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Worksheets

Real Biology Semester 1 25-26

Total questions: 130

Worksheet time: 4hrs 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is Ms. Real's favourite type of food?

a)

Thai

b)

Italian

c)

Chinese

d)

Tex Mex

2.

The ​ (a)   are responsible for converting glucose (food) into ​ (b)   for the cell.

Choose from the below words
mitochondria
energy
nucleus
DNA
ribosome
3.

Cyclins signal cells to progress through stages of cell replication. Uncontrolled production of cyclins will most likely result in (a)  

Choose from the below words
the formation of haploid cells
transfer of cyclins to other cells
formation of tumors
death of the cell
4.
What is one way that a lysogenic infection differs from a lytic infection?
a)
A lysogenic virus does not act on bacteria as a lytic virus does.
b)
A lysogenic virus can remain in the host DNA for a longer period without becoming active.
c)
A lysogenic virus contains RNA instead of DNA.
d)
A lysogenic virus directs the production of new viruses right away.
5.

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

6.

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

7.

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

8.
a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

9.
a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

10.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

11.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

12.
a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

13.
a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

14.

What distinguishes a plant cell from an animal cell? (How do you tell them apart) Hint: There's 3 ways (Check all 3)

a)

Central Vacuole

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Ribosomes

e)

Chloroplasts

15.

Stem cells are ____________________.

a)

cells that grow uncontrollably

b)

undifferentiated cells that can turn into other types of cells

c)

the first cells of a new living organism (fertilized egg)

d)

specialized cells that do one job

16.

Match the following

a)
1.

Control center of the cell.

b)
2.

Makes energy for the cell.

c)
3.

Site of photosynthesis.

d)
4.

Site of protein synthesis.

e)
5.

Controls what goes in/out of the cell.

17.

Label the phases of Mitosis on the image shown. They are NOT in order.

a)Anaphase
b)Prophase
c)Interphase
d)Telophase
e)Metaphase
1
2
3
4
5
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
18.
a)Interphase
b)G1 (Growth/ prepare DNA synthesis)
c)S (DNA replication)
d)G2 (Growth/ prepare for mitosis)
e)Prophase
f)Metaphase
g)Anaphase
h)Telophase
i)Mitosis
j)Cytokinesis
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
19.

Match the following

a)
1.

Prophase: Chromatin condenses.

b)
2.

Interphase: Resting phase between mitosis cycles.

c)
3.

Metaphase: Chromosomes align in the middle.

d)
4.

Anaphase: Chromosomes are pulled apart.

e)
5.

Telophase: Chromosomes are pulled to opposite end and two nuclei form.

20-21.

This question has two parts.

Roots of different plants can be connected by a network of underground fungal extensions called hyphae. These fungi contribute minerals to the plants, and the plants contribute carbohydrates to the fungi.

20.

Part A:

Which statement about the transportation of these substances within the plant is true?

a)

The minerals are transported from the phloem to the xylem in the shoot system.

b)

The carbohydrates are transported from the shoot system to the fungi by the xylem.

c)

The minerals are transported from the xylem to the phloem in the roots.

d)

The carbohydrates are transported to the fungi through the phloem.

21.

Part B:

Which statement supports the answer to Part A?

a)

The xylem is part of the plant's vascular tissues.

b)

The phloem transfers glucose through the plant.

c)

The xylem can move substances up from the roots.

d)

The phloem is connected to the roots by the xylem.

22.

The temperature at which American alligator eggs are incubated will affect the gender of the offspring. Eggs kept at 30 oC tend to hatch mostly female, while eggs kept at 33 oC tend to hatch mostly male.

Which statement explains why the temperature affects the gender of alligator hatchlings?.3.b

a)

Gene repair occurs differently at different temperatures.

b)

Gene expression is different at different temperatures

c)

Different parts of the embryo's DNA are deleted at different temperatures.

d)

Different parts of the embryo's DNA are duplicated at different temperatures.

23.

Which pair of statements best compares the primary functions of the carbohydrate chitin and the protein chitinase?

a)

The chitin in the exoskeleton provides insulation for insects.

