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Heart Anatomy and Conditions

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which labeled structure carries oxygen-poor blood from the upper body into the right atrium?

a)

Superior vena cava

b)

Inferior vena cava

c)

Pulmonary artery

d)

Pulmonary vein

2.

Which chamber receives oxygen-rich blood returning from the lungs?

a)

Right atrium

b)

Left atrium

c)

Right ventricle

d)

Left ventricle

3.

Which labeled structure is the main artery that distributes blood from the left ventricle to the body?

a)

Pulmonary artery

b)

Aorta

c)

Inferior vena cava

d)

Superior vena cava

4.

Which structure pumps oxygen-poor blood to the lungs?

a)

Right atrium

b)

Right ventricle

c)

Left atrium

d)

Left ventricle

5.

Which labeled vessel returns oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the heart?

a)

Inferior vena cava

b)

Aorta

c)

Pulmonary artery

d)

Pulmonary vein

6.

Blood leaves the left ventricle through which valve and vessel pathway?

a)

Aortic valve to aorta

b)

Pulmonary valve to inferior vena cava

c)

Mitral valve to pulmonary vein

d)

Tricuspid valve to pulmonary artery

7.

Which condition is defined as the heart not pumping enough blood to meet the body’s needs?

a)

Congestive heart failure

b)

Aortic valve stenosis

c)

Patent foramen ovale

d)

Myocardial infarction

8.

What best describes a myocardial infarction?

a)

Death of heart muscle from blocked blood flow

b)

Gradual plaque buildup in artery walls

c)

An opening between atria persists after birth

d)

Valve narrowing obstructing blood flow

9.

Aortic valve stenosis primarily causes which effect on blood flow?

a)

Increased venous return to right atrium

b)

Improved oxygen exchange in lungs

c)

Backflow into the venae cavae

d)

Narrowed outflow from the left ventricle

10.

Which term refers to a persistent opening between the right and left atria after birth?

a)

Mitral regurgitation

b)

Coronary occlusion

c)

Patent foramen ovale

d)

Pulmonary stenosis

11.

Which labeled structure is the vessel carrying oxygen-poor blood from the lower body to the heart?

a)

Aorta

b)

Pulmonary vein

c)

Inferior vena cava

d)

Superior vena cava

12.

Which chamber has the thickest muscular wall for pumping blood throughout the body?

a)

Right atrium

b)

Right ventricle

c)

Left atrium

d)

Left ventricle

13.

What is the correct sequence of blood flow starting at the right atrium?

a)

Right atrium → Aorta → Body

b)

Right atrium → Left atrium → Lungs

c)

Right atrium → Left ventricle → Body

d)

Right atrium → Right ventricle → Lungs

14.

Which labeled vessel carries blood away from the right ventricle toward the lungs?

a)

Aorta

b)

Pulmonary artery

c)

Superior vena cava

d)

Pulmonary vein

15.

Which finding would most likely be present in congestive heart failure?

a)

Open foramen ovale improving mixing

b)

Widened aortic valve improving outflow

c)

Fluid buildup causing leg or lung swelling

d)

Increased ejection fraction and strong pulses

16.

Which lobe of the cerebrum is primarily responsible for planning, organizing, behavior, and emotions?

a)

Frontal lobe functions include planning and emotions

b)

Parietal lobe manages balance and coordination

c)

Temporal lobe integrates sensory and visual information

d)

Occipital lobe handles language and long-term memory

17.

Which brain region primarily handles balance and coordination for movement?

a)

Cerebellum controls balance and coordination

b)

Brain stem controls conscious thought and memory

c)

Occipital lobe controls hearing and emotion

d)

Cerebrum controls balance and coordination

18.

What is the main function of the brain stem as described?

a)

Planning and organizing complex behaviors

b)

Integrating sensory and visual information

c)

Automated life functions using smooth muscle

d)

Processing language into long-term memory

19.

Which lobe receives and processes sensory nerve impulses from the eyes?

a)

Temporal lobe receives visual nerve impulses

b)

Occipital lobe receives visual nerve impulses

c)

Parietal lobe receives visual nerve impulses

d)

Frontal lobe receives visual nerve impulses

20.

