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Epidemiology and Environment

Total questions: 140

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which term describes the study of occurrence and distribution of health-related states in populations?

a)

Incidence in defined time frames

b)

Epidemiology of health states

c)

Prevalence at a single point

d)

Sensitivity for true positives

2.

What does incidence measure in epidemiology?

a)

Ability to detect true negatives

b)

Ability to detect true positives

c)

New cases in a specific period

d)

All existing cases at one time

3.

Prevalence is best defined as which of the following?

a)

New cases within a month

b)

All existing cases at a point

c)

Rate of false positive tests

d)

Progression without intervention

4.

Sensitivity refers to a test’s ability to detect which outcome?

a)

New cases emerging

b)

Existing cases counted

c)

True positives correctly

d)

True negatives accurately

5.

Specificity primarily measures a test’s capacity to do what?

a)

Describe distribution

b)

Track new cases

c)

Capture true positives

d)

Identify true negatives

6.

Which set correctly lists the components of the Epidemiologic Triangle?

a)

Agent, policy, behavior

b)

Host, vector, policy

c)

Vector, agent, reservoir

d)

Agent, host, environment

7.

The Natural History of Disease describes which process?

a)

Surveillance after intervention

b)

Progression without intervention

c)

Investigation of outbreaks

d)

Policy development stages

8.

Surveillance in public health primarily involves which activity?

a)

Modeling pathogen spread

b)

Developing new policies

c)

Systematically monitoring

d)

Treating individual cases

9.

Which sequence groups core public health processes named in the guide?

a)

Detection, isolation, vaccination, cure

b)

Surveillance, investigation, evaluation, policy

c)

Treatment, prevention, therapy, recovery

d)

Observation, experiment, theory, proof

10.

A test with high sensitivity but low specificity will most likely produce what pattern?

a)

Few true positives detected

b)

Many false negatives overall

c)

Balanced errors across groups

d)

Many false positives reported

11.

If an intervention is introduced early, which aspect of the Natural History of Disease is directly altered?

a)

Triangle component list

b)

Uninterrupted progression

c)

Incidence within the period

d)

Surveillance terminology

12.

Which statement best defines epidemiology in public health?

a)

Study of hospital management practices

b)

Study of occurrence and distribution of health states

c)

Study of individual patient counseling techniques

d)

Study of laboratory methods for disease cultures

13.

Surveillance in epidemiology primarily involves which ongoing activity?

a)

Annual vaccination scheduling for schools

b)

Collection and interpretation of population data

c)

One-time community health survey

d)

Randomized clinical trial enrollment

14.

Which agency conducts national health surveillance for the United States?

a)

WHO

b)

NIH

c)

FDA

d)

CDC

15.

Endemic level of disease refers to which pattern?

a)

Baseline expected presence in a population

b)

Spread across multiple countries widely

c)

Localized outbreak traced to one source

d)

Sudden surge above expected levels

16.

Which description matches a pandemic?

a)

Epidemic that has spread to a larger scale

b)

Single-source outbreak in a single facility

c)

Baseline expected presence within one community

d)

Presence of disease above the expected level regionally

17.

Investigation in epidemiology is best described as what process after surveillance detects a disease?

a)

Ad hoc media communication planning

b)

Routine annual clinic quality auditing

c)

Systematic inquiry to trace infections to source

d)

Immediate mass vaccination without evidence

18.

Analytic studies typically require which key element to draw valid inferences?

a)

Convenience sampling only

b)

A valid comparison group

c)

Non-systematic observations

d)

Single-case narrative reports

19.

Evaluation in epidemiology focuses on which primary question?

a)

How to expand laboratory testing capacity

b)

How to identify initial cases quickly

c)

How to determine effectiveness of an intervention

d)

How to estimate baseline endemic prevalence

20.

A city reports influenza cases persist at the usual winter level without spikes. Which level of disease is most accurate?

a)

Sporadic cases without pattern

b)

Epidemic exceeding expected levels

c)

Pandemic level across continents

d)

Endemic baseline presence

21.

Which component is NOT part of the epidemiologic triangle?

a)

Agent

b)

Host

c)

Environment

d)

Intervention

22.

The epidemiologic triangle displays relationships among which three elements?

a)

Population, sample, variable

b)

Agent, host, environment

c)

Cause, effect, treatment

d)

Exposure, immunity, recovery

23.

