial

b)

cost tracing allocates indirect costs

c)

cost allocation assigns direct costs

d)

a cost object should be a product and not a department or a geographic territory

182.

The difference between actual costing and normal costing is ________.

a)

normal costing uses actual quantities of direct-costs

b)

normal costing uses budgeted indirect-costs

c)

actual costing uses actual quantities of cost-allocation bases

d)

actual costing uses actual quantities of direct-costs

183.

The ________ adjusts individual job-cost records to account for underallocated or overallocated overhead.

a)

write-off to cost of goods sold approach

b)

weighted-average cost approach

c)

proration approach

d)

proration approach

184.

The adjusted allocation approach yields the benefits of ________.

a)

the proration approach

b)

timeliness and convenience of normal costing

c)

allocating budgeted manufacturing overhead costs at the end of the year

d)

write-off to the cost of goods sold approach

185.

The Materials Control account is increased when ________.

a)

materials are converted to finished goods

b)

materials are written off as obsolete

c)

indirect materials are sold

d)

direct materials are purchased

e)

materials are requisitioned for production

186.

The cost allocation base ________.

a)

are costs related to a particular cost object that cannot be traced to that cost object in an economically feasible way

b)

is a grouping of individual indirect cost items

c)

is anything for which a measurement of costs is desired

d)

is a systematic way to link an indirect cost or group of indirect costs to cost objects

187.

Costs that are subject to short-run fluctuations for given jobs are ________.

a)

budgeted direct costs

b)

actual costs

c)

budgeted indirect costs

d)

normal costs

188.

When the allocated amount of indirect costs are less than the actual amount, indirect costs have been ________.

a)

within budget

b)

overallocated

c)

underallocated

d)

perfectly allocated

189.

Job-costing is likely to be used by ________.

a)

beverage production companies

b)

advertising agencies

c)

oil refining companies

d)

postal service companies

190.

Job costing information is used ________.

a)

to determine tax rates

b)

to enhance public relations

c)

to calculate the percentage of completion

d)

to set government policy

e)

for internal financial reporting

191.

Which of the following includes both traced direct costs and allocated indirect costs?

a)

cost allocations

b)

cost assignments

c)

cost pools

d)

cost tracing

192.

The method that restates all overhead entries in the general ledger and subsidiary ledgers using actual cost rates rather than budgeted cost rates is called _______.

a)

the adjusted allocation rate approach

b)

the write-off of cost of goods sold approach

c)

the weighted-average cost approach

d)

the proration approach

193.

Job costing _______.

a)

cannot be used by the service industry

b)

is used when each unit of output is identical

c)

records the flow of costs for each product or service

d)

allocates an equal amount of cost to each unit made during a time period

194.

The basic source document for direct manufacturing labor is the _______.

a)

labor-time record

b)

materials-requisition record

c)

labor-requisition record

d)

job-cost record

195.

Which of the following are reasons for using longer periods, such as a year, to calculate indirect cost rates?

a)

shorter the period, the greater is the influence of seasonal patterns on the amount of costs

b)

longer the period, the greater is the influence of seasonal patterns on the amount of costs

c)

shorter the period, the smaller is the influence of seasonal patterns on the amount of opportunity costs

d)

longer the period, the smaller is the influence of seasonal patterns on the amount of opportunity costs

196.

Which of the following companies will use a process costing system?

a)

a manufacturer of ships

b)

a custom watch manufacturer

c)

an oil refining company

d)

an advertising firm

197.

In a job-costing system, a manufacturing firm typically uses an indirect-cost rate to estimate the _______ allocated to a job.

a)

manufacturing overhead costs

b)

total costs

c)

direct labor

d)

direct materials

198.

A _______ is a grouping of individual indirect cost items.

a)

cost allocations

b)

cost pools

c)

cost tracing

d)

cost assignments

199.

Place the following steps in the order suggested by the seven steps used to assign costs to individual jobs: A. Identify indirect costs; B. Compute the total cost of the job; C. Select cost-allocation bases; D. Compute the indirect cost rate.

a)

CADB

b)

ACDB

c)

DCAB

d)

BACD

200.

The approach often used when dealing with small amounts of underallocated or overallocated overhead is the ________.

a)

adjusted write-off approach

b)

adjusted allocation-rate approach

c)

proration approach

d)

write-off to cost of goods sold approach

201.

A ________ links an indirect cost to a cost object.

a)

cost tracing

b)

cost assignment

c)

cost-allocation base

d)

cost pool

202.

Actual costing is a costing system that traces direct costs to a cost object by ________.

a)

using the budgeted direct cost rates times the actual quantities of the direct-cost inputs

b)

using the actual direct cost rates times the actual quantities of the direct-cost inputs

c)

using the actual direct cost rates times the budgeted quantities of the direct-cost inputs

d)

using the budgeted direct cost rates times the budgeted quantities of direct-cost inputs

203.

Management accountants use the cost hierarchy to first calculate the ________.

a)

labor costs of each product and then they compute material costs

b)

overhead costs of each product and then they compute prime costs

c)

total costs of each product and then they compute per-unit costs

d)

factory costs of each product and then they compute labor costs

204.

