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AP Psychology Midterm Review

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Experiment: Select the best definition of an experiment in psychological research.

a)

A method that observes behavior without intervention in a natural setting

b)

A statistical review that combines findings from many independent studies

c)

A research method that manipulates an independent variable and measures a dependent variable with random assignment to infer causation

d)

An in-depth description of a single individual or small group

2.

Case Study: Select the best definition of a case study in psychological research.

a)

An in-depth investigation of one person or a small group over time

b)

A controlled test that manipulates variables to establish causation

c)

A systematic observation of behavior in a public setting

d)

A mathematical summary of multiple experiments

3.

Naturalistic Observation: Select the best definition of naturalistic observation.

a)

Observing behavior in natural settings without manipulating variables

b)

Combining many studies into a single statistical estimate

c)

Interviewing one participant intensively

d)

Assigning participants to conditions by chance to test causation

4.

Correlation: Select the best definition of correlation in research.

a)

A measure of the relationship between two variables without manipulation, not implying causation

b)

A procedure that manipulates the independent variable to produce change in the dependent variable

c)

A ranking of scores relative to a norm group

d)

A study of one person to generate detailed qualitative data

5.

Meta-Analysis: Select the best definition of meta-analysis.

a)

A single large experiment using many participants

b)

A statistical technique that aggregates results from multiple studies to estimate an overall effect

c)

A method for observing behavior in everyday settings

d)

A case-focused qualitative approach

6.

Mean: Choose the correct definition.

a)

The score that occurs most frequently in a distribution

b)

The middle score when data are ordered from lowest to highest

c)

The arithmetic average of a set of scores

d)

The spread of scores around the average

7.

Median: Choose the correct definition.

a)

The arithmetic average of a set of scores

b)

The score that occurs most frequently

c)

The middle score in an ordered distribution

d)

The percentage of scores at or below a given score

8.

Mode: Choose the correct definition.

a)

The percentage of scores at or below a given score

b)

The arithmetic average of a set of scores

c)

The middle score in an ordered distribution

d)

The most frequently occurring score in a distribution

9.

Standard deviation: Choose the correct definition.

a)

A measure of how spread out scores are around the mean

b)

The most frequently occurring score

c)

The percentage of scores at or below a given score

d)

A measure of the relationship between two variables

10.

Percentile rank: Choose the correct definition.

a)

The percentage of scores at or below a specific score in a norm group

b)

The arithmetic average of a set of scores

c)

The middle score in an ordered list

d)

The spread of scores around the mean

11.

Hypothesis: Choose the best definition.

a)

A description of how a variable will be measured

b)

A testable prediction that states a relationship between variables

c)

The entire group from which a sample is drawn

d)

An assignment procedure that uses chance

12.

Null Hypothesis: Choose the best definition.

a)

A statement predicting a specific effect of the independent variable

b)

A statement that there is no effect or no difference beyond chance

c)

A precise measurement procedure for a variable

d)

A method for assigning participants to groups by chance

13.

Independent Variable: Choose the best definition.

a)

The variable measured as the outcome

b)

The factor that is manipulated by the researcher

c)

The group that receives no treatment

d)

The numerical index of a relationship

14.

Dependent Variable: Choose the best definition.

a)

The variable measured as the outcome that may change in response to the independent variable

b)

The factor manipulated by the researcher

c)

The participants selected from the population

d)

The procedure for measurement

15.

Random Assignment: Choose the best definition.

a)

Selecting participants from a population so each has an equal chance to be chosen

b)

Placing participants into experimental or control groups by chance to reduce confounds

c)

Measuring variables without manipulation

d)

Combining results from multiple studies

16.

Operational Definition: Choose the best definition.

a)

A precise description of how a variable will be measured or manipulated in a study

b)

A statement that there is no true effect

c)

The full set of people of interest to a study

d)

An observation conducted in a natural setting

17.

Control Group: Choose the best definition.

a)

The group that receives the independent variable or treatment

b)

The group that serves as a baseline and does not receive the treatment (may receive a placebo)

c)

The entire population of interest

d)

The group selected for in-depth qualitative analysis

18.

Experimental Group: Choose the best definition.

a)

The group that receives the independent variable or treatment

b)

The group that serves as a baseline and does not receive the treatment

c)

Participants chosen randomly from the population

d)

A group observed in a natural environment

19.

Random Sample: Choose the best definition.

a)

Selecting participants so each member of the population has an equal chance of being included

b)

Assigning participants to groups by chance within an experiment

c)

Observing behavior without intervention

d)

Combining data across studies

20.

