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Worksheets

17eeeee

Total questions: 140

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the etymological origin of the word 'economics'?

a)

Greek ‘Oikos’ and nomos

b)

Arabic

c)

Old England

2.

Who contrasted 'economy' with 'chrematistics' (the art of making money)?

a)

Xnephon

b)

Plato

c)

Aristotle

d)

Hesiod

3.

Economics in this textbook is defined primarily as…

a)

a social science about creating value to accumulate wealth

b)

Economics is defined primarily as the study of how to maximize profits for businesses regardless of resource limitations.

c)

Economics is defined primarily as a branch of mathematics that focuses on financial formulas and accounting rules.

d)

Economics is defined primarily as the science of predicting market prices with complete accuracy.

4.

A national economy is described as…

a)

the system of production, distribution, exchange, and consumption within a country

b)

the financial activity of international corporations only

c)

the global exchange of goods between countries

d)

the study of personal income and expenses

5.

Which level studies households and firms and their decisions?

a)

Macroeconomics

b)

International economics

c)

Microeconomics

d)

Political economy

6.

Which is NOT listed as an element of the national economy?

a)

Production

b)

Distribution

c)

Consumption

d)

Climate conditions

7.

Participants of the national economy include all EXCEPT…

a)

Households

b)

Firms

c)

Government

d)

Natural disasters

8.

Sector structure divides the economy into…

a)

Regions and districts

b)

Domestic and foreign sectors

c)

Goods and services

d)

Rich and poor industries

9.

The territorial structure of the economy refers to…

a)

Ownership forms

b)

Sector specialization

c)

Geographical distribution of economic activity

d)

Income distribution

10.

According to the book, the main purpose of the national economy is to…

a)

Increase state control

b)

Accumulate gold reserves

c)

Satisfy the needs of society

d)

Eliminate competition

11.

Which sequence correctly orders Maslow’s hierarchy from bottom to top?

a)

Safety → Esteem → Physiological → Self-actualization

b)

Physiological → Love → Safety → Esteem

c)

Physiological → Safety → Love/Belonging → Esteem → Self-actualization

d)

Esteem → Safety → Love → Physiological

12.

GDP is most accurately defined as…

a)

Total wealth of a country

b)

Total exports of a country

c)

Market value of all final goods and services produced within a country in a given period

d)

Total income of households

13.

Export is defined as…

a)

Goods bought from abroad

b)

Services used inside a country

c)

Goods and services sold to other countries

d)

Foreign investment inflows

14.

Foreign trade turnover (FTT) equals…

a)

GDP + inflation

b)

Exports – Imports

c)

X+MX + M

d)

Domestic trade volume

15.

Net exports (NE) equals…

a)

Imports – Exports

b)

Exports + Imports

c)

X−MX - M

d)

GDP – consumption

16.

Openness of economy (OP) indicator in the book is…

a)

GDP / population

b)

Imports / GDP

c)

X/GDPX / GDP

d)

Net exports / inflation

17.

Which statement best describes mercantilism?

a)

Free trade without state intervention

b)

Focus on consumer welfare

c)

Economic theory emphasizing exports and accumulation of gold through state control

d)

Theory of comparative advantage

18.

Comparative advantage means…

a)

Producing everything cheaper than others

b)

Absolute productivity leadership

c)

Ability to produce a good at lower opportunity cost

d)

Exporting more than importing

19.

Which integration stage adds a common external tariff to an FTA?

a)

Preferential trade arrangement

b)

Customs union (CU)

c)

Economic union

d)

Common market

20.

Which stage allows free movement of factors of production?

a)

Preferential trade arrangement

b)

Free trade area

c)

Customs union

d)

Common market (CM)

21.

The enterprise is defined as…

a)

A basic primary economic unit aimed at creating through production

b)

A non-profit charity only

c)

A government ministry

d)

A pure financial intermediary

22.

What are the main subsystems of an enterprise in the textbook?

a)

HR, IT, Legal, Compliance

b)

Logistic, Taxation, Auditing, R&D

c)

Marketing, Production/Operations, Finance, Organization

d)

Design, Leasing, Lobbying

23.

The most important purpose of an enterprise is…

a)

A high quality of output

b)

Maximizing inventory

c)

Eliminating competition

d)

Reducing number of employees

24.