The chitinase stores genetic material for insectivorous bats.

b)

The chitin in the exoskeleton breaks down for energy to be used by insects.

The chitinase provides insulation for insectivorous bats.

c)

The chitin in the exoskeleton stores genetic material for insects.

The chitinase provides support and protection for insectivorous bats.

d)

The chitin in the exoskeleton provides support and protection for insects.

The chitinase breaks down chitin for energy to be used by insectivorous bats.

24.

The base sequence of a segment of DNA is shown.

Which base sequence correctly completes DNA Strand 2?

a)

A T A C G T

b)

G C G T A C

c)

C G C A T G

d)

T A T G C A

25.

Which biomolecules act as energy storage for the cell and also cushions and insulates organs?

a)

Carbohyrdates

b)

Lipids

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic Acids

26.

The biomolecule that holds an organism's genetic information is called ___________.

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

c)

nucleic acid

d)

protein

27.

Match the following

a)
1.

protein

b)
2.

nucleic acid

c)
3.

carbohydrate

d)
4.

lipid

28.

Carbs and lipids are similar because they...

a)

Are a source of energy for living organisms

b)

Help with immune response

c)

build structures such as cellulose and chitin

d)

Contain the same elements (CHO)

29.

Match the following functions to the biomolecule

a)

Act as hormones

1.

Lipid

b)

Build muscle

2.

Protein

c)

Carry genetic information

3.

Nucleic acid

d)

Energy source (cellular respiration)

4.

Carbohydrate

30.

True or False: Biomolecules are necessary for ALL living organisms

(a)  

31.
An enzyme speeds up a reaction by
a)
lowering the activation energy.
b)
raising the activation energy.
c)
releasing energy.
d)
absorbing energy.
32.
Based on the graph, what is the optimal temperature for this enzyme? 
a)
15oC
b)
40oC
c)
30oC
d)
35oC
33.

Which color line represent a reaction with an enzyme present?

a)

Blue

b)

Red

c)

Both

d)

Neither

34.

The diagram represents one way an enzyme can be inhibited. Which statement explains the effect of an inhibitor on an enzyme?

a)

A substrate will be able to bond with the enzyme.

b)

The enzyme will likely be attacked by immune cells

c)

The enzyme will be unable to produce more enzymes.

d)

A substrate will be unable to attach to the enzyme.

35.

Label the parts of the enzyme model

a)Substrate
b)Products
c)Enzyme
d)Active site
1
2
3
4
1)
2)
3)
4)
36.
An enzyme speeds up a reaction by
a)
lowering the activation energy.
b)
raising the activation energy.
c)
releasing energy.
d)
absorbing energy.
37.

Enzymes are ​ (a)   that ​ (b)   chemical reactions by​ (c)   the amount of activation energy required to start the reaction.

Choose from the below words
proteins
speed-up
decreasing
carbohydrates
increasing
slow-down
38.

Match the following Macromolecules to its structure

a)
1.

Carbohydrate

b)
2.

Lipid

c)
3.

Nucleic Acids

d)
4.

Protein

39.

Enzyme can be used again and again

a)

True

b)

False

40.
What 3 letters do enzymes typically end in?
a)
-ose
b)
-ase
c)
-ese
d)
-tic
41.

​ (a)   are organisms that can be ​ (b)   or archaea. They are ​ (c)   , which means they are single-celled organisms. ​

Choose from the below words
Prokaryotes
bacteria
unicellular
protists
eukaryotes
multicellular
42.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

No membrane-bound organelles

No nucleus

Simple

Small

Bacteria

Archea

Unicellular

Cytoplasm

Ribosomes

DNA

Cell Membrane

Complex

Large

Protist

Plant

Animal

Fungi

Multicellular

Nucleus

Membrane-bound organelles

Prokaryote
Both
Eukaryote
43.

Which do BOTH prokaryotes and eukaryotes contain?

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria

c)

ribosomes

d)

cell wall

44.