Population: Choose the best definition.

a)

The entire group of individuals relevant to a study from which samples may be drawn

b)

The subset of individuals randomly assigned to a condition

c)

The measure of spread around the mean

d)

The most frequent score in a data set

21.

Generalizability: Choose the best definition.

a)

The extent to which findings apply to other people, settings, or times

b)

The process of assigning participants by chance

c)

The numerical strength of a relationship

d)

The middle score in a distribution

22.

Placebo effect: Choose the best definition.

a)

Changes in behavior or improvement due to expectations from an inert treatment

b)

A numerical index of a relationship between variables

c)

A method of selecting participants from a population

d)

The average of a set of scores

23.

Confidentiality: Choose the best definition.

a)

Keeping participants' data private and secure

b)

Informing participants of risks and obtaining agreement

c)

Assigning participants to conditions by chance

d)

Observing behavior in a natural setting

24.

Informed Consent: Choose the best definition.

a)

Participants are told key information about the study—including procedures, risks, and the right to withdraw—and voluntarily agree to participate

b)

The group that receives an inert substance

c)

A statement predicting no difference

d)

A statistical combination of many studies

25.

Correlational Coefficient: Choose the best definition.

a)

A numerical index that indicates the direction and strength of the relationship between two variables

b)

The average score in a data set

c)

The procedure that assigns participants by chance

d)

A way of measuring behavior in a natural setting

26.

What range does a correlational coefficient have?

a)

-1 to +1

b)

0 to +1

c)

-10 to +10

d)

-0.5 to +0.5

27.

Which correlational coefficient has a stronger relationship within the given sets? -.70 or +.65

a)

-.70

b)

+.65

c)

They are equal in strength

d)

Insufficient information

28.

Which correlational coefficient has a stronger relationship within the given sets? +.08 or +.33

a)

+.08

b)

+.33

c)

They are equal in strength

d)

Insufficient information

29.

Hippocampus:

a)

Brain region essential for forming new explicit memories

b)

Gland that regulates metabolism by releasing hormones

c)

Structure that controls voluntary muscle movements

d)

Area responsible for processing visual stimuli

30.

Neurons:

a)

Specialized cells that transmit information through electrical and chemical signals

b)

Protective tissues that cushion the brain from injury

c)

Large muscle fibers that enable movement in limbs

d)

Chemical messengers that travel across the synapse

31.

Actional Potential:

a)

Brief electrical impulse traveling down the axon when a neuron fires

b)

Long-term change in synaptic strength after repeated use

c)

Resting imbalance of ions across the neuron membrane

d)

Chemical burst of neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft

32.

Threshold:

a)

Minimum level of stimulation required to trigger a neural impulse

b)

Maximum firing rate a neuron can reach

c)

Average number of synapses on a typical neuron

d)

Point at which neurotransmitters are completely depleted

33.

Refractory Period:

a)

Short time after firing when a neuron cannot fire again

b)

Interval during which neurons fire at their highest rate

c)

Extended phase of sleep when dreams occur

d)

Duration needed for neurotransmitters to be recycled

34.

Occipital Lobe:

a)

Cortical region primarily responsible for visual processing

b)

Area of the brain that coordinates balance and fine motor skills

c)

Lobe linked with auditory perception and language comprehension

d)

Region central to decision making and planning

35.

Sympathetic Nervous System:

a)

Division of autonomic system that prepares the body for fight-or-flight

b)

System that calms the body and conserves energy

c)

Network controlling voluntary skeletal muscle movements

d)

Brain pathway that encodes long-term memories

36.

Parasympathetic Nervous System:

a)

Division of autonomic system that calms the body and restores energy

b)

System that prepares the body for intense physical activity

c)

Network controlling voluntary reflex arcs

d)

Brain region that initiates fear responses

37.

Somatic Nervous System:

a)

Division of peripheral nervous system controlling voluntary skeletal muscles

b)

Autonomic system that regulates heartbeat and digestion

c)

Neural pathway that processes pain only

d)

Brain circuit responsible for forming emotional memories

38.

Neurotransmitters:

a)

Chemical messengers released by neurons to communicate across synapses

b)

Electrical impulses that travel within an axon

c)

Hormones produced by endocrine glands for body-wide signaling

d)

Proteins that form the structure of dendrites

39.