Identify the correct sequence of blood flow starting at the Vena Cava and ending at the body.

a)

Vena Cava → Aorta → Left Ventricle → Mitral Valve → Left Atrium → Pulmonary Valve → Lungs → Right Atrium → Tricuspid Valve → Body

b)

Vena Cava → Right Atrium → Tricuspid Valve → Right Ventricle → Pulmonary Valve → Pulmonary Artery → Lungs → Pulmonary Vein → Left Atrium → Bicuspid/Mitral Valve → Left Ventricle → Aortic Valve → Aorta → Body

c)

Vena Cava → Left Atrium → Mitral Valve → Left Ventricle → Pulmonary Artery → Lungs → Right Atrium → Tricuspid Valve → Right Ventricle → Aorta → Body

d)

Vena Cava → Right Ventricle → Tricuspid Valve → Right Atrium → Pulmonary Vein → Lungs → Left Atrium → Aortic Valve → Left Ventricle → Body

21.

Which statement best describes angina?

a)

Valve narrowing limiting outflow from the left ventricle

b)

Blood and oxygen supply to the heart is reduced

c)

Abnormal hole present between the two atria

d)

Chest pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart

22.

Atherosclerosis primarily causes which problem?

a)

Irregular electrical impulses in the ventricles

b)

Chest pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart

c)

Abnormal hole present between the two atria

d)

Blood and oxygen supply to the heart is reduced

23.

Aortic valve stenosis most directly limits blood leaving which chamber?

a)

Left atrium during diastole

b)

Left ventricle during systole

c)

Right ventricle during systole

d)

Right atrium during diastole

24.

Which set lists the four primary tissue types and a basic function for each?

a)

Muscular language, Nervous visual memory, Connective filtration, Epithelial hearing

b)

Muscular balance, Nervous circulation, Connective contraction, Epithelial neural control

c)

Muscular movement, Nervous sensing world, Connective support, Epithelial lining body and organs

d)

Muscular digestion, Nervous memory storage, Connective oxygenation, Epithelial hormone release

25.

Which lobe processes language and helps store information in long-term memory?

a)

Frontal lobe processes language and memory

b)

Parietal lobe processes language and memory

c)

Occipital lobe processes language and memory

d)

Temporal lobe processes language and memory

26.

If blood flow is blocked before reaching the pulmonary artery, which valve problem could be the cause?

a)

Mitral valve failing to open properly

b)

Tricuspid valve failing to open properly

c)

Pulmonary valve failing to open properly

d)

Aortic valve failing to open properly

27.

Which pairing of lobe and function is correct?

a)

Parietal—receives sensory nerve impulses from the eyes

b)

Frontal—integrating sensory and visual information

c)

Occipital—planning, organizing, behavior, and emotions

d)

Temporal—balance and coordination for movement

28.

Which statement best distinguishes eukaryotic cells from prokaryotic cells?

a)

Eukaryotes have a nucleus; prokaryotes lack one

b)

Eukaryotes are bacteria; prokaryotes are animals

c)

Eukaryotes only live in blood; prokaryotes only in hair

d)

Eukaryotes lack organelles; prokaryotes have many

29.

When creating a DNA profile from blood, which cells provide nuclear DNA?

a)

Red blood cells in the sample

b)

Platelets in the plasma

c)

White blood cells in the sample

d)

Bacterial cells in the blood

30.

Why should DNA from noncoding regions be used for profiling?

a)

Noncoding regions code identical proteins

b)

Noncoding regions are only found in bacteria

c)

Noncoding regions vary between individuals

d)

Noncoding regions cannot be copied by PCR

31.

What is the primary purpose of PCR in DNA analysis?

a)

To measure protein expression levels

b)

To cut DNA at specific sequences

c)

To separate DNA by fragment size

d)

To make billions of target DNA copies

32.

Restriction enzymes are best described as which of the following?

a)

Antibodies that bind proteins

b)

Nuclear pores that move DNA

c)

Human enzymes that copy RNA

d)

Bacterial proteins that cut DNA

33.

RFLPs are defined as which of the following?

a)

Fragments left after restriction cuts

b)

Whole chromosomes in a ladder

c)

PCR primers used to start copying

d)

Proteins that run through the gel

34.

Which gel electrophoresis principle explains fragment movement toward a specific electrode?

a)

DNA is negatively charged

b)

DNA is positively charged

c)

Fragments are neutral in charge

d)

Gel is magnetic and polar

35.