Profit is defined as…

a)

Income - Cost

b)

Revenue + Cost

c)

Assets - Liabilities

d)

Price * Quantity - Taxes

25.

Gross income includes…

a)

sales revenue plus fines, compensations and internal income

b)

only net profit

c)

only proceeds from services

d)

wages and salaries

26.

Revenue equals…

a)

Q×PQ \times P

b)

p - Q

c)

Q/pQ/p

d)

p - costs

27.

Which pair correctly matches cost behavior?

a)

Fixed costs don’t change with output in the short run: variable costs change with output

b)

Fixed costs change with output: variable cost stay constant

c)

Both fixed and variable costs never change

d)

Variable cost are sunk costs

28.

Labor productivity (LP) is…

a)

TP/LFTP/LF

b)

LF/TPLF/TP

c)

ΔQ/ΔL\Delta Q / \Delta L

d)

Q×LQ \times L

29.

Nominal wage is…

a)

a money amount paid: real wage is its purchasing power

b)

wage adjust for inflation only

c)

wage in units of output

d)

a fixed living wage

30.

Which is a correct description of land rent types?

a)

Differential rent areas from fertility/location difference: absolute rent is paid from all plots

b)

only absolute rent exists

c)

rent equals profit

d)

differential rent depends only on taxes

31.

A country produces 120 units of good A at $4 and 150 units of good B at $2. Calculate GDP at market prices.

a)

GDP = 120*4 + 150*2 = 780

b)

GDP= 120*2 + 150*4

c)

GDP= 270

d)

GDP=880

32.

A country produces 80 units of good A at $5 and 60 units of good B at $7. Calculate GDP at market prices.

a)

GDP=80∗5+60∗7=820GDP=80*5+60*7=820

b)

GDP=80∗7+60∗5GDP=80*7+60*5

c)

GDP=140GDP=140

d)

GDP=920GDP=920

33.

A country produces 200 units of good A at $3 and 140 units of good B at $4. Calculate GDP at market prices.

a)

GDP=200∗3+140∗4=1160GDP=200*3+140*4=1160

b)

GDP=200∗4+140∗3GDP=200*4+140*3

c)

GDP=340GDP=340

d)

GDP=1260GDP=1260

34.

A country produces 50 units of good A at $10 and 300 units of good B at $1. Calculate GDP at market prices.

a)

GDP=50∗10+300∗1=800GDP=50*10+300*1=800

b)

GDP=50∗1+300∗10GDP=50*1+300*10

c)

GDP=350GDP=350

d)

GDP=900GDP=900

35.

A country produces 90 units of good A at $6 and 110 units of good B at $4. Calculate GDP at market prices.

a)

GDP=90∗6+110∗4=980GDP=90*6+110*4=980

b)

GDP=90∗4+110∗6GDP=90*4+110*6

c)

GDP=200GDP=200

d)

GDP=1080GDP=1080

36.

If CPI rises from 100 to 112, the inflation rate is… (112-100/100 * 100)

a)

8%

b)

10%

c)

12%

d)

6%

37.

If the base-year basket costs 500andthisyearitcosts500 and this year it costs 575, CPI is… (575/500 * 100)

a)

105

b)

110

c)

115

d)

120

38.

CPI moves from 120 to 126. What is the annual inflation? (126-120/120 * 100)

a)

4%

b)

5%

c)

6%

d)

10%

39.

Exports X=80, Imports M=70. Compute FTT and NE.

a)

FTT = 150, NE = 10

b)

FTT = 10, NE = 150

c)

FTT = 80, NE = 70

40.

Country exports 50b and GDP is 250b. Openness OP equals…

a)

0,1

b)

0,2

c)

0,5

d)

5

41.

A firm sold 40k units in a 200k-unit market. Market share equals… (40/200 * 100)

a)

10%

b)

15%

c)

20%

d)

25%

42.

Company sales=60, industry sales=300, largest rival share=30%. Relative market share is… (60/300 = 0.2 0.2/0.3 = 0.667)

a)

20%

b)

67%

c)

200%

d)

180%

43.

Revenue R = Q × p. If Q=1,200 and p=$15, R equals…

a)

$18,000

b)

$1,215

c)

$16,800

d)

$15,000

44.

