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Worksheets

Gerontological Nursing

Total questions: 135

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The nurse notes a change in the patients' cognitive status. Which of the following is best to use for proper screening?

a)

MMSE (mini mental state exam)

b)

Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA)

c)

Clock drawing test

d)

Mini Cog

2.

Fulmer SPICES: What does the final S represent?

a)

Skin breakdown

b)

Sleep disorders

c)

Self-care deficit

d)

Shortness of breath

3.

Fulmer SPICES: What does the letter E represent?

a)

Evidence of falls

b)

Elder abuse screening

c)

Edema evaluation

d)

End-of-life planning

4.

Fulmer SPICES: What does the letter C represent?

a)

Confusion

b)

Constipation

c)

Caregiver strain

d)

Cardiac symptoms

5.

Fulmer SPICES: What does the letter I represent?

a)

Incontinence

b)

Insomnia

c)

Immobility

d)

Intake and output charting

6.

Fulmer SPICES: What does the letter P represent?

a)

Problems with eating or feeding

b)

Pressure injury risk assessment

c)

Pain with movement

d)

Polypharmacy review

7.

Fulmer SPICES: What does the letter S represent in the first position?

a)

Sleep disorders

b)

Skin breakdown

c)

Self-harm risk

d)

Social isolation

8.

What is therapeutic communication?

a)

Casual conversation with patients

b)

A conscious process to gather information about health status

c)

Only verbal communication techniques

d)

Communication between healthcare providers

9.

Why should you approach individuals with dementia from the front?

a)

To avoid startling them

b)

To give them a chance to process who you are

c)

To maintain professional boundaries

d)

To assess their visual acuity

10.

When communicating with older adults, what should nurses do regarding topics?

a)

Discuss multiple topics at once for efficiency

b)

Stick to one topic at a time

c)

Avoid sensitive topics completely

d)

Only discuss medical information

11.

What is a normal cognitive change in older adults that impacts communication?

a)

Complete memory loss

b)

Decline in information processing speed

c)

Loss of all language abilities

d)

Inability to recognize faces

12.

What is abbreviated grief?

a)

Grief that lasts for years without resolution

b)

Brief but genuinely felt grief

c)

Grief that is masked by physical symptoms

d)

Intense, overwhelming grief reaction

13.

When should advance medical directives become operative?

a)

Immediately upon signing

b)

When the patient requests it

c)

When the patient is no longer capable of making decisions

d)

Only after consultation with family

14.

Which level of disease prevention involves screening tests?

a)

Primary prevention

b)

Secondary prevention

c)

Tertiary prevention

d)

Quaternary prevention

15.

At what rate does body temperature decrease after death (algor mortis)?

a)

0.5°C per hour

b)

1°C per hour

c)

2°C per hour

d)

3°C per hour

16.

What is rigor mortis?

a)

Gradual decrease of body temperature

b)

Bluish discoloration of skin

c)

Stiffening of the body after death

d)

Pooling of blood in dependent areas

17.

What type of loss is retirement an example of?

a)

Personal loss

b)

Perceived loss

c)

Maturational loss

d)

Situational loss

18.

Where was the first hospice program established?

a)

Mayo Clinic, USA

b)

St. Christopher's Hospice, London

c)

Royal Victoria Hospital, Montreal

d)

Massachusetts General Hospital, USA

19.

What is the primary goal of palliative care?

a)

Cure the underlying disease

b)

Relieve pain and improve quality of life

c)

Extend life as long as possible

d)

Prepare for hospice care

20.

How far apart should antacids and iron supplements or antibiotics be administered?

a)

30 minutes apart

b)

1 hour apart

c)

2 hours apart

d)

4 hours apart

21.

What should nurses monitor when a patient is taking digoxin with diuretics?

a)

Blood glucose levels

b)

Potassium levels

c)

Calcium levels

d)

Sodium levels

22.

Which food should be avoided when taking MAOIs (antidepressants)?

a)

Dairy products

b)

Grapefruit juice

c)

Tyramine-rich foods

d)

Leafy green vegetables

23.

What serious risk occurs when warfarin is combined with aspirin or NSAIDs?

a)

Liver toxicity

b)

Kidney failure

c)

Increased bleeding risk

d)

Hypertensive crisis

24.

