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Worksheets

BAHA 2027

Total questions: 63

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the subjunctive mood and when is it used?

a)

The subjunctive mood is a style of writing used in poetry.

b)

The subjunctive mood is a form of speech used to convey certainty.

c)

The subjunctive mood is a grammatical mood used to express wishes, hypotheticals, demands, or suggestions.

d)

The subjunctive mood is a tense used to indicate past actions.

2.

Explain the difference between 'who' and 'whom'.

a)

'Who' refers to people; 'whom' refers to places.

b)

'Who' is for subjects; 'whom' is for objects.

c)

'Who' is for objects; 'whom' is for subjects.

d)

'Who' is used in questions; 'whom' is used in statements.

3.

What are gerunds and how do they function in a sentence?

a)

Gerunds are verb forms ending in -ing that function as nouns in a sentence.

b)

Gerunds are adjectives that describe nouns in a sentence.

c)

Gerunds are nouns that end in -ed and act as verbs in a sentence.

d)

Gerunds are adverbs that modify verbs and end in -ing.

4.

Define and provide examples of compound-complex sentences.

a)

While I love movies, I rarely find time to read books.

b)

Example: 'Although I enjoy reading, I don't have much time, and I prefer to watch movies.'

c)

I enjoy reading, but I have no time to watch movies.

d)

I read often, and I have plenty of time for movies.

5.

What is the role of the Oxford comma in a list?

a)

The Oxford comma is a style choice without any rules.

b)

The Oxford comma clarifies the separation of items in a list.

c)

The Oxford comma indicates the end of a list.

d)

The Oxford comma is used to combine two sentences.

6.

How do you identify and correct a dangling modifier?

a)

Change the order of the words in the sentence.

b)

Use a semicolon to separate the clauses.

c)

Add more adjectives to enhance the description.

d)

Rephrase the sentence to ensure the modifier clearly relates to the intended noun.

7.

What is the difference between active and passive voice?

a)

Active voice is used in formal writing; passive voice is used in informal writing.

b)

Active voice uses more complex sentences; passive voice uses simpler sentences.

c)

Active voice has the subject performing the action; passive voice has the subject receiving the action.

d)

Active voice emphasizes the object; passive voice emphasizes the subject.

8.

Explain the use of the past perfect tense with examples.

a)

She had finishing her homework before dinner.

b)

He finishes his homework after dinner.

c)

They leave the party when I arrive.

d)

Examples: 1. 'She had finished her homework before dinner.' 2. 'They had left the party when I arrived.'

9.

What are the rules for using semicolons correctly?

a)

Use a semicolon to end every sentence regardless of structure.

b)

Use a semicolon to replace commas in all lists.

c)

Use a semicolon to connect dependent clauses only.

d)

1. Use a semicolon to connect independent clauses without a conjunction. 2. Use a semicolon to separate items in a list when the items contain commas. 3. Use a semicolon before conjunctive adverbs (e.g., however, therefore) when they connect independent clauses.

10.

Define 'ellipsis' and provide an example of its use.

a)

An example of ellipsis is: 'I was thinking... maybe we should go.'

b)

An example of ellipsis is: 'I was thinking... should we go?'

c)

An example of ellipsis is: 'I was thinking, we should go.'

d)

An example of ellipsis is: 'I was thinking... we should go now.'

11.

What is the difference between restrictive and non-restrictive clauses?

a)

Restrictive clauses can be removed without changing meaning, while non-restrictive clauses cannot.

b)

Restrictive clauses are always longer than non-restrictive clauses, which are usually shorter.

c)

Restrictive clauses provide additional details, while non-restrictive clauses are crucial for clarity.

d)

Restrictive clauses are essential for meaning, while non-restrictive clauses add non-essential information.

12.

How do you form the future perfect tense?

a)

will have + present tense

b)

will have + past participle

c)

has + past participle

d)

will be + present participle

13.

What are the characteristics of a complex sentence?

a)

A complex sentence contains an independent clause and at least one dependent clause.

b)

A complex sentence has no clauses at all.

c)

A complex sentence consists of two independent clauses.

d)

A complex sentence is made up of a single clause only.

14.

Explain the concept of parallel structure in writing.

a)

Parallel structure is a method of summarizing complex ideas.

b)

Parallel structure is about varying sentence lengths for impact.

c)

Parallel structure involves using different forms for clarity.

d)

Parallel structure enhances clarity and flow in writing by ensuring that similar elements are presented in the same grammatical form.

15.

What is an appositive and how is it used in a sentence?

a)

An appositive is an adjective that modifies a noun in a sentence.

b)

An appositive is a verb that describes an action in a sentence.

c)

An appositive is a noun or noun phrase that renames another noun in a sentence.

d)

An appositive is a phrase that provides a location in a sentence.