Process plants use to make their own “food” from the sun's energy, carbon dioxide, & water.

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Cellular respiration

c)

Sunlight

d)

Oxygen

45.

Organisms that collect the energy from the sun and turn it into organic compounds.

a)

Autotrophs

b)

herbivores

c)

SUnlight

d)

Consumers

46.

The location in which photosynthesis takes place; uses light energy to make food(glucose)

a)

chloroplast

b)

vein

c)

stem

d)

roots

47.

What two things are the product (end result) of photosynthesis?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Glucose

c)

Chloroplasts

d)

Carbon Dioxide

48.

What two things are the product (end result) of photosynthesis?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Glucose

c)

Chloroplasts

d)

Carbon Dioxide

49.
This is ...
a)
mitochondria
b)
chloroplast
c)
cell
d)
phloem
50.

An organism that gets its nutrients by ingestion

a)

Autotroph

b)

Heterotroph

c)

Tree

d)

Algae

51.

Process that breaks glucose a down in the presence of oxygen

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Fermentation

c)

Protein Synthesis

d)

Cellular Respiration

52.

Organelle found in both plant and animal cells where cellular respiration takes place.

(a)  

53.

(a)   cells can do photosynthesis AND cellular respiration.

54.

Where does cellular respiration occur?

A
B
55.

Put the sentence in the correct order.

a)

Animal

b)

cells

c)

cannot

d)

do

e)

photosynthesis.

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
56.

Label the diagram correctly

a)

water

b)

mitochondria

c)

ATP

d)

glucose

e)

sunlight

f)

chloroplast

g)

oxygen

h)

carbon dioxide

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
57.
The Law of Conservation of matter states that the total amount of matter ______________ after it undergoes change.
a)
disappears
b)
stays the same
c)
weighs less
d)
explodes
58.

What are the four nucleotide bases found in DNA?

a)

Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine, Guanine

b)

Adenine, Uracil, Cytosine, Guanine

c)

Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine, Uracil

d)

Adenine, Uracil, Cytosine, Thymine

59.

Which of the following correctly describes the structure of DNA?

a)

Single-stranded helix

b)

Double-stranded helix

c)

Triple-stranded helix

d)

Quadruple-stranded helix

60.

What is the complementary RNA base pairing for Adenine?

a)

Thymine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Guanine

d)

Uracil

61.

In DNA, which base pairs with Adenine?

a)

Cytosine

b)

Guanine

c)

Thymine

d)

Uracil

62.

Given the DNA sequence 5'-GATTACA-3', what would be the corresponding mRNA sequence?

a)

5'-CUAAUGU-3'

b)

3'-CUAAUGU-5'

c)

5'-GAUUACA-3'

d)

3'-GAUUACA-5'

63.

Compare and contrast the roles of DNA and RNA in protein synthesis.

a)

DNA is involved in transcription, while RNA is involved in translation.

b)

DNA carries the genetic code, while RNA translates the code into proteins.

c)

DNA is found in the cytoplasm, while RNA is found in the nucleus.

d)

DNA is single-stranded, while RNA is double-stranded.

64.

A Nucleotide is shown above. What part of the Nucleotide is labelled "2"?

a)

Sugar

b)

Phosphate

c)

Nitrogenous Base

65.
What 3 things make up a nucleotide?
a)
Sugar, Phosphate, Nitrogen Base
b)
Sugar, Hydrogen, Carbon
c)
Carbon, Phosphate, Nitrogen
d)
mRNA, tRNA and rRNA
66.

Genes are short segments of DNA and are located on the ______ in a cell.

a)

vaculoes

b)

chromosomes

c)

ribosomes

d)

lysosmes

67.
What is the correct sequence?
a)
RNA --> DNA --> Protein
b)
Protein --> RNA --> DNA
c)
DNA --> RNA --> Protein
d)
DNA --> Protein --> RNA
68.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
69.

A change in a gene, group of genes or chromosome that results in a change in the proteins

a)

Replication

b)

Mutations

c)

Translation

d)

Transcription

70.