Which phase of biotransformation involves combining the drug with substances like glucuronic acid?

a)

Phase I (modification)

b)

Phase II (conjugation)

c)

Phase III (excretion)

d)

Phase IV (elimination)

25.

What does pharmacokinetics refer to?

a)

What the drug does to the body

b)

What the body does to the drug

c)

Drug-drug interactions

d)

Drug side effects

26.

Which Republic Act is known as the 'Expanded Senior Citizen Act of 2010'?

a)

RA 7432

b)

RA 8425

c)

RA 9994

d)

RA 10868

27.

In the Kubler-Ross grief model, which stage involves the person trying to make deals to change the situation?

a)

Denial

b)

Anger

c)

Bargaining

d)

Depression

28.

Which ethical principle involves respecting a person's right to make their own decisions about their health?

a)

Beneficence

b)

Justice

c)

Autonomy

d)

Fidelity

29.

According to the principles of gerontological nursing practice, what is aging described as?

a)

A disease process requiring treatment

b)

A natural process common to all living organisms

c)

An inevitable decline in function

d)

A preventable condition

30.

Which organization developed the core competencies for gerontological nursing care?

a)

WHO and CDC

b)

ANA and NANDA

c)

AACN and John A. Hartford Foundation

d)

NIH and NIA

31.

What is the primary challenge for gerontological nurses according to their scope of practice?

a)

Managing multiple medications

b)

Identifying and using the strengths of older adults

c)

Preventing falls and injuries

d)

Coordinating with family members

32.

Which nursing care intervention should be avoided in glaucoma patients?

a)

Regular eye examinations

b)

Continued use of eye medications

c)

Stooping and straining for bowel movements

d)

Monitoring intraocular pressure

33.

What is the most common hearing problem in older persons?

a)

Otitis media

b)

Tinnitus

c)

Presbycusis

d)

Acoustic neuroma

34.

Which type of hearing loss can be treated with hearing aids that amplify sound?

a)

Sensorineural hearing loss

b)

Conductive hearing loss

c)

Mixed hearing loss

d)

Central hearing loss

35.

What percentage of people aged 65-76 years experience hearing loss?

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

30%

d)

50%

36.

Which form of age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is characterized by drusen accumulations and slow progression?

a)

Wet (neovascular) ARMD

b)

Dry (atrophic) ARMD

c)

Exudative ARMD

d)

Mixed ARMD

37.

Which type of glaucoma involves the angle of the iris obstructing drainage of aqueous humor?

a)

Open-angle glaucoma

b)

Angle-closure glaucoma

c)

Secondary glaucoma

d)

Congenital glaucoma

38.

What is the primary surgical procedure used for cataract removal that uses ultrasound waves?

a)

Extracapsular cataract extraction

b)

Intracapsular cataract extraction

c)

Phacoemulsification

d)

Laser-assisted cataract surgery

39.

Which of the following is a common barrier to healthcare access for older adults?

a)

Increased social support

b)

Transportation difficulties

c)

High levels of physical activity

d)

Access to telehealth services

40.

What is the primary focus of geriatric assessment?

a)

To evaluate the financial status of the elderly

b)

To provide a cure for chronic diseases

c)

To assess the overall health and functional status of older adults

d)

To determine the social activities of older adults

41.

Which of the following is a common physical change associated with aging?

a)

Increased muscle mass

b)

Decreased bone density

c)

Improved vision

d)

Enhanced skin elasticity

42.

Which of the following is a common nutritional concern for older adults?

a)

High fiber diet

b)

Increased protein intake

c)

Dehydration

d)

Excessive calorie consumption

43.

What is the primary focus of palliative care for older adults?

a)

Cure of diseases

b)

Management of symptoms and quality of life

c)

Rehabilitation and recovery

d)

Preventive health measures

44.

Which of the following is a common psychological change associated with aging?

a)

Decreased emotional regulation

b)

Enhanced creativity

c)

Improved memory retention

d)

Increased anxiety levels

45.

Which of the following statements about the diets and nutritional status of older people is correct?

a)

Reports suggest that older people consume less than the recommended contribution of fat to energy intake.

b)

Multiple micronutrient deficiencies are widespread in older people in high-income countries.

c)

Older people generally have a lower energy intake than younger adults.

d)

There is little variation in the dietary intake between older peopl

46.