Gross income includes which set?

a)

sales + fines + compensations + interest

b)

only profit

c)

wages + rent + taxes

d)

depreciation only

45.

Using GDP identity Y=C+I+G+X−MY=C+I+G+X-M with C=400, I=120, G=150, X=80, M=100, GDP equals…

a)

650

b)

6500

c)

750

d)

500

46.

A product has high market growth and high relative share. In the BCG matrix it is a…

a)

dog

b)

cash cow

c)

star

47.

Your firm launches the same product to a new geographic region. In Ansoff’s matrix this is…

a)

Market penetration

b)

Product development

c)

Market development

d)

Diversification

48.

Surveying customers repeatedly over time with an access panel is which research method group?

a)

Single observation

b)

Continuous research

c)

Experiment

d)

Simulation modeling

49.

VAT increases raise prices and reduce household purchasing power. In SWOT for a retailer, this is a…

a)

Strengths

b)

Weaknesses

c)

Opportunities

d)

Threats

50.

Suppliers, competitors, customers in the firm’s target market belong to the…

a)

Macro-environment

b)

Micro-environment

51.

Industry is defined as…

a)

a set of enterprises extracting raw materials and producing/processing goods and energy

b)

only agriculture

c)

only services

d)

a financial sector

52.

Extractive industries include…

a)

mining, oil and gas

b)

textiles and apparel

c)

software publishing

d)

education

53.

Manufacturing industries primarily…

a)

transform materials into goods and include repair/installation of equipment

b)

extract ore

c)

teach students

d)

issue regulations

54.

ICT sector contributes to growth by…

a)

raising productivity and enabling technological change across sectors

b)

only reducing employment

c)

printing money

d)

eliminating services

55.

Which is NOT listed as an ICT activity example?

a)

Computer programming

b)

Web portals

c)

Agricultural tillage

d)

Data processing and hosting

56.

Which is a factor of production in the book’s extended list?

a)

Land, Labor, Capital, Entrepreneurship, Knowledge

b)

Land, Labor only

c)

Money printing

d)

Only natural resources

57.

Which factor income pairs correctly?

a)

Land—Rent; Labor—Wage; Capital—Income; Entrepreneurship—Normal profit; Knowledge—Intellectual rent

b)

Land—Wage; Labor—Rent; Capital—Profit only; Knowledge—Tax

c)

All factors—Wage

d)

Capital—Rent only

58.

Human beings in production are…

a)

both the main factor and the goal of production

b)

irrelevant in modern times

c)

replaced entirely by capital

d)

only consumers

59.

Adam Smith’s production function included…

a)

Labor, Capital, Land

b)

Labor and Technology only

c)

Only Capital

d)

Entrepreneurship only

60.

Neoclassical growth theory stresses the role of…

a)

Labor, Capital, plus Technology

b)

only Government spending

61.

Short run in production analysis assumes…

a)

at least one input fixed and one variable

b)

all inputs variable

c)

all inputs fixed

d)

no production

62.

Marginal Product (MP) equals…

a)

ΔQ/ΔX\Delta Q/\Delta X

b)

Q/XQ/X

c)

Q×XQ\times X

d)

ΔX/ΔQ\Delta X/\Delta Q

63.

Average Product (AP) equals…

a)

Q/XQ/X

b)

ΔQ/ΔX\Delta Q/\Delta X

c)

Q−XQ-X

d)

X/QX/Q

64.

According to the law of diminishing returns…

a)

adding more of a variable input to a fixed input eventually reduces marginal product

b)

average product always rises

c)

marginal product is constant

d)

fixed input adjusts immediately

65.

In Stage II of short-run production…

a)

AP is decreasing and MP is positive until MP becomes zero

b)

MP>APMP>AP and AP rising

c)

MP negative

d)

AP increasing

66.

In the long run…

a)

all inputs are variable and firms can choose the most efficient combination

b)

capital is fixed

c)

labor is fixed

d)

technology is fixed

67.

An isoquant shows…

a)

combinations of K and L yielding the same output

b)

cost combinations yielding same cost

c)

price-quantity pairs

d)

utility levels

68.