16.

Define 'anaphora' and give an example of its use in literature.

a)

Anaphora is the use of a metaphor in poetry.

b)

Anaphora is a technique for summarizing a text.

c)

Anaphora refers to the ending of sentences with similar phrases.

d)

Anaphora is the repetition of a word or phrase at the beginning of successive clauses or sentences.

17.

What is the difference between 'affect' and 'effect'?

a)

Affect is a verb meaning to change; effect is a noun meaning the cause.

b)

Affect is a noun meaning the result; effect is a verb meaning to influence.

c)

Affect is a verb meaning to influence; effect is a noun meaning the result.

d)

Affect is a noun that describes a feeling; effect is a verb that means to create.

18.

How do you use conditional sentences effectively?

a)

Employ complex structures that confuse the reader and mix tenses.

b)

Use vague phrases like 'if needed, then maybe' and avoid tense consistency.

c)

Rely on informal language and disregard grammatical rules entirely.

d)

Use clear structures like 'if + condition, result' and match tenses appropriately.

19.

What are the different types of pronouns and their functions?

a)

Conjunction Pronouns: Connect clauses or sentences (e.g., and, but, or).

b)

1. Personal Pronouns: Replace specific people or things (e.g., I, you, he, she, it, we, they). 2. Possessive Pronouns: Indicate ownership (e.g., mine, yours, his, hers, ours, theirs). 3. Reflexive Pronouns: Refer back to the subject (e.g., myself, yourself, himself, herself, itself, ourselves, yourselves, themselves). 4. Relative Pronouns: Introduce relative clauses (e.g., who, whom, whose, which, that). 5. Demonstrative Pronouns: Point to specific things (e.g., this, that, these, those). 6. Interrogative Pronouns: Used to ask questions (e.g., who, what, which, whom). 7. Indefinite Pronouns: Refer to non-specific things or people (e.g., anyone, everyone, someone, nobody, all, some).

c)

Adverbial Pronouns: Modify verbs or adjectives (e.g., quickly, silently).

d)

Numerical Pronouns: Indicate quantity or order (e.g., one, two, first, second).

20.

Explain the concept of subject-verb agreement in complex sentences.

a)

In complex sentences, the verb agrees with the nearest noun regardless of the subject.

b)

In complex sentences, the verb must agree with the main subject, not influenced by subordinate clauses.

c)

Subordinate clauses dictate the verb form in complex sentences for accuracy.

d)

The main subject and verb must always be in the same tense in complex sentences.

21.

There is a set of 30 numbers. The average of the first 10 numbers is equal to the average of last 20 numbers. What is the sum of last 20 numbers? 

a)

Twice the sum of the first ten numbers 

 

b)

Sum of first 10 numbers. 

c)

Twice the sum of the last ten numbers 

d)

Cannot be determined

22.

Let a number ‘x’ when divided by 406 leaves a remainder 115. What will be the number when the number is divided by 29? 

a)

28

b)

30

c)

24

d)

26

23.

A sequence of an alpha-numeric is to be formed. The sequence consisting of two alphabets followed by two numbers is to be formed with no repetitions. In how many ways can it be formed? 

a)

65000 

b)

64320 

c)

58500 

d)

67600 

24.

According to a particular code language, A=0, B=1, C=2, …, Y=24, Z=25 then how can ONE+ONE (in the form of alphabets only) be coded? 

a)

DABI 

b)

CIDA 

c)

BDAI 

d)

ABDI 

25.

In the sequence of problemsolvingproblemsolvingproblemsolving… what is the 2015th alphabet? 

a)

b)

 

c)

d)

n

26.

30 liters of 78% of a concentrated acid solution is to be prepared. How many litres of 90% concentrated acid needs to be mixed with 75% solution of concentrated acid to get the result? 

a)

10 

b)

c)

d)

27.

There is an office consisting of 38 people. 10 of them like to play golf, 15 like to play football and 20 neither play golf nor football. How many like both golf and football? 

   

a)

10 

   

b)

 7 

     

c)

15 

     

d)

18 

28.

How many positive integers less than 500 can be formed using the numbers 1, 2, 3, and 5 for digits, each digit being used only once. 

a)

68 

b)

34 

c)

66 

d)

52

29.

In how many possible ways you can write 3240 as a product of 3 positive integers?

a)

320

b)

420

c)

350

d)

450

30.

If log 27 = 1.431, then the value of log 9 is:

a)

0.934

b)

0.945

c)

0.954

d)

0.958

31.

Mara runs faster than Gail.

Lily runs faster than Mara.