Insomnia:

a)

Persistent difficulty falling or staying asleep

b)

Sudden uncontrollable sleep attacks during the day

c)

Breathing repeatedly stops during sleep

d)

Normal cycling between sleep stages

40.

Sleep apnea:

a)

Disorder involving repeated interruptions of breathing during sleep

b)

Condition marked by vivid dreams during NREM sleep

c)

Sleep stage characterized by rapid eye movements

d)

Habit of staying awake late despite feeling tired

41.

Circadian Rhythm:

a)

Internal 24-hour biological clock regulating sleep–wake and other cycles

b)

Pattern of brain waves during REM sleep only

c)

Sequence of stages within a single sleep period

d)

External cues like alarms that force wakefulness

42.

NREM Sleep:

a)

Sleep stages without rapid eye movement, featuring slower brain waves

b)

Stage characterized by intense dreaming and rapid eye movement

c)

Short awake periods between sleep cycles

d)

Condition where breathing repeatedly stops

43.

REM Sleep:

a)

Stage of sleep with rapid eye movement, vivid dreaming, and active brain

b)

Deepest stage of sleep with delta waves and minimal dreaming

c)

Brief transitional period between wakefulness and sleep

d)

Phase dominated by muscle activity and movement

44.

Activation Synthesis Theory:

a)

Theory proposing dreams result from the brain interpreting random neural activity

b)

Idea that dreams precisely replay daily events without change

c)

View that dreams are meaningless and purely chemical waste

d)

Claim that dreams are controlled voluntarily by the sleeper

45.

Just Noticeable Difference:

a)

Smallest change in stimulus intensity that can be detected

b)

Average intensity level of a stimulus

c)

Maximum difference people can perceive between two stimuli

d)

Time required to perceive any stimulus

46.

Absolute Threshold:

a)

Minimum stimulus intensity needed for detection 50% of the time

b)

Maximum stimulus strength the senses can tolerate

c)

Point at which sensory adaptation begins

d)

Difference between two stimuli required for detection

47.

Difference Threshold:

a)

Minimum difference between two stimuli required for detection

b)

Lowest level of a stimulus detectable at all

c)

Highest intensity a person can perceive

d)

Time interval necessary to notice a stimulus

48.

Weber’s Law:

a)

Principle that the JND is a constant proportion of the original stimulus

b)

Rule that absolute thresholds stay the same for all senses

c)

Statement that perception is unrelated to stimulus intensity

d)

Claim that sensory adaptation prevents any change detection

49.

Episodic Memory:

a)

Memory of personal experiences and specific events

b)

Memory for skills and procedures like riding a bike

c)

Temporary storage of visual information for a split second

d)

General knowledge about facts and concepts

50.

Iconic Memory:

a)

Brief visual sensory memory lasting a fraction of a second

b)

Long-term storage of pictures and images

c)

Memory of personal life events

d)

Ability to remember locations by landmarks

51.

Serial Position Effect:

a)

Tendency to recall items at the beginning and end of a list better than the middle

b)

Improved memory when studying in short spaced intervals

c)

Increased recall for information with emotional significance

d)

Difficulty remembering items presented rapidly

52.

Long-term Memory:

a)

Relatively permanent and limitless storehouse for knowledge, skills, and experiences

b)

Short-term memory system holding about seven items briefly

c)

Momentary sensory memory of auditory information

d)

Working memory process used during current tasks

53.

Choose the best definition of Short-term Memory.

a)

A lasting store of information that can be kept for years

b)

A brief, limited-capacity store that holds information for seconds to about a minute

c)

The initial recording of sensory input before processing

d)

A strategy for turning experiences into code-like symbols

54.

Choose the best definition of Working Memory.

a)

A passive warehouse for facts you will use later

b)

A system for temporarily holding and actively manipulating information to perform tasks like reasoning and comprehension

c)

A permanent record of life events

d)

A sensory register for sights and sounds only

55.

Choose the best definition of Sensory Memory.

a)

A store that keeps information for the entire lifespan

b)

A brief trace of sensory information (such as sights or sounds) that fades quickly

c)

A set of problem-solving strategies used in thinking

d)

A measure of general intelligence

56.

Choose the best definition of Encoding.

a)

Retrieving stored information when needed

b)

Transforming information into a form that can be stored in memory

c)

Combining new information with long-term memories only

d)

Erasing irrelevant information from memory

57.