Natural history of disease describes what scenario?

a)

Progression without intervention

b)

Course after immediate treatment

c)

Spread limited by vaccination

d)

Trajectory under strict quarantine

24.

Which is an observational study type?

a)

Laboratory experiment

b)

Randomized controlled trial

c)

Quasi-experimental design

d)

Cohort study

25.

Which best distinguishes case-control from cohort studies?

a)

Start with outcomes then exposures

b)

Begin with exposures then outcomes

c)

Measure only cross-sectional prevalence

d)

Randomize participants into groups

26.

Incidence counts which events?

a)

Total cases at one time

b)

Deaths from all causes

c)

Negative test results

d)

New cases in a time period

27.

When calculating incidence, who belongs in the denominator?

a)

Only those at risk for disease

b)

Only existing cases at baseline

c)

Only laboratory-confirmed positives

d)

Entire population regardless risk

28.

Prevalence is defined as:

a)

New cases over time

b)

All existing and new cases

c)

Deaths from specific causes

d)

True negatives in screening

29.

Crude mortality rate uses which denominator?

a)

Hospitalized patients only

b)

Population at risk only

c)

Total population overall

d)

Only diseased individuals

30.

Cause-specific mortality rate measures:

a)

Deaths from a specific cause

b)

All deaths in one year

c)

New cases per month

d)

Prevalent cases today

31.

Sensitivity refers to a test’s ability to detect:

a)

True positive results

b)

False negative outcomes

c)

False positive outcomes

d)

True negative results

32.

Specificity refers to a test’s ability to detect:

a)

True positive results

b)

True negative results

c)

False negative outcomes

d)

False positive outcomes

33.

In screening, a high negative predictive value most strongly suggests:

a)

Disease absent when test negative

b)

Prevalence increases after testing

c)

Disease present when test positive

d)

Test detects all false negatives

34.

Which statement about fetal fibronectin (fFN) is accurate?

a)

Antibody neutralizing infections

b)

Enzyme accelerating cervical dilation

c)

Protein binding fetal sac to uterus

d)

Hormone regulating maternal blood

35.

Which statement best defines a disaster in emergency preparedness?

a)

Localized incident with no societal impact

b)

Planned drill enhancing healthcare readiness

c)

Routine event improving public safety systems

d)

Hazardous event disrupting community function

36.

What is triage in the context of emergencies?

a)

Selecting only patients with minor injuries

b)

Assigning care by arrival order at the scene

c)

Prioritizing care based on severity and survivability

d)

Providing equal care to all injured persons

37.

Which phase focuses on actions taken before a disaster to lessen its impact?

a)

Prevention/Mitigation phase activities

b)

Response phase operations on scene

c)

Recovery phase long-term rebuilding

d)

Preparedness phase staff orientation

38.

Which phase centers on planning, training, and supplies ready for emergencies?

a)

Response phase urgent interventions

b)

Preparedness phase tasks and drills

c)

Mitigation phase hazard elimination

d)

Recovery phase infrastructure repair

39.

What is the main focus of the response phase?

a)

Education campaigns for hazard awareness

b)

Immediate actions to protect life and property

c)

Long-term services to restore stability

d)

Policy analysis to reduce future risk

40.

Which phase emphasizes restoring systems and community function after an event?

a)

Mitigation phase risk mapping projects

b)

Preparedness phase resource staging

c)

Recovery phase reconstruction efforts

d)

Response phase field triage steps

41.

Which triage system is primarily designed for adult mass-casualty victims?

a)

ABCDE hospital assessment framework

b)

START triage rapid adult algorithm

c)

JumpSTART pediatric-focused protocol

d)

SALT method community shelter model

42.

Which triage approach adapts START specifically for children?

a)

JumpSTART pediatric triage criteria

b)

SALT scene global gathering process

c)

START adult respiratory status checks

d)

Manchester five-category color scheme

43.

Which method groups and prioritizes patients using global sorting and life-saving interventions?

a)

SALT triage method structure

b)

START breathing-first sequence

c)

JumpSTART child pulse guideline

d)

ECPR hospital rescue protocol

44.

Which nursing role is most directly tied to preventing disease spread during disasters?

a)

Recovery support case management

b)

Infection control practices and precautions

c)

First aid bandaging and splinting

d)

Assessment initial scene survey

45.