A point mutation where one nucleotide base replaces an original nucleotide base

a)

Inversion Mutation

b)

Chromosomal Mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Substitution Mutation

71.

DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG

The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Inversion

72.

Which of the following would result in a frameshift mutation?

a)

Insertions only

b)

Substitution only

c)

Deletion only

d)

Insertions and Deletions

73.

What mutation has occurred here?

T-G-A-C-C-A

T-G-A-G-C-A

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Frameshift

74.

What type of mutation is shown in the image?

a)

Nondisjunction

b)

Gene Translocation

c)

Trinucleotide Repeat Expansion

d)

Frameshift

75.
Why are insertion and deletion mutations so harmful?
a)
They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence
b)
They insert things that an organism doesn't need.
c)
They often delete things that organisms need.
d)
Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.
76.

Which of the following images is a DELETION?

a)
b)
c)
77.

Some mutations can be to the benefit of the species.

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

78.

A mutation is defined as:

a)

A change in the cell's structure

b)

Anything that changes in an embryo

c)

Any change in the physical features of a human

d)

A change in the DNA sequence

79.

Which is the organelle that makes proteins?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Rough ER

d)

Golgi Apparatus

80.
_______ is made during transcription and ________ is made during translation.
a)
mRNA / a protein
b)
a protein / mRNA
c)
Ribosome / Nucleus
d)
mRNA / tRNA
81.

What amino acid is represented by the codon AUG?

a)

Phenylalanine

b)

Methionine

c)

Leucine

d)

Stop codon

82.
What process is going on in this photo? 
a)
Transcription 
b)
Translation 
c)
Replication 
d)
All the above 
83.

You are explaining protein synthesis to your grandmother, using her old heirloom cookbook as an analogy. "Imagine this cookbook is the DNA in each of your cells," you say. If you copy down one recipe on a scrap of paper and take it to the kitchen to make gingerbread cookies, this would be like what in the cell

a)

paper is mRNA, kitchen is the ribosome, cookies are the protein

b)

paper is tRNA, kitchen is mRNA, cookies are the ribosome

c)

paper is the nucleus, kitchen is ribosome, cookies are tRNA

d)

paper is ribosome, kitchen is mRNA, cookies are delicious.

84.

When gene expression occurs

a)

A gene is mutated with either an insertion or deletion

b)

The gene is removed from the genotype in that cell

c)

The gene is passed on to the daughter cells during mitosis

d)

The gene is activated and used in protein synthesis

85.
What is the longest stage of the cell cycle called?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
M phase
c)
Interphase
d)
G1 Phase
86.
During what stage does the G1, S and G2 phases happen?
a)
Interphase
b)
M phase
c)
Mitosis
d)
Cytokinesis
87.
During which stage of the cell cycle does mitosis and cytokinesis occur?
a)
Interphase
b)
S phase
c)
M phase
d)
G1 phase
88.
During what phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?
a)
G1 phase
b)
S phase
c)
G2 phase
d)
M phase
89.
Put the following actions in order: DNA replicates, cell grows, cell divides, cell prepares for mitosis. 
a)
DNA replicates, cell grows, cell prepares for mitosis, cell divides
b)
cell grows, cell prepares for mitosis, DNA replicates, cell divides
c)
cell grows, DNA replicates, cell prepares for mitosis, cell divides
d)
DNA replicates, cell prepares for mitosis, cell grows, cell divides
90.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
91.
What does DNA Replication mean?
a)
DNA is made.
b)
DNA makes new cells. 
c)
DNA copies itself.
d)
DNA starts the cell cycle.
92.

What is the end result of mitosis?

a)

2 identical body cells

b)

2 gametes

c)

2 zygotes

d)

2 different body cells

93.

Cells pass through a G2 checkpoint before entering mitosis. Ideally, if DNA damage is detected, the cells do not enter mitosis until the damage is repaired. Why is DNA damage repaired before cells enter mitosis?

a)

So that another round of DNA synthesis does not have to take place

b)

So that the chromosomes can align at the metaphase plate during mitosis

c)

So that the cytoplasm can be divided equally between the two daughter cells

d)

So that healthy daughter cells are produced, allowing the organism to continue growing

94.