During gel electrophoresis, which fragments travel faster through the gel matrix?

a)

Circular plasmid fragments

b)

Larger, heavier DNA fragments

c)

Uncut whole genomic DNA

d)

Smaller, shorter DNA fragments

36.

Write the complementary DNA strand for: ATGGCCGCCTTAAGCATGGCGGAATG

a)

TACCGGCGGAACTCGTACCGGCTTAC

b)

TAGCGGCGGAATTAGTACCGCCTTAC

c)

TACCAGCGGAATTCGTATCGCCTTAC

d)

TACCGGCGGAATTCGTACCGCCTTAC

37.

If HaeIII cuts between bases GG|CC, how many restriction fragments form from the strand ATGGCCGCCTTAAGCATGGCGGAATG?

a)

Three fragments are produced

b)

Two fragments are produced

c)

Only one fragment remains

d)

Four fragments are produced

38.

Which step order correctly builds a DNA profile using the methods listed?

a)

PCR copies DNA, gel separates, enzymes cut

b)

Enzymes cut DNA, gel separates, PCR copies

c)

Gel separates DNA, PCR copies, enzymes cut

d)

PCR copies DNA, enzymes cut, gel separates

39.

Which sample source should be avoided for profiling to prevent identical protein-coding sequences?

a)

DNA from coding gene regions

b)

DNA from hair root cells

c)

DNA from white blood cells

d)

DNA from cheek epithelial cells

40.

Which statement about the DNA ladder in a gel is correct?

a)

It provides size markers

b)

It makes DNA fragments negative

c)

It acts as restriction enzyme

d)

It supplies PCR primers

41.

In a standard gel image, where are the smallest fragments typically found after a run?

a)

Centered at the loading wells

b)

Evenly spaced throughout

c)

Near the negative end

d)

Near the positive end

42.

In the gel diagram, what label corresponds to the top of the gel near the wells?

a)

Positive electrode side

b)

Smallest fragment zone

c)

Middle ladder region

d)

Negative electrode side

43.

Which statement best defines an antigen in the context of blood type?

a)

Sugars on red blood cells recognized as self

b)

Proteins on pathogen surfaces recognized as not self

c)

Enzymes in white blood cells recognized as defense

d)

Lipids floating in plasma recognized as nutrients

44.

Which antigens are found on the red blood cells of type A individuals?

a)

A antigens on the cell surface

b)

No antigens on the surface

c)

B antigens on the cell surface

d)

A and B antigens together

45.

Which antigens are present on type B red blood cells?

a)

A antigens only on cells

b)

B antigens only on cells

c)

A and B antigens on cells

d)

No antigens on cells

46.

Which antigens are present on type AB red blood cells?

a)

Both A and B antigens

b)

Only B antigens on cells

c)

Only A antigens on cells

d)

No antigens at all

47.

Which antigens are present on type O red blood cells?

a)

Only A antigens present

b)

Only B antigens present

c)

No A or B antigens

d)

Both A and B antigens

48.

How does increased drop height affect blood spatter patterns?

a)

Greater height makes oval drops only

b)

Greater height increases drop diameter

c)

Greater height eliminates satellite drops

d)

Greater height decreases drop diameter

49.

How does a steeper impact angle generally affect blood spatter?

a)

Steeper angle widens the drop diameter

b)

Steeper angle narrows the drop diameter

c)

Steeper angle makes circular drops only

d)

Steeper angle stops spatter formation

50.

Which are the three components of a nucleotide?

a)

Phosphate group, peptide, ribose sugar

b)

Deoxyribose sugar, amino acid, phosphate

c)

Ribose sugar, fatty acid, nitrogen base

d)

Deoxyribose sugar, phosphate group, nitrogen base

51.

Which base pairing rule is correct for DNA?

a)

A pairs with T via two H bonds

b)

G pairs with T via one H bond

c)

A pairs with G via two H bonds

d)

C pairs with T via three H bonds

52.

Which DNA bases are purines?

a)

Adenine and guanine are purines

b)

Cytosine and thymine are purines

c)

Thymine and adenine are purines

d)

Guanine and cytosine are purines

53.

How many hydrogen bonds connect cytosine to guanine?

a)

Two hydrogen bonds connect them

b)

Three hydrogen bonds connect them

c)

One hydrogen bond connects them

d)

Four hydrogen bonds connect them

54.