The following nursing interventions are appropriate in the prevention of sores among bedridden elderly clients EXCEPT:

a)

Massage bony prominence

b)

Apply alcohol on the skin

c)

Keep the skin clean and dry

d)

Turn the client every 1 to 2 hours

47.

A common aging change where there is claudification of the eye lens.

a)

Cataract

b)

glaucoma

c)

Retinal detachment

48.

The developmental task of the older adult according to Erikson is:

a)

Identity vs. Role Diffusion

b)

Intimacy vs. Isolation

c)

Generativity vs. Stagnation

d)

Ego Integrity vs. Despair

49.

Which factor is NOT a normal part of aging and needs to be addressed to promote nutrition in the older adult client?

a)

Loss of teeth

b)

Increase in gastric pH

c)

Xerostoma or dry mouth

d)

Decline in basal metabolic rate

50.

Which statement would be most appropriate to ask when assessing an aging adult for cognitive function?

a)

What is today's date?

b)

Can you count to 10 for me?

c)

Have you noticed anything different about your memory or thinking in the past few months?

d)

Who is the president of the Philippines?

51.

In assessing the aging client, it is importnat for the nurse to recognize:

a)

The client's ability to perform ADLs

b)

The financial status of the client

c)

The job that the client held prior to aging

d)

All components of well-being, including biological function, psychological function, and social function

52.

Which of the following contributes to reduced energy expenditure in older adults?

a)

A reduction in lean body mass

b)

A reduction in physical activity

c)

A reduction in basal metabolic rate

d)

All of the above

53.

in order to achieve optimal nutritional status it is recommended that older adults consume:

a)

A high energy content diet.

b)

A high nutrient dense diet.

c)

A low energy content diet.

d)

A daily antioxidant supplement.

54.

Which of the following statements about the diets and nutritional status of older people is correct?

a)

Reports suggest that older people consume less than the recommended contribution of fat to energy intake.

b)

Multiple micronutrient deficiencies are widespread in older people in high-income countries.

c)

Older people generally have a lower energy intake than younger adults.

d)

There is little variation in the dietary intake between older peopl

55.

The role of the gerontological nurse, wherein effective communication involves listening, interacting, clarifying, coaching, validating and evaluating is essential,

a)

advocate

b)

healer

c)

educator

d)

innovator

56.

The role in which gerontological nurse recognizes that most human beings value health, are responsible and active participants in their health maintenance and illness management, and desires harmony and wholeness with their environment.

a)

advocate

b)

caregiver

c)

healer

d)

innovator

57.

The middle ages is

a)

40-64 years old

b)

65-74 years of age

c)

75-84 years of age

d)

85-100 years of age

58.

The study of the aging process including biological, psychological, & sociological

a)

Gerontology

b)

Anatomy

c)

Ageology

d)

Genetics

59.

What should you do regarding eye contact when communicating with older adults?

a)

Avoid all eye contact

b)

Maintain eye contact and drop to their eye level

c)

Stand above them looking down

d)

Only make brief glances

60.

Why is music and dance beneficial for dementia patients?

a)

It replaces medication

b)

It can spark memories of happy times

c)

It cures cognitive impairment

d)

It prevents further decline

61.

What is the purpose of informal or social communication?

a)

Gather medical history

b)

Build rapport and establish relationships

c)

Conduct formal assessments

62.

What should nurses do when communicating with older patients?

a)

Speak very loudly at all times

b)

Use complex medical terminology

c)

Allow extra time and avoid distractions

d)

Stand behind them when speaking

63.

What psychological factor can impact communication in older adults?

a)

Increased energy levels

b)

Depression causing slowed response

c)

Enhanced memory

d)

Improved attention span

64.

How does Parkinson's disease affect communication?

a)

It only affects speech

b)

Reduces velocity and accuracy of movement

c)

Improves nonverbal communication

d)

Has no effect on communication

65.

What normal change in touch occurs with aging?

a)

Increased sensitivity

b)

Reduction in number of receptors and tactile sensation

c)

Enhanced temperature discrimination

d)

Improved vibration sense

66.

