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Benchmark Test #1 2ND PERIOD

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the proper angle for performing venipuncture?

a)

30 degrees

b)

15 degrees

c)

90 degrees

d)

45 degrees

2.

What color tube is used for hematology tests (CBC, A1C, ESR)?

a)

Yellow

b)

Lavender

c)

Light Blue

d)

Green

3.

Where should lead V4 be placed during an EKG?

a)

sixth intercostal space at midaxillary line

b)

second intercostal space at left sternal border

c)

fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line

d)

fourth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line

4.

What is the required alcohol content for hand sanitizer?

a)

100% alcohol

b)

95% alcohol

c)

40% alcohol

d)

60% alcohol

5.

For a patient experiencing dyspnea during an EKG, which position is most appropriate?

a)

Trendelenburg position

b)

Fowler's position

c)

Lithotomy position

d)

Sim's position

6.

What does "ac" stand for in medical terminology?

a)

Twice a day

b)

At bedtime

c)

After meals

d)

Before meals

7.

Which tool is commonly used to obtain cells from the cervix for a Pap smear?

a)

cytobrush

b)

Ayer blade

c)

vaginal speculum

d)

glass slide

8.

What cell organelle is primarily responsible for cellular energy production?

a)

endoplasmic reticulum

b)

golgi apparatus

c)

chloroblast

d)

mitochondria

9.

What is the first step in controlling active bleeding?

a)

Leave wound open to air

b)

Use a tourniquet

c)

Apply ice directly

d)

Apply layers of gauze and hold pressure

10.

What is the correct formula for converting kilograms to pounds?

a)

divide by 2.2

b)

multiply by 2.2

c)

convert to grams first

d)

add 2.2

11.

Which test is classified as CLIA waived?

a)

thyroid function test

b)

lipid panel test

c)

complete blood count (CBC)

d)

human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) test

12.

For a patient with less than 6 months to live, which facility referral is most appropriate?

a)

hospice care facility

b)

assisted living facility

c)

long-term care facility

d)

ambulatory care facility

13.

Which condition is characterized by a quivering of the ventricles with no effective pumping?

a)

Atrial flutter

b)

Premature atrial contractions

c)

Sinus bradycardia

d)

Ventricular fibrillation

14.

Which eye test is specifically used for color blindness?

a)

Jaeger test

b)

Visual acuity test

c)

Ishihara test

d)

Snellen test

15.

Where should buccal medication be placed?

a)

Back of throat

b)

Under the tongue

c)

Between cheek and gums

d)

On the roof of the mouth

16.

When using a Holter monitor, what should patients avoid?

a)

Underwire bras and electric blankets

b)

Wearing loose clothing

c)

All physical activity

d)

Outdoor activities

17.

Which letter format uses indented paragraphs?

a)

Semi-block letter

b)

Full block letter

c)

Doctor's note

d)

Modified block letter

18.

When removing sutures from a patient after setting up a sterile field, what is the correct technique?

a)

Grasp and lift the knot away from the skin

b)

Remove the sutures while the patient is standing

c)

Cut the sutures without lifting the knot

d)

Pull the suture straight out without any movement

19.

In atrial flutter, what is a key characteristic?

a)

Complete absence of P waves

b)

Single P wave for each QRS complex

c)

Multiple flutter waves for each QRS complex

d)

Regular heartbeat at normal rate

20.

Which condition is characterized by a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute?

a)

Atrial flutter

b)

Sinus tachycardia

c)

Ventricular tachycardia

d)

Sinus bradycardia

21.

What defines the "right route" in medication administration?

a)

Administering medication only upon patient request

b)

Administering medication using the provider's ordered technique

c)

Using any available route of administration

d)

Giving medication at any convenient time

22.

Which nonverbal behavior demonstrates positive patient engagement?

a)

asking open-ended questions

b)

nodding in agreement

c)

crossing arms

d)

looking away from the patient

23.

What is the standard setting for EKG standardization mark?

a)

20 mm/mV

b)

5 mm/mV

c)

15 mm/mV

d)

10 mm/mV

24.

How should you communicate with hearing-impaired patients?

a)

Avoid eye contact

b)

face the patient while speaking

c)

Stand behind patient

d)

Speak from across room

25.

What is the correct procedure for inflating a blood pressure cuff?

a)

Inflate exactly 20 mm Hg below the diastolic pressure

b)

Inflate around 10 mm Hg above the average blood pressure reading

c)

Inflate at least 50 mm Hg above the systolic pressure

d)

Inflate approximately 30 mm Hg above the previously measured radial pulse reading

26.