Which label correctly identifies the sugar in a DNA nucleotide in a diagram?

a)

Hydrogen bonds labeled at the backbone

b)

Phosphate group labeled at the base

c)

Nitrogen base labeled at the backbone

d)

Deoxyribose sugar labeled at the backbone

55.

Which description best defines a gene?

a)

All chromosomes packaged during mitosis

b)

Amount of DNA that codes for a particular protein

c)

Entire genome stored in one cell nucleus

d)

Segment of RNA used to make ribosomes

56.

What is a chromosome?

a)

Coiled DNA around histone proteins, packaged for mitosis

b)

Single uncoiled DNA strand floating in cytoplasm

c)

Protein-only structure that carries traits

d)

RNA coil used to code for proteins

57.

Which statement correctly describes the relationship among DNA, genes, and chromosomes?

a)

Genes are chromosomes; DNA is a protein

b)

Chromosomes contain proteins; DNA makes genes

c)

DNA contains genes; chromosomes are made of DNA

d)

Genes contain DNA; chromosomes make proteins

58.

A crime scene shows larger-diameter blood drops near a ledge. Which inference aligns with blood spatter principles?

a)

Drops formed without gravity effects

b)

Drops formed by low-angle swipe

c)

Drops likely fell from lesser height

d)

Drops likely fell from greater height

59.

Which term describes the medical examination of a body to determine why a person died?

a)

Imaging

b)

Autopsy

c)

Therapy

d)

Biopsy

60.

Which statement best defines cause of death?

a)

The circumstances under which death occurred

b)

The physiological failure that results in death

c)

The legal classification of the death event

d)

The specific injury or disease leading to death

61.

Which option describes manner of death?

a)

Exsanguination following liver laceration

b)

Cessation of respiration from brain failure

c)

Cardiac arrest due to blocked artery

d)

Natural, accident, suicide, homicide, undetermined

62.

What is mechanism of death?

a)

The medical specialty performing the exam

b)

The physiological derangement resulting in death

c)

The setting or circumstances of the death

d)

The timeline from injury to discovery

63.

Livor mortis primarily indicates which postmortem change?

a)

Drying of the outer epidermis

b)

Stiffening of muscles and joints

c)

Cooling of core body temperature

d)

Pooling of blood causing purplish skin

64.

Rigor mortis is best described as

a)

Pooling of blood in dependent areas

b)

Drop in body temperature after death

c)

Gas formation within body cavities

d)

Stiffening of muscles after death

65.

Algor mortis refers to

a)

Purple discoloration from blood pooling

b)

Postmortem muscle stiffening

c)

Change in body temperature after death

d)

Insect colonization of remains

66.

Which body system includes the heart and veins?

a)

Digestive system

b)

Respiratory system

c)

Urinary system

d)

Cardiovascular system

67.

Which organ belongs to the respiratory system?

a)

Lungs

b)

Pancreas

c)

Kidneys

d)

Spleen

68.

Which organ is part of the urinary system?

a)

Gallbladder

b)

Spleen

c)

Small intestine

d)

Bladder

69.

Which structure is correctly matched to the digestive system?

a)

Urethra

b)

Thymus

c)

Trachea

d)

Small intestine

70.

Which organ is associated with the endocrine system?

a)

Pituitary

b)

Trachea

c)

Spleen

d)

Urethra

71.

Which organs are part of the nervous system?

a)

Heart and vein

b)

Brain and eye

c)

Spleen and thymus

d)

Pancreas and gallbladder

72.

Which organs are components of the immune/lymphatic system?

a)

Pancreas and pituitary

b)

Lungs and trachea

c)

Kidneys and urethra

d)

Spleen and thymus

73.

Which organ belongs to the reproductive system?

a)

Testes

b)

Pancreas

c)

Spleen

d)

Eye

74.

Which structure carries air to the lungs as part of the respiratory system?

a)

Urethra

b)

Vein

c)

Gallbladder

d)

Trachea

75.

Which term sequence correctly orders levels of biological organization from smallest to largest?

a)

Organism, organ system, organ, tissue, cell

b)

Cell, organ, tissue, organism, organ system

c)

Tissue, cell, organ, organism, organ system

d)

Cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism

76.