Which set lists standard nursing roles in emergency preparedness?

a)

Accounting, Inventory Audits, Recruitment, Legal Counsel, Catering

b)

Public Relations, Media Interviews, Fundraising, Scheduling, Marketing

c)

Documentation, Billing, Triage Tags, Dietary Services, Transportation

d)

Assessment, Communication, Infection Control, First Aid, Recovery Support

46.

Which statement best defines a disaster in a community context?

a)

Any hazardous event disrupting community functions

b)

A routine event with minor inconvenience

c)

A seasonal weather change without damage

d)

A local incident affecting only one household

47.

Which consequence commonly results from disasters?

a)

Improved public health outcomes

b)

Expansion of recreational services

c)

Increase in available resources

d)

Threats to people’s health and safety

48.

Which example describes a human-made disaster?

a)

Earthquake along a fault line

b)

Bioterrorism using a communicable agent

c)

Wildfire from lightning strike

d)

Monsoon causing regional flooding

49.

Which action is required when a communicable biological agent causes an incident such as smallpox?

a)

Open public gatherings immediately

b)

Prioritize rapid construction projects

c)

Initiate quarantine and isolation measures

d)

Suspend all emergency communications

50.

A comprehensive community disaster plan must include which group as vulnerable?

a)

Tourists with short-term visas

b)

Residents with chronic diseases or disabilities

c)

Middle-aged athletic adults

d)

Pet owners with adequate supplies

51.

Which population is often at higher risk due to language barriers during emergencies?

a)

People working as professional interpreters

b)

People who speak the dominant regional language

c)

People who do not speak the dominant regional language

d)

People enrolled in advanced translation courses

52.

Which phase focuses on assessing threats to prevent or lessen disaster impacts?

a)

Recovery rebuilding and long-term support

b)

Preparedness training and planning

c)

Response coordination and relief actions

d)

Prevention or mitigation of risks

53.

Which activity belongs to disaster preparedness rather than mitigation?

a)

Repairing identified structural vulnerabilities

b)

Reinforcing levees and flood barriers

c)

Removing hazards from public spaces

d)

Developing family disaster plans

54.

Which set of actions demonstrates effective preparedness at the household level?

a)

Reducing communication channels to a single point

b)

Delaying evacuation route identification indefinitely

c)

Stockpiling food, water, medication, and first-aid supplies

d)

Scheduling festivals and community parades

55.

Which action typically initiates disaster response when a state lacks adequate resources?

a)

Request aid from federal government

b)

Activate the local shelter network

c)

Refer victims to mental health services

d)

Open recovery assistance centers

56.

During disaster response, which key activity focuses on identifying outbreaks or bioterrorism?

a)

Activating the disaster plan

b)

Providing triage and ongoing care

c)

Establishing disease surveillance

d)

Evaluating public health needs

57.

In disaster triage, what principle guides decisions to use resources efficiently for many people?

a)

A precautionary approach

b)

A humanitarian approach

c)

A utilitarian approach

d)

An individualized approach

58.

Which triage system is specifically designed for pediatric patients?

a)

JumpSTART triage

b)

START triage

c)

Rapid SORT triage

d)

SALT algorithm

59.

Practice scenario: A patient walks to you seeking help. They have a large head laceration, possible arm fracture, shortness of breath, and pallor. Using START, what is your next step?

a)

Treat the laceration and splint their arm

b)

Ask them to move to walking wounded area

c)

Call a team member to ask for help

d)

Complete START assessment and tag accordingly

60.

Practice scenario: After moving ambulatory patients, you assess the first remaining patient. Respirations are 25 per minute, capillary refill exceeds 2 seconds, faint radial pulse, and only the right foot wiggles. Which tag should you assign?

a)

Green tag for minor

b)

Yellow tag for delayed

c)

Black tag for expectant

d)

Red tag for immediate

61.

Which sequence best matches the SALT mass casualty steps?

a)

Sort, Assess, Lifesaving, Treatment/Transport

b)

Survey, Aid, Lift, Transport

c)

Screen, Allocate, Limit, Transfer

d)

Search, Act, Link, Triage

62.

Disaster recovery begins at which point in an incident?

a)

When triage is complete

b)

When the threat no longer exists

c)

When shelters are opened

d)

When federal aid is approved

63.