What should be verified before prescribing antibiotics for an ear infection?

a)

medication allergies

b)

last meal

c)

insurance coverage

d)

exercise routing

27.

How should a communicable disease be reported?

a)

To the primary care physician only

b)

To the state's public health department

c)

No reporting required

d)

To the federal health agency

28.

For a colposcopy procedure, which position should the Medical Assistant place the patient in?

a)

Sims position

b)

Lithotomy position

c)

Supine position

d)

Trendelenburg position

29.

What is the best technique to increase circulation for a capillary puncture in a patient with poor hand circulation?

a)

Warm the patient's hand

b)

Squeeze the patient's finger

c)

Hold the patient's hand above their heart

d)

Apply a tourniquet above the patient's wrist

30.

Which action falls within a Medical Assistant's scope of practice?

a)

providing first aid procedures

b)

giving medical advice

c)

performing a physical examination

d)

identify the patient

31.

What is the medical term for fainting?

a)

Dyspnea

b)

Vertigo

c)

Syncope

d)

Seizure

32.

What should be a Medical Assistant's first action when calling a patient for specimen collection?

a)

Identify the patient

b)

Gather supplies

c)

Check documentation

d)

Escort to private area

33.

Which information must be verified at every office visit?

a)

asthma

b)

masks

c)

allergies

d)

anaphylaxis

34.

What defines true sterilization in medical settings?

a)

removing visible contamination

b)

disinfecting after each use

c)

eliminating all pathogens and spores

d)

using antiseptic solutions

35.

Which organization regulates physician office clinical laboratories?

a)

World Health Organization (WHO)

b)

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)

c)

American Medical Association (AMA)

d)

National Institutes of Health (NIH)

36.

What type of biopsy requires a surgical scrub?

a)

Fine needle aspiration

b)

Punch biopsy

c)

Excisional biopsy

d)

Needle biopsy

37.

What is the normal respiratory rate for a 9-year-old child?

a)

16-24 breaths per minute

b)

10-15 breaths per minute

c)

25-30 breaths per minute

d)

30-35 breaths per minute

38.

What is the correct placement of electrodes during an EKG?

a)

Electrodes placed randomly on the chest

b)

Electrodes only on the legs

c)

Tabs facing outward from the body

d)

Tabs downward on the arm

39.

How many calories are in one gram of fat?

a)

The same amount as in protein

b)

The total in a meal

c)

4 calories

d)

9 calories

40.

What type of screening evaluates a patient's ability to perform daily activities like walking and grooming?

a)

elderly safety screening

b)

depression screening

c)

functional status screening

d)

cognitive assessment

41.

What documentation should be completed following a workplace injury involving sharps?

a)

incident report

b)

controlled substance inventory

c)

focus chart

d)

provider's progress notes

42.

What is a characteristic of artifacts on an EKG?

a)

Regular cardiac rhythms

b)

Regular QRS complexes

c)

Normal P waves

d)

Distorted lines unrelated to cardiac activity

43.

What supplies are essential for proper handwashing technique?

a)

gloves

b)

pipe cleaners

c)

masks

d)

paper towels

44.

Which sterilization technique should be used for hemostats before an invasive procedure?

a)

Centrifuge

b)

Boiling Water

c)

Autoclave

d)

Ultrasonic Sanitization

45.

Which surgical instrument is specifically designed for suture removal?

a)

Iris scissors

b)

Suture scissors

c)

Mayo scissors

d)

Metzenbaum scissors

46.

Which tube should be used for drawing blood glucose levels?

a)

Yellow top tube

b)

Gray top tube

c)

Lavender top tube

d)

Red top tube

47.

According to OSHA guidelines, what should be disposed of in regular waste?

a)

Suture staples

b)

Soiled towel

c)

Empty urine container

d)

Capillary tube

48.

What type of nonverbal communication is indicated by fidgeting and anxiety?

a)

assertive

b)

agressive

c)

manipulative

d)

passive

49.

What is the primary purpose of a Snellen chart?

a)

To record health history

b)

To measure oxygen saturation

c)

To test sense of smell

d)

To assess visual acuity

50.

Which blood pressure reading indicates elevated stage hypertension?

a)

120/70

b)

130/85

c)

128/78

d)

130/88

51.

When using a butterfly needle set for blood collection, what is the correct handling technique?

a)

use the needle without any protective gear

b)

grip the needle firmly by the shaft

c)

point the needle away from the patient at all times

d)

hold needle by its wings

52.

Which medication is administered sublingually?

a)

epinephrine

b)

nitroglycerin

c)

aspirin

d)

albuterol

53.