It is usually difficult to find good cause-and-effect relationships between ________ and a cost allocation base.

a)

product-sustaining costs

b)

facility-sustaining costs

c)

batch-level costs

d)

unit-level costs

205.

A manufacturing firm produces multiple families of products requiring various combinations of different types of parts. Of the following, the most appropriate cost driver for assigning materials handling costs to the various products is ________.

a)

number of parts used

b)

direct labor hours

c)

machine hours

d)

total production volume

206.

Activity-based costing information can be used for ________.

a)

Pricing decisions

b)

Weather forecasting

c)

Space exploration

d)

Cooking recipes

207.

Which of the following statements is true of ABC systems?

a)

ABC system will always result in higher product costs.

b)

ABC system is least suited for service companies.

c)

ABC system is simpler compared to traditional systems.

d)

ABC system is best suited for manufacturing companies.

208.

Which of the following is true of refinement of a costing system?

a)

A homogeneous cost pool will use multiple cost drivers to allocate costs.

b)

It reduces the use of broad averages for assigning the cost of resources to cost objects.

c)

While refining a costing system, companies should identify as many indirect costs as is economically feasible.

d)

It is likely to yield the most decision-making benefits when direct costs are a high percentage of total costs.

209.

It only makes sense to implement an ABC system when ________.

a)

A single product is produced in bulk.

b)

It traces more costs as direct costs.

c)

The company has unlimited resources.

d)

Production process is labor-intensive.

e)

Its benefits exceed its implementation costs.

210.

Activity-based costing system differs from traditional costing systems in the treatment of ________.

a)

Indirect costs

b)

Direct material costs

c)

Prime costs

d)

Direct labor costs

211.

Which of the following statements is true of ABC systems?

a)

ABC systems assume all costs are variable costs.

b)

Which of the following statements is true of ABC systems?

c)

ABC systems classify some direct costs as indirect costs and some indirect costs as direct costs.

d)

ABC systems are time-driven cost systems.

212.

________ costs support the organization as a whole.

a)

Batch-level

b)

Unit-level

c)

Facility-sustaining

d)

Product-sustaining

213.

Which of the following statements is true of activity-based costing?

a)

Activity-based costing broadly averages or spreads the cost of resources uniformly to cost objects such as products or services.

b)

Activity-based costing is more suited to companies with high product diversity than companies with a single product line.

c)

In activity-based costing, direct labor-hours is always the best allocation base to allocate all non-manufacturing indirect costs.

d)

The main advantage of activity-based costing over peanut-butter costing is the accurate distribution of all direct costs to the products.

214.

Overcosting a particular product may result in ________.

a)

Pricing the product too low

b)

Understating total product costs

c)

Operating efficiencies

d)

Loss of market share

215.

Activity-based costing (ABC) can eliminate cost distortions because ABC systems ________.

a)

Establish a cause-and-effect relationship with the activities performed

b)

Never consider interactions between different departments in assigning support costs

c)

Use a broad average to allocate all overhead costs

d)

Use a single cost pool for all overhead costs, thereby enabling simplicity

216.

For a company which produces its products in batches, the CEO's salary is a(n) ________ cost.

a)

Output unit-level

b)

Facility-sustaining

c)

Product-sustaining

d)

Output unit-level

217.

ABC assumes all costs are ________ because over the long run management can adjust the amount of resources employed.

a)

Committed

b)

Fixed

c)

nondiscretionary

d)

Variable

218.

Which of the following statements is true of activity-based costing?

a)

Activity-based costing classifies some of the indirect costs as direct costs.

b)

Activity-based costing ignores the allocation of marketing and distribution costs.

c)

Activity-based costing is more likely to result in major differences from traditional costing systems if the firm manufactures only one product rather than multiple products.

d)

Chances of product-cost cross-subsidization are higher in activity-based costing compared to traditional costing systems.

219.

________ is considered while choosing a cost allocation base for activity costs in ABC costing.

a)

Marketing strategy and material price level

b)

Market share of a product

c)

Product price level

d)

Availability of reliable data and measures

220.

Refining a cost system includes ________.

a)

classifying as many costs as indirect costs as is feasible

b)

seeking a lesser level of detail

c)

identifying the activities involved in a process

d)

creating as many cost pools as possible

221.

Demand for refinements to the costing system has accelerated due to ________.

a)

competition in product markets

b)

decrease in indirect costs

c)

decrease in product diversity

d)

increase in direct costs

222.

Product-cost cross-subsidization ________.

a)

means that if a company undercosts more than one of its products, it will overcost more than one of its other products

b)

exists only when one overcosted product results in all other products being overcosted

c)

means that if a company undercosts one of its products, it will overcost at least one of its other products

d)

exists when one overcosted product results in more than one other product being overcosted

223.

________ are the costs of activities undertaken to support individual products or services regardless of the number of units or batches in which the units are produced.

a)

Facility-sustaining costs

b)

Product-sustaining costs

c)

Unit-level costs

d)

Batch-level costs

224.

Service companies, in particular, find great value from ABC because a vast majority of their cost structure is composed of ________ costs.

a)

Indirect

b)

Prime

c)

factory

d)

Committed