Which activity is part of disaster recovery rather than response?

a)

Activating the disaster plan

b)

Providing ongoing victim triage

c)

Establishing disease surveillance

d)

Resuming previous activities

64.

Which core competency in disaster nursing focuses on coordinating roles and resources during emergencies?

a)

Safety and security

b)

Preparation and planning

c)

Incident Management Systems

d)

Communication

65.

Which competency best describes maintaining a personal and professional preparedness plan and participating in drills?

a)

Demonstrates crisis communication during emergency events

b)

Maintains preparedness plan and participates in drills

c)

Executes disaster plan including chain of command

d)

Uses infection control practices and PPE

66.

During an emergency, which action reflects basic crisis communication skills by a nurse?

a)

Deliver clear, coordinated messages to stakeholders

b)

Perform triage and first aid as needed

c)

Document PPE use in patient records

d)

Activate federal resource request channels

67.

Which competency involves implementing the specific disaster plan, including the chain of command at a school or workplace?

a)

Assists patients to resume functioning after event

b)

Practices within disaster laws and procedures

c)

Executes disaster plan including chain of command

d)

Maintains ongoing assessment as event evolves

68.

What is the primary role of the federal government (FEMA) during disasters?

a)

Provide routine local public health services

b)

Manage all disasters regardless of severity

c)

Step in when local and state resources are exceeded

d)

Coordinate only private-sector volunteers

69.

Which statement best captures the National Preparedness Goal initiative?

a)

Fund only state-level emergency operations centers

b)

Limit disaster response to nonprofit organizations

c)

Train nurses exclusively in infection control practices

d)

Ensure the whole community is prepared for all disasters

70.

What is a core focus of nongovernmental organizations (NGOs) in disaster response?

a)

Include nonprofit and volunteer groups providing necessities

b)

Conduct mandatory drills for all hospitals

c)

Control chain of command at workplaces

d)

Lead federal policy development and legislation

71.

Which competency emphasizes helping the patient, family, or community resume or maintain functioning during and after the event?

a)

Practices within disaster laws and procedures

b)

Maintains ongoing assessment of assigned patients

c)

Implements basic first aid as needed

d)

Assists functioning during and after the event

72.

In START triage, what tag is assigned first if a client can walk?

a)

Red, immediate tag

b)

Green, minor tag

c)

Yellow, delayed tag

d)

Black, expectant tag

73.

In START triage, after opening the airway, the client breathes spontaneously. What tag is given?

a)

Immediate red tag

b)

Delayed yellow tag

c)

Expectant black tag

d)

Minor green tag

74.

In START triage, which finding leads directly to an immediate red tag when assessing respiratory rate?

a)

Rate over 30 breaths

b)

Rate under 30 breaths

c)

Irregular but under 30

d)

Breath sounds diminished

75.

During START triage, what outcome triggers a red tag when checking perfusion?

a)

Absent radial pulse

b)

Both pulse absent and refill slow

c)

Present pulse with refill under 2 seconds

d)

Capillary refill over 2 seconds

76.

In START triage, what tag is given if the client follows commands after perfusion and breathing are adequate?

a)

Expectant black tag

b)

Delayed yellow tag

c)

Immediate red tag

d)

Minor green tag

77.

In JumpSTART, after positioning the airway, the child remains apneic. What is the next step?

a)

Give five rescue breaths

b)

Tag as immediate red

c)

Check pulse for palpation

d)

Assign a black expectant tag

78.

In JumpSTART, after five rescue breaths the child breathes spontaneously. Which tag applies?

a)

Delayed yellow tag

b)

Expectant black tag

c)

Immediate red tag

d)

Minor green tag

79.

In JumpSTART, which respiratory rates result in an immediate red tag?

a)

Less than 15 or greater than 45

b)

Exactly 30 or exactly 45

c)

Between 15 and 45

d)

Between 15 and 30

80.

In JumpSTART, a palpable pulse is absent. What tag should be assigned?

a)

Expectant black tag

b)

Delayed yellow tag

c)

Immediate red tag

d)

Minor green tag

81.

In JumpSTART neurological assessment, which response earns a delayed yellow tag?

a)

Alert and responds appropriately

b)

Only responds to pain stimuli

c)

Unresponsive to painful stimuli

d)

Inappropriate response to pain

82.