The MRTS (L,K) equals…

a)

MPL/MPK=−ΔK/ΔLMPL/MPK=-\Delta K/\Delta L along an isoquant

b)

MPK/MPLMPK/MPL

c)

ΔL/ΔK\Delta L/\Delta K

d)

−PL/pK-PL/pK

69.

An isocost line represents…

a)

combinations of inputs costing the same total amount

b)

combinations with same output

c)

profit levels

70.

Break-even occurs when…

a)

Total revenue equals total cost

b)

Average cost equals marginal cost

c)

Price equals marginal cost

d)

Variable cost equals fixed cost

71.

A divisional structure groups…

a)

by product, region, or customer

b)

by functions only

c)

by projects only

d)

by random teams

72.

A matrix organization…

a)

combines functional and project lines of authority

b)

has only one boss per employee

c)

eliminates cross-functional work

d)

is identical to divisional

73.

Job production suits…

a)

custom, single or prototype items

b)

very large standardized volumes

c)

continuous chemical processing only

d)

call centers

74.

Batch production is…

a)

making groups of similar items through stages

b)

single bespoke production

c)

unrelated to scheduling

d)

only service operations

75.

Flow (mass) production is…

a)

large amounts of standardized products, often on assembly lines

b)

always bespoke

c)

only for software

d)

random artisan work

76.

Lean production and JIT emphasize…

a)

waste reduction and timely supply

b)

higher inventories

c)

long queues

d)

ignoring quality

77.

Traditional quality control checks…

a)

at end of the line; TQM engages quality at each stage

b)

only suppliers

c)

only managers

d)

only final consumers

78.

Specialization types include…

a)

technological, subject, and mixed

b)

functional only

c)

regional only

d)

financial only

79.

A workplace is…

a)

an integral component of the production process for a specific operation

b)

a social club

c)

only an office

d)

a marketing channel

80.

Indicators of production structure include…

a)

size of links, centralization degree, ratio of main/aux/serving, proportionality, specialization level

b)

only profit

c)

only headcount

d)

only area of buildings

81.

Q rises from 100 to 130 when L increases from 10 to 13. MP (ΔQ/ΔL) equals…

a)

10

b)

15

c)

30

d)

5

82.

If Q=200 units produced by L=20 workers, AP equals…

a)

10

b)

20

c)

5

d)

200

83.

With fixed K, MP becomes zero when TP peaks at 500 units. At that point the firm is at…

a)

end of Stage II

b)

Stage I

c)

Stage III

d)

long run

84.

If MPL=8 and MPK=4 along an isoquant, MRTS(L,K)=…

a)

2

b)

0.5

c)

−2

d)

−0.5

85.

Given wage w= 20,rentalrater=20, rental rate r= 10, total cost C=$200, which bundle lies on the isocost? C = wL + rK; 200 = 20L + 10K; 20 = 2L + K; K = 20 − 2L

a)

L=5, K=10

b)

L=10, K=10

c)

L=0, K=10

d)

L=5, K=5

86.

Price p= 50,variablecostperunitv=50, variable cost per unit v= 30, fixed cost F=$2,000. Break-even Q is…

a)

50

b)

67

c)

100

d)

200

87.

Given TR=PQ and TC=F+vQ with P=$25, v=$15, F=$3,000. At Q=400, profit equals…

 

a)

1000

b)

-1000

c)

4000

d)

3000

88.

Output equals 12,000 units with 30 workers per day. Labor productivity per worker is…

a)

400

b)

200

c)

600

d)

300

89.

A machine produces 45 units/hour at full capacity of 60 units/hour. Capacity utilization is…

a)

65%

b)

75%

c)

80%

d)

90%

90.

Given Q = f(L,K)=L0.5K0.5f(L,K) = L^{0.5} K^{0.5} with L = 16 and K = 25, output is…

a)

20

b)

8

c)

41

d)

5

91.

Total cost TC = F + vQ with F = 5,000 andv= and v = \ 1212 . At Q = 700, TC is…

a)

8,400$

b)

12,400$

c)

13,400$

d)

16,400$

92.

Average cost AC = TC/Q. Using TC = 13,400$ at Q = 700, AC equals…

a)

16$

b)

18$

c)

19.14$

d)

20$

93.

If adding 1 worker raises output from 300 to 320 while AP was 15, the new AP with 21 workers is…

a)

15.24

b)

16.00

c)

18.00

d)

20.00

94.