Which example correctly matches level and system: epithelial stomach tissue belongs to the

a)

Digestive system

b)

Respiratory system

c)

Urinary system

d)

Endocrine system

77.

Which piece of evidence would most help estimate time since death at 10 hours?

a)

Increased heart contraction force

b)

Moderate rigor in jaw and neck

c)

High blood pressure readings

d)

Elevated respiratory rate

78.

A body shows purplish discoloration on its back but not on its chest. What inference is most reasonable?

a)

The body died from respiratory disease

b)

The body is in early rigor mortis

c)

The body was lying face up after death

d)

The body has high core temperature

79.

Which physiological response is commonly measured during a polygraph test?

a)

Respiration rate changes over time

b)

Bone density variations

c)

Pupil dilation under dim light

d)

Reflex speed after a tap

80.

Why are baselines established before running a polygraph test?

a)

To increase device voltage

b)

To identify fingerprint patterns

c)

To reduce subject fatigue

d)

To provide a comparison control

81.

Are polygraph results considered fully reliable for all cases?

a)

No, they are not 100% reliable

b)

Yes, always accurate and precise

c)

Only reliable for athletes

d)

Reliable only with fingerprints

82.

Which statement best describes the legal status of polygraph tests in court?

a)

Admissible only for minors

b)

Often not admissible in court

c)

Never used by investigators

d)

Always accepted as evidence

83.

Select the correct if-then format for a testable hypothesis.

a)

If control is absent, then results are certain

b)

If data are missing, then experiment is valid

c)

If results are random, then hypothesis is true

d)

If independent variable changes, then dependent variable responds

84.

Which option correctly differentiates independent and dependent variables?

a)

Independent is constant; dependent is random

b)

Independent is data; dependent is hypothesis

c)

Independent is manipulated; dependent is measured

d)

Independent is observed; dependent is controlled

85.

What is the role of a control in an experiment?

a)

Eliminates all bias

b)

Measures the dependent variable

c)

Guarantees perfect accuracy

d)

Provides a basis for comparison

86.

Where in hair is DNA typically found for analysis?

a)

Oil residue outside hair

b)

Cells in the root region

c)

Pigment along the shaft

d)

Keratin at the tip end

87.

Which fingerprint pattern is shown by ridges entering one side and exiting the other without deltas?

a)

Arch pattern with simple flow

b)

Loop pattern with one delta

c)

Composite pattern with four deltas

d)

Whorl pattern with two deltas

88.

Define fingerprint minutiae most accurately.

a)

Hand size and shape

b)

Ink quality on the card

c)

Overall ridge flow type

d)

Small unique ridge details

89.

How many matching minutiae are typically required to declare two fingerprints identical?

a)

Seven matching points

b)

Twelve matching points

c)

Three matching points

d)

Twenty-five matching points

90.

Which blood component is primarily involved in clotting?

a)

Plasma proteins

b)

Leukocytes only

c)

Erythrocyte membranes

d)

Platelets (thrombocytes)

91.

Which blood cell type delivers oxygen to body tissues?

a)

Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

b)

White blood cells

c)

Platelets alone

d)

Stem cells only

92.

Which blood component transports water, hormones, and nutrients like glucose?

a)

Plasma fluid matrix

b)

Red cell nuclei

c)

Leukocyte enzymes

d)

Platelet granules

93.

During an immune response, which cells are most active?

a)

Keratinocytes in skin

b)

Platelets with fibrin

c)

Erythrocytes in plasma

d)

Leukocytes (white cells)

94.

Which statement best compares presumptive and confirmatory tests?

a)

Presumptive is definitive; confirmatory is tentative

b)

Presumptive is expensive; confirmatory is free

c)

Presumptive is slower; confirmatory is faster

d)

Presumptive suggests presence; confirmatory gives absolute answer

95.

A positive presumptive test for blood indicates which conclusion?

a)

It is definitely human blood

b)

It might be blood; more testing needed

c)

It is not blood at all

d)

It proves the suspect is guilty

96.

Which variable should remain unchanged across groups to serve as the control condition?

a)

Random participant assignment

b)

Measured dependent outcome

c)

Manipulated independent factor

d)

Baseline comparison setting

97.

In designing a fingerprint analysis experiment, what should be the dependent variable?

a)

Number of matching minutiae

b)

Room temperature setting

c)

Time of day recorded

d)

Type of ink pad used