In SALT Mass Casualty Steps, which group is assessed first during global sorting?

a)

Those calling for help

b)

Purposeful movement group

c)

Walking wounded group

d)

Still with obvious life threat

83.

Which lifesaving intervention is listed in SALT steps before transport?

a)

Provide detailed diagnostics

b)

Apply full immobilization

c)

Administer IV fluids

d)

Control major hemorrhage

84.

In the SALT triage algorithm, if breathing is absent, what tag is assigned?

a)

Delayed yellow tag

b)

Minor green tag

c)

Immediate red tag

d)

Expectant black tag

85.

In SALT algorithm box 2, which combined criteria must be met to proceed to minor injury determination?

a)

Purposeful movement, strong pulse, minimal distress

b)

Obeys commands, normal vitals, minor bleeding only

c)

Has pulse, any movement, respiratory rate normal, pain controlled

d)

Obeys commands, purposeful movement, peripheral pulse, no distress, hemorrhage controlled

86.

In SALT algorithm, if injuries are minor only, which tag is assigned?

a)

Yellow delayed tag

b)

Green minor tag

c)

Red immediate tag

d)

Black expectant tag

87.

In SALT algorithm Box 3b, failure to survive with current resources leads to which tag?

a)

Minor green tag

b)

Expectant black tag

c)

Immediate red tag

d)

Delayed yellow tag

88.

When deciding Evacuate vs. Shelter-in-Place vs. Lockdown, what action follows if the building is safe but danger is outside?

a)

Assemble outside

b)

Initiate lockdown

c)

Evacuate grounds

d)

Shelter in place

89.

In a modified lockdown, which actions are required?

a)

Lock exterior doors, lock and cover windows

b)

Shelter in interior rooms until cleared

c)

Evacuate to exterior assembly points

d)

Leave doors open for responders

90.

If the building is not safe and grounds are safe, what is the next step?

a)

Initiate full lockdown

b)

Return to shelter in place

c)

Assemble outside safely

d)

Remain inside classrooms

91.

Which statement best defines a disaster in a community context?

a)

A temporary inconvenience with no health risk

b)

A planned emergency drill for residents

c)

A hazardous event disrupting community function

d)

A routine event with minimal disruption

92.

Which phase focuses on stopping hazards from occurring or reducing their impact?

a)

Recovery services and rebuilding

b)

Prevention and mitigation efforts

c)

Response actions and triage

d)

Preparedness activities and drills

93.

Which triage description aligns with prioritizing care by severity and survivability?

a)

Grouping by age and occupation

b)

Sorting by arrival time order

c)

Prioritizing by severity and survivability

d)

Assigning by geographic residence

94.

Which example fits a human-made disaster category?

a)

Seasonal flooding in lowlands

b)

Earthquake along a fault line

c)

Bioterrorism using a pathogen

d)

Hurricane making landfall

95.

A communicable biological agent like smallpox is used. Which immediate public health action is most appropriate?

a)

Quarantine and isolation measures

b)

Relocate only elected officials

c)

Open public celebrations citywide

d)

Discontinue all medical services

96.

Which preparedness activity strengthens readiness before an incident occurs?

a)

Deploying search and rescue teams

b)

Conducting post-event counseling

c)

Performing regular emergency drills

d)

Repairing identified vulnerabilities

97.

Which action is part of preparedness rather than response or recovery?

a)

Providing antidotes during exposure

b)

Developing a communication chain

c)

Clearing debris after the event

d)

Issuing damage claims assessments

98.

Which action occurs during the immediate disaster response phase when local resources are insufficient?

a)

Rebuild damaged critical structures

b)

Begin long-term mental health therapy

c)

Pause all triage activities briefly

d)

Request aid from federal government

99.

Which is a key activity in disaster response for health teams?

a)

Scheduling community festivals

b)

Activating the disaster plan

c)

Drafting new building codes

d)

Negotiating insurance settlements

100.

During mass casualty triage, what ethical approach guides decisions to use resources efficiently?

a)

Utilitarian approach

b)

Deontological approach

c)

Care ethics framework

d)

Virtue ethics model

101.

Which methods are commonly used to conduct disaster triage?

a)

CPR and AED

b)

MRI and ultrasound

c)

ABCDE and SBAR

d)

START and JumpSTART

102.