Inventory is reduced and lead time shortens under JIT. This primarily improves…

a)

waste reduction and flow

b)

fixed cost level

c)

tax rate

d)

nominal wages

95.

Choose the suitable method: custom yacht building requires…

a)

Job production

b)

Batch production

c)

Flow production

d)

Lean only

96.

A project-based ICT firm runs multiple client projects while employees keep functional homes (e.g., Dev, QA). Which structure fits best?

a)

Functional

b)

Matrix

c)

Divisional by region

d)

Simple

97.

A bakery makes bread in groups moving stage-by-stage (mixing, proofing, baking). This is…

a)

Job production

b)

Batch production

c)

Flow production

d)

Project production

98.

An auto plant’s assembly line reduces defects by empowering workers to stop the line and fix issues immediately. This reflects…

a)

TQM and lean principles

b)

Only final inspection

c)

Chrematistics

d)

Only HR policy

99.

A firm adds more workers while keeping machines constant and notices MP falls but remains positive. It is in… Recall the three stages of production in the short run: Stage I: MP > AP, AP rising. Stage II: MP < AP but MP > 0, AP falling. Stage III: MP < 0 (total product falls).

a)

Stage I

b)

Stage II

c)

Stage III

d)

Long run

100.

A plant must deliver 10,000 units/month. Price = 30 ,v=, v = \ 1818 , F = 50,000$. Which statement holds?

a)

It will break even at 4,167 units

b)

Break-even is 2,778 units

c)

Break-even is 5,000 units

d)

Impossible to break even

101.

Which is NOT a classic management function?

a)

Planning

b)

Organizing

c)

Commanding sleep

d)

Controlling

102.

Communication management is…

a)

systematic planning, implementing, monitoring and revising communication channels

b)

only sending emails

c)

only PR events

d)

only financial reporting

103.

Innovation management focuses on…

a)

creating and implementing new ideas, products and processes

b)

cutting all R&D

c)

only marketing ads

d)

price regulation only

104.

Digital economy in the book refers to…

a)

ICT-driven activities affecting all industries, productivity and competitiveness

b)

only e-commerce websites

c)

banknote design

d)

agricultural policy only

105.

Elements of a marketing plan begin with…

a)

Situation analysis (PEST, competitors, SWOT)

b)

Budgeting only

c)

Random tactics

d)

No goals

106.

Which set correctly orders marketing plan pieces?

a)

Analysis → Goals → Strategy → Tactics → Budget → Control

b)

Goals → Budget → Control → Strategy

c)

Tactics → Strategy → Analysis

d)

Control → Analysis → Budget

107.

The '4Ps' refer to…

a)

Product, Price, Place, Promotion

b)

Profit, People, Process, Proof

c)

Plan, Produce, Pay, Promote

d)

Policy, Place, Promotion, People

108.

In the BCG matrix, low growth and high share imply…

a)

Cash Cow

b)

Star

c)

Dog

d)

Question Mark

109.

Ansoff strategy of selling existing products in existing markets is…

a)

Market penetration

b)

Product development

c)

Market development

d)

Diversification

110.

Societal marketing concept means…

a)

considering consumer wants, company requirements and society’s long-term interests

b)

focusing only on short-term sales

c)

ignoring environmental issues

d)

pricing below cost

111.

Market capacity E equals…

a)

M × C (quantity sold × unit cost)

b)

Total revenue/price

c)

Q × P

d)

GDP × exports

112.

Market share equals…

a)

firm sales / total market sales ×100%

b)

GDP / exports

c)

exports / GDP

d)

profit / assets

113.

Relative market share equals…

a)

firm share / largest competitor share ×100%

b)

firm sales / GDP ×100%

c)

largest competitor / industry

d)

profit / sales ×100%

114.

Which belongs to the microenvironment?

a)

Suppliers and customers in the target market

b)

Interest rates and demographics

c)

Culture at large

d)

Global climate change

115.

Which research method fits repeated measurements from the same panel?

a)

Continuous research

b)

Single observation

c)

Laboratory experiment only

d)

Expert judgment only

116.

Which concept defines the set of processes for creating, promoting and providing value to customers?

a)

Marketing

b)

Finance

c)

Accounting

d)

Operations

117.