Which group is described by the following options?

a)

Completely dependent older adults

b)

Older adults who can remain independent but need some help

c)

Only dementia patients

d)

Post-surgical patients only

67.

Assisted living communities are designed for:

a)

elderly individuals who need help with daily activities

b)

children with special needs

c)

young adults seeking independent living

d)

patients requiring intensive medical care

68.

What is a major responsibility of gerontological nurses in long-term care?

a)

Diagnosing medical conditions

b)

Prescribing medications

c)

Assessing and developing individualized care plans

d)

Managing facility finances

69.

What must nursing homes provide according to standards?

a)

Only medical care

b)

Services to attain highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being

c)

Basic housing only

d)

Meals and medication only

70.

Which level of disease prevention involves physical therapy and rehabilitation?

a)

Primary prevention

b)

Secondary prevention

c)

Tertiary prevention

d)

Quaternary prevention

71.

What should be placed under the chin of a deceased body?

a)

Pillow

b)

Rolled-up towel

c)

Gauze pad

d)

Ice pack

72.

What is the last sense to disappear in dying patients?

a)

Vision

b)

Taste

c)

Smell

d)

Hearing

73.

When does rigor mortis begin?

a)

Immediately after death

b)

About 2 to 4 hours after death

c)

12 hours after death

d)

24 hours after death

74.

What is livor mortis?

a)

Stiffening of the body

b)

Decrease in body temperature

c)

Bluish discoloration of the skin

d)

Loss of reflexes

75.

What is closure in the grieving process?

a)

The funeral ceremony

b)

The point where loss is resolved and person moves on

c)

Forgetting the deceased

d)

Avoiding memories

76.

What is bereavement?

a)

The funeral service

b)

The subjective response after death of someone significant

c)

The legal process after death

d)

The medical care before death

77.

Which type of grief persists for years without resolution?

a)

Abbreviated grief

b)

Anticipatory grief

c)

Chronic (prolonged) grief

d)

Masked grief

78.

What is a perceived loss?

a)

Death of a loved one

b)

Loss of a limb

c)

Loss of confidence or independence

d)

Loss of home in a fire

79.

What does hospice care include for families?

a)

Financial assistance only

b)

Bereavement follow-up and counseling

c)

Home cleaning services

d)

Legal consultation

80.

How many main goals does palliative care have?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

81.

What is the focus of the Nursing "Ethics of Care"?

a)

Strict adherence to hospital policies

b)

Rule-based decision making

c)

The nurse-patient relationship and compassionate care

d)

Cost-effective treatment

82.

Which stage of grief involves feelings of "Why me?"

a)

Denial

b)

Anger

c)

Bargaining

d)

Depression

83.

What does RA 10868 "Centenarians Act of 2016" provide?

a)

Free healthcare for all seniors

b)

Cash gift of 100,000 pesos for centenarians

c)

Monthly pension for seniors

d)

Free housing for elderly

84.

What does the ethical principle of veracity mean?

4 lines
85.

What is polypharmacy?

a)

Taking medications as prescribed

b)

Use of more medications than clinically indicated

c)

Switching between different pharmacies

d)

Taking herbal supplements

86.

What condition can metformin cause in patients with kidney disease?

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Hypertension

c)

Lactic acidosis

d)

Liver failure

87.

Which drug-food interaction involves vitamin K reducing drug effectiveness?

a)

Grapefruit juice with statins

b)

Leafy green vegetables with warfarin

c)

Milk with tetracycline

d)

Tyramine-rich foods with MAOIs

88.

What increases the risk of drug toxicity when hepatic blood flow is reduced?

a)

Decreased drug absorption

b)

More active drug stays in the body

c)

Faster drug elimination

d)

Reduced side effects

89.

An adverse drug reaction (ADR) is:

a)

an unwanted or harmful reaction experienced following the administration of a drug

b)

a positive effect of a drug

c)

a reaction that only occurs with overdose

d)

a reaction that occurs only in children

90.

What is the most important pharmacokinetic parameter that changes with age?

a)

Drug absorption

b)

Drug distribution

c)

Renal excretion

d)

Protein binding

91.

Which liver function test indicates liver cell injury?

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Albumin

c)

SGPT (ALT)

d)

Alkaline phosphatase

92.