In the START system, what is the best next step when a patient walks to you with obvious injuries and is talking?

a)

Send to area for walking wounded

b)

Call a team member to request help

c)

Treat laceration and splint immediately

d)

Complete the START assessment and tag

103.

Using START, a patient has respirations at 25 per minute, capillary refill over 2 seconds, a faint pulse, and limited movement in one foot. Which tag should be assigned?

a)

Green (minor care)

b)

Yellow (delayed care)

c)

Red (immediate care)

d)

Black (expectant care)

104.

Which pediatric-focused triage system adapts START for children?

a)

SALT

b)

METHANE

c)

SMART

d)

JumpSTART

105.

Which acronym outlines the mass casualty steps that include sorting and lifesaving interventions?

a)

SOAP

b)

SALT

c)

RACE

d)

DRSABCD

106.

When does disaster recovery begin for a community?

a)

When the threat no longer exists

b)

When first sirens are heard

c)

When triage starts on scene

d)

When media coverage decreases

107.

Which activity is part of disaster recovery efforts by health services?

a)

Evacuating unaffected neighborhoods

b)

Halting ongoing clinical assessments

c)

Initiating bioterror surveillance protocols

d)

Referring victims to mental health services

108.

Which domain is included among core competencies for disaster nursing?

a)

High-frequency stock trading

b)

Luxury resource allocation

c)

Advanced genome editing

d)

Incident Management Systems

109.

Which competency aligns with Domain 4 for nurses in disasters?

a)

Use basic infection control and PPE

b)

Design municipal evacuation routes

c)

Lead international treaty negotiations

d)

Publish annual economic forecasts

110.

Which statement best describes agency participation at the onset of most disasters?

a)

Private sector acts without coordination

b)

International NGOs manage early operations

c)

Federal agencies lead immediate response

d)

Local organizations need established plans

111.

When local and state resources are exceeded, which entity steps in to coordinate support?

a)

County school boards

b)

FEMA at the federal level

c)

Private hospital networks

d)

International Red Cross

112.

Which initiative clarifies expectations for public and private sectors in health security?

a)

Emergency Response Mandate

b)

Community Resilience Compact

c)

Global Shelter Initiative

d)

National Health Security Strategy

113.

Which service is commonly provided by nongovernmental organizations during disasters?

a)

Tax audits and permits

b)

Meals and clean water

c)

Airport runway repairs

d)

Military escort services

114.

Which action is most appropriate when hazards make staying inside more dangerous than moving out?

a)

Shelter-in-place quietly

b)

Evacuate the area promptly

c)

Wait for official curfew

d)

Initiate facility lockdown

115.

In the START triage flowchart, what is the first assessment step?

a)

Assess mental status

b)

Check capillary refill

c)

Determine ability to walk

d)

Measure respiratory rate

116.

Under START, a client who can walk is assigned which tag and direction?

a)

Delayed yellow, to treatment

b)

Expectant black, to morgue

c)

Immediate red, to transport

d)

Minor green, to secondary

117.

In START, what tag is given after airway positioning if apnea persists?

a)

Expectant black tag

b)

Delayed yellow tag

c)

Minor green tag

d)

Immediate red tag

118.

Which pair of findings in START indicates immediate tag due to perfusion?

a)

Palpable pulse with regular rhythm

b)

Absent radial pulse or refill over two seconds

c)

Slow capillary refill under one second

d)

Warm skin and normal blood pressure

119.

For pediatric JumpSTART, what is done when a palpable pulse exists but no breathing?

a)

Place in delayed yellow area

b)

Proceed directly to perfusion check

c)

Assign expectant black tag

d)

Administer five rescue breaths

120.

In JumpSTART, which respiratory rates warrant an immediate red tag?

a)

Less than 15 or greater than 45

b)

Exactly 20 and symmetrical

c)

Over 30 but under 40

d)

Between 16 and 24 only

121.

Which neurological response under JumpSTART leads to delayed yellow tag?

a)

Alert and appropriate to stimuli

b)

Apnea after rescue breaths

c)

No response to noxious stimuli

d)

Agitated with poor commands

122.

In SALT global sorting, which client should be assessed first?

a)

Calling for help while mobile

b)

Making purposeful movements

c)

Walking with minor wounds

d)

Still with obvious life threat

123.

Which lifesaving intervention is included in SALT before transport?

a)

Control major hemorrhage

b)

Schedule elective surgery

c)

Initiate physical therapy

d)

Administer long-term antibiotics

124.