Choose the best definition of Top-down processing.

a)

Perception driven solely by raw sensory input

b)

Perception guided by prior knowledge, expectations, and context to interpret sensory information

c)

A method of problem solving that starts with the smallest details

d)

A memory strategy that repeats information over and over

58.

Choose the best definition of Schema.

a)

A temporary memory trace that lasts less than a second

b)

A mental framework or organized knowledge structure that helps interpret information

c)

A step-by-step formula that guarantees a correct solution

d)

A bias that makes people ignore new evidence

59.

Choose the best description of Gestalt Principles.

a)

Rules explaining how memories are stored over time

b)

Heuristics for solving math problems

c)

Perceptual rules (such as proximity and similarity) that describe how we organize parts into meaningful wholes

d)

Standards for measuring intelligence

60.

Choose the best definition of Monocular Depth Cues.

a)

Depth cues that require both eyes to work together

b)

Depth cues available to a single eye, such as linear perspective and texture gradient

c)

Signals sent from the inner ear to maintain balance

d)

Methods for estimating time in working memory

61.

Choose the best definition of Mental Set.

a)

A tendency to approach problems in new and creative ways

b)

A tendency to stick with familiar strategies that have worked before, even when better solutions exist

c)

An organized knowledge framework for interpreting events

d)

A step-by-step rule that guarantees a solution

62.

Choose the best definition of Prototype.

a)

A checklist used to evaluate intelligence

b)

The best or most typical example of a category that represents its features

c)

A strategy for repeating information in short-term memory

d)

A measurement scale for aptitude tests

63.

Choose the best definition of Functional Fixedness.

a)

Seeing new uses for common objects

b)

Failing to see alternative uses for an object because of its usual function

c)

A method for organizing ideas into categories

d)

A type of memory decay over time

64.

Choose the best definition of Algorithm.

a)

A general rule of thumb that often works but does not guarantee a solution

b)

A step-by-step, logical procedure that guarantees a correct solution if followed

c)

A mental shortcut based on prior experiences

d)

A bias that results from how choices are presented

65.

Choose the best definition of Heuristic.

a)

A guaranteed solution that follows fixed steps

b)

A mental shortcut or rule of thumb that is efficient but does not guarantee a correct solution

c)

A memory strategy for moving items into long-term storage

d)

A test used to measure achievement in school subjects

66.

Choose the best description of Gambler’s Fallacy.

a)

Believing past random events affect future independent outcomes, such as expecting a win because of recent losses

b)

Refusing to abandon a failing course of action due to invested resources

c)

Preferring options based on how they are worded or presented

d)

Using a prototype to judge category membership

67.

Choose the best description of Sunk-Cost Fallacy.

a)

Continuing a behavior because resources already spent make quitting feel wasteful, even when stopping would be better

b)

Expecting a streak to change because of recent outcomes

c)

Choosing based on the most typical example of a category

d)

Using a step-by-step method that guarantees a solution

68.

Choose the best definition of Framing.

a)

Storing information in long-term memory

b)

The way information is presented influences decisions and judgments

c)

A method of measuring depth perception

d)

A bias that makes people ignore probabilities

69.

Choose the best definition of Achievement tests.

a)

Assessments designed to predict future performance or potential

b)

Assessments that measure what a person has already learned in a subject area

c)

Measures of innate intelligence only

d)

Tools for diagnosing perceptual disorders

70.

Choose the best definition of Aptitude tests.

a)

Assessments that measure current knowledge in school subjects

b)

Assessments designed to predict future performance or potential to learn

c)

Measures that capture only creative intelligence

d)

Surveys of study habits in working memory

71.

Choose the best description of Flynn Effect.

a)

A steady decline in intelligence scores across generations

b)

An observed rise in average intelligence test scores over decades in many countries

c)

A rule that guarantees correct solutions to logic problems

d)

A method for teaching test-taking skills

72.

Choose the best definition of Intelligence Quotient.

a)

A personality measurement using projective tests

b)

A standardized score derived from intelligence testing that compares performance to a normative sample

c)

A measure of short-term memory capacity only

d)

A scale that ranks types of learning styles

73.

Choose the best description of Multiple Intelligence Theory.

a)

The view that intelligence is a single, general ability measured by one score

b)

The idea that people possess several distinct kinds of intelligence (such as linguistic, logical-mathematical, spatial, musical, and interpersonal)

c)

A theory that defines intelligence as working memory capacity only

d)

A method for calculating an IQ score from raw test results

74.