What is the correct conversion of 72 kilograms to pounds?

a)

158.4lbs

b)

150lbs

c)

170lbs

d)

160lbs

54.

What cleaning method uses sound waves to sterilize surgical instruments?

a)

Wave scheduling

b)

E-prescribing

c)

Ultrasonic sanitization

d)

Autoclave

55.

What is the correct angle for administering IM injections?

a)

180 degrees

b)

30 degrees

c)

90 degrees

d)

45 degrees

56.

What is a wandering baseline in ECG readings?

a)

A series of regular spikes in the ECG pattern

b)

A flat line indicating no electrical activity

c)

A baseline that moves due to breathing or poor electrode connection

d)

A steady line that remains centered on the paper

57.

When a blood draw is incomplete, what is the proper protocol?

a)

wait for provider instructions

b)

keep collected samples and draw missing test

c)

report partial results

d)

discard and restart

58.

What is the proper patient position for a flexible sigmoidoscopy examination?

a)

right lateral

b)

fowler's

c)

left lateral

d)

supine

59.

What device measures blood oxygen saturation?

a)

pulse oximeter

b)

capnograph

c)

spirometer

d)

peak flow meter

60.

What is the correct patient identification procedure before venipuncture?

a)

Ask for favorite color

b)

Ask patient to state and spell full name and provide DOB

c)

Check insurance card

d)

Review medical history

61.

What is the correct order of draw for venipuncture?

a)

Red, green, gray, pink

b)

Light blue, pink, lavender, gray

c)

Green, lavender, gray

d)

Gray, green, lavender

62.

In which anatomical quadrant is the gallbladder located?

a)

RUQ

b)

LUQ

c)

LLQ

d)

RLQ

63.

What information is essential for maintaining chain of custody for blood samples in DNA testing?

a)

laboratory name only

b)

initials of the person transporting the specimen

c)

date of collection only

d)

patient's medical history only

64.

What is the appropriate response when a patient faints after an injection?

a)

Ask patient to stand

b)

Offer water

c)

Place in supine position

d)

Leave the patient unattended

65.

Which medical term correctly describes discomfort and difficulty breathing?

a)

Apnea

b)

Dysphagia

c)

Tachypnea

d)

Dyspnea

66.

Which body systems work together to transport hormones?

a)

Musculoskeletal and reproductive

b)

Respiratory and circulatory

c)

Lymphatic and circulatory

d)

Circulatory and endocrine

67.

According to chain of custody protocol for forensic specimens, who should sign the documentation?

a)

Only the employer's HR representative

b)

All personnel that come in contact with the specimen

c)

The patient who provided the specimen

d)

A witness who wasn't present during collection

68.

What resource should be recommended for a patient whose partner caused physical injury?

a)

Local banking services

b)

Meals on Wheels

c)

Local food pantry

d)

Domestic violence shelter

69.

What is the correct position for administering ear drops to an 18-month-old's right ear?

a)

Right ear up, earlobe pulled down and back

b)

Sitting upright, head tilted left

c)

Left ear up, earlobe pulled down and back

d)

Right ear facing down, earlobe pulled up

70.

What is the appropriate venipuncture site for an 18-month-old toddler?

a)

Superficial dorsal hand veins

b)

cephalic vein

c)

antecubital vein

d)

axillary vein

71.

What is a key concern for patients with atrial fibrillation?

a)

Respiratory failure

b)

Kidney dysfunction

c)

Immediate cardiac arrest

d)

Increased risk of blood clots

72.

What is the immediate action required when encountering asystole?

a)

Adjust EKG leads

b)

Monitor for 6 seconds

c)

Administer medication

d)

Check patient alertness and begin CPR if unresponsive

73.

What type of mask is required when treating a known COVID-19 patient?

a)

N-95

b)

Cloth mask

c)

Face shield

d)

Surgical mask

74.

Which practice maintains surgical asepsis and prevents contamination of the sterile field?

a)

place all sterile items in the center of the sterile field

b)

leave sterile items outside the sterile field until needed

c)

use non-sterile items to support sterile items

d)

scatter sterile items around the edge of the sterile field

75.

Which condition represents a severe, potentially life-threatening allergic reaction?

a)

Urticaria

b)

Asthma

c)

Dyspnea

d)

Anaphylaxis

76.

Which PPE item is part of standard precautions?

a)

Goggles

b)

Masks

c)

Gloves

d)

Gown

77.

What is the minimum required time for proper handwashing?

a)

30 seconds

b)

1 minute

c)

20 seconds

d)

10 seconds