What type of things can increase the risk of cancer? (check all that apply)

a)

Genetic factors

b)

Exposure to certain chemicals (smoking, asbestos, radon, vinyl chlorides etc)

c)

Radiation and UV exposure

d)

Some viruses

95.

The unregulated, uncontrolled growth and division of cells is known as ___________.

a)

Mitosis

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Meiosis

d)

Cancer

96.

The cell cycle is regulated by proteins like CDK (cyclin dependent kinases) that help in transcription and translation. Cells that do not pass checkpoints in the cycle undergo cell death known as ____________.

a)

Apoptosis

b)

Lysis

c)

Dehydration

97.

A photograph of a virus is shown. The projections on the surface of this virus allow the virus to -

a)

Control Host Cell

b)

Attach to a host cell

c)

Control the host cell's DNA

d)

Infect Host Cell

98.

A bacteriophage is a virus, what do viruses have in common with bacteria?

a)

They lack membrane bound organelles.

b)

They have identical genomes.

c)

They reproduce by mitosis.

d)

They contain antibodies.

99.

Cells differentiate because they-

a)

Metabolize sugars rapidly.

b)

Have specific genes activated.

c)

Can clump together.

d)

Contain a lipid bilayer.

100.

A model of a biological process is shown below. What is the purpose of this process?

a)

To replicate the DNA of an organism before cell division.

b)

To assemble nucleotides in an mRNA chain along a DNA template.

c)

To synthesize amino acids used to unzip strands of DNA and copy the genetic code.

d)

To translate the genetic code into a specific sequence of amino

acids.

101.

Differences in traits such as hair texture are determined by

differences in -

a)

The location of sugar groups in DNA

b)

The sequence of nucleotides in DNA

c)

The number of nitrogenous bases in DNA

d)

The molecules attached to the phosphates in DNA

102.

Which of the following is/are true of viruses?

a)

They are unicellular

b)

They are multicellular

c)

They must infect a host to replicate its DNA.

d)

They contain a nucleus

103.

A typical virus consists of

a)

a protein coat and a cytoplasm core

b)

a carbohydrate coat and a nucleic acid core

c)

a protein coat and a nucleic acid core

d)

a polysaccharide coat and a nucleic acid core

104.
Reasons that viruses are considered to be nonliving is because
a)
They are not cellular
b)
They cannot reproduce on their own
c)
They cannot make proteins
d)
all of the above
105.
What happens in the lysogenic cycle? 
a)
Virus goes in and leaves the host cell
b)
Virus quickly kills the host cell
c)
Virus inject the nucleic acid into the host cell, and the nucleic acid integrates into the host cell DNA, and stay dormant for a long time
d)
Bacteria injects DNA into a host cell
106.
Plant absorbs water through the _________. 
a)
stem
b)
roots 
c)
leaves 
d)
all of the above
107.
Sugars made in leaves are transported in:
a)
xylem
b)
Phloem
c)
chloroplast
d)
stomata
108.
Water is transported from roots to shoots and leaves in:
a)
Xylem
b)
Phloem
c)
Stomata
d)
Chlorophyll
109.
Vascular tissue that transports water and minerals UPWARDS from a plant's roots is know as ______.
a)
Chlorophyll
b)
Phloem
c)
Stomata
d)
Xylem
110.

Where can you find xylem and phloem in a plant?

a)

Leaf, stem, and root

b)

Leaf and stem

c)

Stem and root

d)

Leaf and root

111.
What is the function of the petal on a flower? 
a)
to support the flower
b)
to carry pollen 
c)
to produce food 
d)
to attract pollinators 
112.

The photo shows the male part of the flower. What is the name of the male part of the flower?

a)

Pollen grains

b)

Stamen

c)

Pistil

d)

Carpel

113.