Which is a key indicator of marketing activity?

a)

Average market share

b)

GDP growth rate only

c)

Unemployment rate only

d)

Exchange rate regime

118.

Which statement about SWOT is correct?

a)

Strengths and Weaknesses are internal; Opportunities and Threats are external

b)

All factors are external

c)

Only threats matter

d)

Opportunities are internal

119.

Which 'integration stage + policy' pair is correct?

a)

Customs union — common external tariff

b)

FTA — common currency

c)

PTA — free factor movement

d)

Common market — only preferential tariffs

120.

Which best describes the role of ICT sector (per book)?

a)

Horizontal sector that affects all industries and raises productivity

b)

A niche that does not influence other sectors

c)

Only hardware manufacturing

d)

Only telecom regulation

121.

Firm sales = 250, market sales = 2,000. Market share is…

a)

10%

b)

12.5%

c)

15%

d)

20%

122.

Firm share = 12.5%; largest rival = 25%. Relative market share equals…

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

200%

123.

Market capacity: M = 500,000 units/year; C = $30. E equals…

a)

$15,000,000

b)

$500,000

c)

$30

d)

$1,500,000

124.

A product has growth 3% and share 45%. In BCG it is…

a)

Dog

b)

Cash Cow

c)

Star

d)

Question Mark

125.

Budget must fund tactics that implement which element?

a)

Strategy

b)

Control

c)

Random goals

d)

Only PR

126.

If exports X = 80b,GDP=80b, GDP = 400b, OP equals…

a)

0.1

b)

0.2

c)

0.5

d)

2.0

127.

Firm revenue R = Q × p. If Q = 50,000 and p = $12, R =

a)

$60,000

b)

$600,000

c)

$1,200,000

d)

$6,000,000

128.

Gross income includes which items?

a)

sales + fines + compensations + interest

b)

only dividends

c)

wages + rent

d)

depreciation

129.

Profit = Income − Costs. If Income = 1.2mandCosts=1.2m and Costs = 0.95m, Profit =

a)

$150k

b)

$200k

c)

$250k

d)

$300k

130.

Ansoff: selling a new product to existing customers corresponds to…

a)

Product development

b)

Market penetration

c)

Market development

d)

Diversification

131.

The firm considers entering e-commerce with its current product line to reach new foreign customers. Choose the Ansoff strategy.

a)

Market penetration

b)

Market development

c)

Product development

d)

Diversification

132.

A division with low share in a high-growth segment needs heavy investment to compete. In BCG it is a…

a)

Dog

b)

Cash Cow

c)

Star

d)

Question Mark

133.

Company’s strong brand and weak logistics; growing online demand and new taxes. Which SWOT pair is correct?

a)

Strength=brand; Weakness=logistics; Opportunity=online demand; Threat=new taxes

b)

Strength=taxes; Weakness=brand; Opportunity=logistics; Threat=online demand

c)

Strength=brand; Weakness=taxes; Opportunity=logistics; Threat=online demand

d)

Strength=logistics; Weakness=brand; Opportunity=taxes; Threat=online demand

134.

A bank plans an app for secure messaging and document sharing across departments and customers. This is primarily…

a)

Communication management

b)

Finance management

c)

Production management

d)

Only HR

135.

Startup must choose KPIs to monitor adoption of a new AI feature monthly and adjust tactics. In the marketing plan this is…

a)

Control

b)

Budget

c)

Strategy

d)

Goals

136.

A telecom runs R&D labs to prototype 5G services, file patents, and commercialize them. This is…

a)

Innovation management

b)

Only market penetration

c)

Only PR

d)

Batch production

137.

Supplier consolidation raises bargaining power of suppliers. In Porter/marketing terms this most likely impacts the…

a)

microenvironment

b)

macroenvironment

c)

internal environment only

d)

none

138.

A product’s market growth slowed to 1% but share remains 35% and cash flow is strong. BCG classification:

a)

Dog

b)

Question Mark

c)

Cash Cow

d)

Star

139.

Government introduces strict data localization law affecting cloud providers. Which environment factor is this?

a)

Political/legal in macroenvironment

b)

Microenvironment

c)

Internal

d)

Price policy

140.

The firm’s sales 120, industry 800; largest competitor share 30%. Relative share is…

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

62.5%

d)

150%