Validity: In research methods, what does validity refer to?

a)

How consistently a measure produces the same results over time

b)

How well a measure actually assesses what it is intended to assess

c)

How large the sample size is in a study

d)

How ethical the procedures are in a study

75.

Reliability: In research methods, what does reliability refer to?

a)

The accuracy of measuring the intended construct

b)

The consistency of results when a measure is repeated

c)

The ability to generalize findings to a population

d)

The objectivity of the researcher

76.

Classical Conditioning: Which statement best describes classical conditioning?

a)

Learning through association between a neutral stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus

b)

Learning through the consequences that follow behavior

c)

Learning that occurs suddenly through insight

d)

Learning by watching and imitating others

77.

Unconditioned Stimulus (US): In classical conditioning, what is an unconditioned stimulus?

a)

A stimulus that elicits a response only after learning

b)

A stimulus that naturally and automatically triggers a response

c)

A stimulus that initially produces no response

d)

A learned reaction to a previously neutral stimulus

78.

Unconditioned Response (UR): In classical conditioning, what is an unconditioned response?

a)

A learned response to a conditioned stimulus

b)

A reflexive, natural reaction to an unconditioned stimulus

c)

A response that occurs only after reinforcement

d)

A response that occurs due to maturation

79.

Neutral Stimulus (NR): In classical conditioning, what is a neutral stimulus?

a)

A stimulus that naturally triggers a reflex

b)

A stimulus that initially does not elicit the targeted response

c)

A stimulus used only in operant conditioning

d)

A stimulus that has become conditioned through pairing

80.

Conditioned Stimulus (CS): In classical conditioning, what is a conditioned stimulus?

a)

A stimulus that naturally elicits a response without learning

b)

A stimulus that has been paired with the unconditioned stimulus and now elicits a response

c)

Any stimulus presented before the unconditioned stimulus

d)

A stimulus that reduces the likelihood of a behavior

81.

Conditioned Response (CR): In classical conditioning, what is a conditioned response?

a)

A natural, reflexive reaction to an unconditioned stimulus

b)

A learned response to a conditioned stimulus

c)

A behavior weakened by punishment

d)

A response produced only by operant conditioning

82.

Extinction: In classical conditioning, what is extinction?

a)

An increase in the conditioned response after rest

b)

The weakening of the conditioned response when the conditioned stimulus is no longer paired with the unconditioned stimulus

c)

The initial learning when a neutral stimulus is first paired with an unconditioned stimulus

d)

The tendency for a response to generalize to similar stimuli

83.

Habituation: What does habituation refer to?

a)

A decrease in responsiveness after repeated exposure to a stimulus

b)

An increase in responsiveness due to reinforcement

c)

The sudden appearance of a new behavior

d)

The replacement of a conditioned response with an unconditioned response

84.

Operant Conditioning: Which statement best describes operant conditioning?

a)

Learning through association between two stimuli

b)

Learning shaped by the consequences that follow behavior

c)

Learning based solely on innate reflexes

d)

Learning that occurs without any reinforcement or punishment

85.

Consequences: In operant conditioning, what are consequences?

a)

Events that occur before a behavior and set the occasion

b)

Outcomes that follow a behavior and influence its future frequency

c)

Genetic factors that determine behavior

d)

Random events unrelated to behavior

86.

Positive reinforcement: Which option best illustrates positive reinforcement?

a)

Removing homework when a student behaves well

b)

Adding praise or a reward after a desired behavior to increase that behavior

c)

Giving a detention to reduce misbehavior

d)

Ignoring a behavior so it decreases over time

87.

Negative reinforcement: Which option best illustrates negative reinforcement?

a)

Adding an unpleasant stimulus to reduce a behavior

b)

Removing an unpleasant stimulus after a desired behavior to increase that behavior

c)

Adding a pleasant stimulus to reduce a behavior

d)

Withholding a reward so a behavior decreases

88.

Positive punishment: Which option best illustrates positive punishment?

a)

Adding a pleasant stimulus to increase a behavior

b)

Removing an unpleasant stimulus after a behavior to increase it

c)

Adding an unpleasant stimulus after a behavior to decrease that behavior

d)

Removing a pleasant stimulus after a behavior to decrease it

89.

Negative punishment: Which option best illustrates negative punishment?

a)

Removing a pleasant stimulus after a behavior to decrease that behavior

b)

Adding an unpleasant stimulus after a behavior to decrease that behavior

c)

Removing an unpleasant stimulus after a behavior to increase it

d)

Adding a pleasant stimulus after a behavior to increase it