The photo shows the female part of the flower. The female part consists of 4 parts. What are the 4 parts?

a)

Petal, sepal, style, filament

b)

Petal, anther, stigma, filament

c)

Ovule, stigma, sepal, anther

d)

Ovule, ovary, style, stigma

114.
In what part of the flower does fertilization take place?
a)
anther
b)
stigma
c)
ovary
d)
filament
115.
What is a pollinator?
a)
Animal that moves pollen from plant to plant
b)
Animal that eats pollen
c)
A plant that makes pollen
d)
A plant that does not make pollen
116.

Plant's roots grow down, anchoring it into the ground. To what stimulus is the plant responding?

a)

thigmotropism

b)

phototropism

c)

hydropism

d)

gravitropism

117.

A vine plant brushes against a fence and wraps itself around the fence. To what response is the stimulus is the plant responding to?

a)

phototropism

b)

gravitropism

c)

hydrotropism

d)

thigmotropism

118.

Which part anchors the plant?

a)

Stem

b)

Fruit

c)

Roots

d)

Seed

119.

Which part performs reproductive functions for the plant?

a)

Flower

b)

Fruit

c)

Stem

d)

Roots

120.

What is a stimulus?

a)

The plant's response to light

b)

Anything causing a change in an organism

c)

An organisms's reaction to a stimulus

d)

-

121.

What is nastic movement?

a)

Directional response of plant to stimuli

b)

Nondirectional response of plant to stimuli

c)

Directional stimuli of plant to response

d)

Nondirectional stimuli of plant to response

122.

Protein synthesis means "to build" proteins. Place the following terms in order from start to finish in the process of protein synthesis.

a)

DNA

b)

Transcription

c)

mRNA

d)

Translation

e)

Protein

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
123.

Which of these functions are the main function of the endocrine system?

a)

To ensure that we take in oxygen through the lungs

b)

To make hormones that control growth and development

c)

To control balance, movement, and coordination

d)

To protect the body from disease caused by pathogens

124.

Which systems are interacting when it's hot outside and your skin releases waste as sweat to prevent you from overheating? (PICK TWO)

a)

Integumentary System

b)

Muscular System

c)

Excretory System

d)

Endocrine System

e)

Circulatory System

125.

Someone is cold and shivers. Which systems are at work together?

a)

Respiratory, Skeletal, and Integumentary

b)

Nervous, Integumentary, and Muscular

c)

Nervous, Digestive, and Circulatory

126.

Last night Jane began to feel like she had a stopped up nose. Today she thinks she has come down with a cold. She went to the doctor and her temperature was 102 degrees and her white blood cell count determined she has an infection. Which organ systems (2) are mainly interacting in this scenario

a)

lymphatic

b)

integumentary

c)

circulatory

d)

muscular

127.

You are running and start to feel light headed. Your brain is receiving messages that your body needs more oxygen. What systems would give your body more oxygen?

a)

Respiratory and Nervous

b)

Nervous and Cardiovascular

c)

Circulatory and Respiratory

d)

Excretory and Respiratory

128.

Which two body systems are primarily responsible for gas exchange between the body and the environment?

a)

skeletal and muscular

b)

circulatory and respiratory

c)

circulatory and digestive

d)

respiratory and excretory

129.
The following is an example of which two systems working together:
"The small intestine absorbs nutrients from our food and they are carried through the blood to the cells."
a)
Digestive and Circulatory
b)
Digestive and Respiratory
c)
Digestive and Skeletal
d)
Digestive and Nervous
130.

Why are the lungs, the major organ of the respiratory system, also considered an excretory organ?

a)

They get rid of carbon dioxide, a cellular waste

b)

They get rid of oxygen, a cellular waste

c)

They get rid of urea, a cellular waste

d)

They get rid of salt, a cellular waste

131.

What systems do neurons depend on to be able to conduct cellular respiration (a process that has the key ingredients of oxygen and glucose)?

a)

excretory, digestive, circulatory

b)

musculoskeletal, nervous, respiratory

c)

nervous, excretory, digestive

d)

respiratory, digestive, circulatory

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