Gail runs faster than Lily.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

a)

true

b)

false

c)

uncertain

32.

In a box, there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is picked up randomly. What is the probability that it is neither red nor green?

a)

1/3

b)

3/4

c)

7/19

d)

8/21

33.

Two numbers are respectively 20% and 50% more than a third number. The ratio of the two numbers is:

a)

2 : 5

b)

3 : 5

c)

4 : 5

d)

6 : 7

34.

A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days can A do the work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?

a)

12 days

b)

15 days

c)

16 days

d)

18 days

35.

If a dice is rolled 2 times, what is the probability of getting a pair of numbers with sum equal to 3 or 4? 

   

a)

6/36 

     

b)

5/36 

     

c)

1/9 

     

d)

1/12 

36.

Find the next number in the series of 3, 12, 7, 26, 15, ?

a)

54

b)

55

c)

64

d)

74

37.

10 programmers are able to type 10 lines in 10 minutes. How many programmer are required to type 60 lines in 60 minutes?

a)

10

b)

16

c)

60

d)

None of the above

38.

At what rate per cent per annum will the SI on a sum of money be 2/5 of the amount in 10 years?

a)

6%

b)

5 2/3

c)

4%

d)

6 2/3 %

39.

n how many different ways can the letters of the word 'LEADING' be arranged in such a way that the vowels always come together?

a)

360

b)

480

c)

720

d)

5040

40.

The greatest number of four digits which is divisible by 15, 25, 40 and 75 is:

a)

9000

b)

9400

c)

9600

d)

9800

41.

In a four-stroke engine each cylinder has

a)

One valve

b)

Two valves

c)

Three valves

d)

Four valves

42.

The motion of the cam is transferred to the valves through

a)

Pistons

b)

Rocker Arm

c)

Cam shaft Pulley

d)

Valve stems

43.

What type of bearing is used for main bearings and connecting rod bearings?

a)

Ball bearings

b)

Plain bearings

c)

Needle roller bearing

d)

Taper roller bearing

44.

In an isolated system, ________ can be transferred between the system and its surrounding.

a)

Only energy

b)

Only mass

c)

both energy and mass

d)

neither energy nor mass

45.

Which of the following energy conversion devices convert heat into work?

a)

Electrical generators

b)

I. C engines

c)

Condensers

d)

All of the above

46.

What is meant by gear ratio?

a)

The ratio of pinion speed and gear speed

b)

The ratio of number of teeth on pinion and number of teeth on gear

c)

Both a. and b

d)

None of the above

47.

Deformation per unit length is called as ________

a)

strain

b)

stress

c)

Modulus of Elasticity

d)

None of the above

48.

Shear stress in static fluid is

a)

Always Zero

b)

Always Maximum

c)

Between zero to maximum

d)

Unpredictable

49.

Heat transfer takes place as per –

a)

zeroth law of thermodynamics

b)

first law of thermodynamics

c)

second law of the thermodynamics

d)

Kirchhoff law (e) Stefan’s law

50.

The unit of force in S.I. units is

a)

Kilogram

b)

Newton

c)

Watt

d)

Dyne

51.

Effect of a force on a body depends upon

a)

Magnitude

b)

Direction

c)

Position or Line of action

d)

All the above

52.

Diesel fuel, compared to petrol is

a)

less difficult to ignite

b)

just about the same difficult to ignite

c)

more difficult to ignite

d)

highly ignitable

53.

The- most efficient method of compressing air is to compress it

a)

Isothermally

b)

Adiabatically

c)

Isentropically

d)

Isochronically

54.

Ratio of indicated H.P. and brake H.P. is known as

a)

Mechanical efficiency

b)

Volumetric efficiency

c)

Thermal efficiency

d)

Relative efficiency

55.

The bituminous coal is non-caking if its carbon content is

a)

78 – 81%

b)

81 - 85%

c)

85 – 90%

d)

90 – 95%

56.

Bomb calorimeter is used to determine

a)

Higher calorific value at constant volume

b)

Lower calorific value at constant volume

c)

Higher calorific value at constant pressure

d)

Lower calorific value at constant pressure

57.

The torque available at the contact between driving wheels and road is known as

a)

brake effort

b)

tractive effort

c)

Clutch effort

d)

None of these

58.

Odometer is an instrument used for measurement of

a)

power

b)

Fuel consumption

c)

Engine speed

d)

distance

59.

Which of the following is not an automobile?

a)

Motor cycle

b)

passenger car

c)

Aeroplane

d)

Truck

60.

The purpose of transmission in an automobile is

a)

to vary the speed of automobile

b)

to vary the torque at the wheels

c)

to vary the power of automobile

d)

None of the above

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