In the flowchart, what is the first assessment that determines whether you consider lockdown or shelter-in-place?

a)

Check if transportation is immediately available

b)

Check if building is safe for occupants

c)

Check if danger is outside the building

d)

Check if grounds are safe around the campus

125.

According to the diagram, if the building is safe and the danger is outside, which immediate action is indicated?

a)

Evacuate to off-site location promptly

b)

Shelter in place until authorities release

c)

Request transportation for relocation

d)

Assemble outside and account for people

126.

When the building is unsafe, what is the next decision point after evacuating?

a)

Determine if transportation is available

b)

Determine if danger is outside the building

c)

Determine if grounds are safe for assembly

d)

Determine if windows can be covered

127.

If the building is safe but danger is not outside, which modified procedure is listed?

a)

Modified shelter-in-place with open doors

b)

Modified off-site relocation with buses

c)

Modified lockdown with locked exterior doors

d)

Modified evacuation with staged assembly

128.

Which source most directly contributes to respiratory health problems for families living near a major highway?

a)

Indoor dust from household cleaning

b)

Industrial noise from construction sites

c)

Pollen from nearby green buffers

d)

Vehicle emissions with nitrogen dioxide

129.

In an urban heat island, which group is most vulnerable during extreme summer heat?

a)

Teenagers who play evening sports

b)

Elderly and people without air conditioning

c)

Middle-aged joggers with fitness trackers

d)

Office workers with indoor jobs

130.

Which intervention best reduces exposure for homes near highways during peak traffic hours?

a)

Use indoor air purifiers and keep windows closed

b)

Add decorative lights to improve visibility

c)

Open windows to increase airflow

d)

Install louder fans to mask traffic noise

131.

What is the primary health screening priority for children living near heavy traffic corridors?

a)

Test for hearing loss from traffic sounds

b)

Check for skin rashes from sun exposure

c)

Screen for respiratory conditions including asthma

d)

Assess vision changes from vehicle headlights

132.

A neighborhood with limited green space reports poor sleep and heat illness. Which community-level action addresses this scenario?

a)

Replace sidewalks with dark asphalt surfaces

b)

Collaborate with city planners to increase shade

c)

Require residents to buy personal generators

d)

Ban evening outdoor activities entirely

133.

Agricultural runoff in a rural area causes water contamination. Which population should be prioritized for screening?

a)

Long-distance truck drivers passing through

b)

Pregnant women and infants relying on local wells

c)

College students visiting for a weekend

d)

Tourists camping with bottled water

134.

Which resident education point most directly prevents heat-related illness in low-income neighborhoods?

a)

Hydration and access to cooling centers

b)

Daily carpooling to reduce traffic

c)

Avoiding evening news about weather

d)

Choosing dark clothing for sun protection

135.

Which advocacy step helps mitigate highway pollution exposure at the neighborhood boundary?

a)

Petition for green buffers of trees and shrubs

b)

Install brighter streetlights near the roadway

c)

Encourage longer commute routes for drivers

d)

Promote weekend street festivals by the highway

136.

Which measure indicates the number of existing cases of a disease at a given time in a population?

a)

Incidence rate at onset

b)

Prevalence at a point

c)

Sensitivity of testing

d)

Specificity of screening

137.

Arrange the typical disaster management phases in the logical order of occurrence.

a)

Prevention, preparedness, response, recovery

b)

Mitigation, recovery, response, preparedness

c)

Response, recovery, prevention, preparedness

d)

Preparedness, response, recovery, prevention

138.

A community near farms relies on well water and reports illness. Which nursing action best reduces exposure risk for vulnerable groups?

a)

Rely solely on self-reported symptoms

b)

Increase hospital admissions rapidly

c)

Advise boiling and use water filters

d)

Suspend all agricultural activity

139.

Which triage systems are referenced for prioritizing care during mass-casualty events?

a)

ABCDE, C-STAT, RED

b)

NIMS, ICS, HAZ

c)

SMART, GOLD, BLUE

d)

START, JumpSTART, SALT

140.

Why is collaboration among local, state, federal, and NGO partners emphasized in emergency preparedness?

a)

It guarantees zero disaster fatalities

b)

It replaces clinical care during crises

c)

It coordinates resources for effective management

d)

It eliminates the need for community plans