What happens to fat-soluble drugs in the body?

a)

They are quickly excreted by kidneys

b)

They easily cross cell membranes and stay longer in the body

c)

They cannot be absorbed

d)

They are eliminated unchanged

93.

Where does biotransformation primarily occur?

a)

A. Kidneys

b)

B. Liver

c)

C. Lungs

d)

D. Intestines

94.

According to gerontological nursing principles, what do older adults share with all human beings?

a)

A. The same diseases

b)

B. Similar self-care and human needs

c)

C. Identical aging processes

d)

D. Same medication responses

95.

What should nurses recognize about sensation and perception in older adults?

a)

They remain constant throughout life

b)

They are mediated by functional, physical, cognitive, psychological, and social changes

c)

They only decline due to disease

d)

They are unrelated to quality of care

96.

Which competency involves using valid and reliable tools to assess older adults?

a)

Communication

b)

Technical skills

c)

Assessment

d)

Critical thinking

97.

What is Standard 1 of Clinical Gerontological Nursing Care?

a)

Diagnosis

b)

Assessment

c)

Planning

d)

Implementation

98.

Which is NOT a role of the gerontological nurse?

a)

Provider of care

b)

Teacher/educator

c)

Primary physician

d)

Advocate

99.

Which physiologic stress factor can cause acute confusional states?

a)

Mild exercise

b)

Pain and surgery

c)

Adequate sleep

d)

Proper nutrition

100.

What type of aphasia occurs when a client cannot receive or interpret messages?

a)

Expressive aphasia

b)

Receptive aphasia

c)

Global aphasia

101.

Which metabolic disturbance can cause acute confusional states?

a)

Hyperglycemia only

b)

Hyponatremia and hypernatremia

c)

Elevated albumin levels

d)

Normal calcium levels

102.

Which is an example of a primary cerebral disease causing acute confusional states?

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Myocardial infarction

c)

Stroke or head trauma

d)

Urinary tract infection

103.

In olfactory dysfunction, which gender is more commonly affected?

a)

Females more than males

b)

Males more than females

c)

Equal distribution

d)

Only post-menopausal females

104.

Which assessment finding indicates difficulty with vision in older adults?

a)

Increased blinking

b)

Squinting or tilting head to see

c)

Rapid eye movements

d)

Excessive tearing

105.

What can cause xerostomia (dry mouth) that affects taste?

a)

Excessive fluid intake

b)

High-protein diet

106.

Which racial group has the highest prevalence of hearing loss in older adults?

a)

African American men and women

b)

Asian men and women

c)

Caucasian men and women

d)

Hispanic men and women

107.

What causes sensorineural hearing loss?

a)

Impacted cerumen

b)

Otitis externa

c)

Problems with cochlea and auditory nerve

d)

Perforated tympanic membrane

108.

Which symptom is characteristic of cataracts?

a)

Eye pain and redness

b)

Sudden vision loss

c)

Halos around objects and glare

d)

Floaters in visual field

109.

What is the primary cause of senile cataracts?

a)

Diabetes mellitus

b)

Aging (over 55 years old)

c)

Trauma to the eye

d)

Smoking and alcoholism

110.

Handover communications can also be referred to as handoff communication, all EXCEPT:

a)

From inpatient units to diagnostic or other departments

b)

Between health care practitioners

c)

Between different levels of care in the other hospital

d)

Between staff and patients families

111.

What is the role of a gerontological nurse as an advocate?

a)

Advocating for legal advice

b)

Advocating for financial assistance

c)

Advocating for emotional support

d)

Advocating for health care

112.

What is the role of a gerontological nurse as a manager?

a)

Managing legal matters

b)

Managing health care

c)

Managing household chores

d)

Managing finances

113.

What is the role of a gerontological nurse as a teacher?

a)

Teaching health care

b)

Teaching personal hygiene and grooming

c)

Teaching cooking and cleaning

d)

Teaching public transportation and handling finances

114.

What is the role of a gerontological nurse as a provider of care?

a)

Providing legal advice

b)

Providing health care

c)

Providing emotional support

d)

Providing financial assistance

115.

What are the factors affecting aging?

a)

Only lifestyle

b)

Only environmental influences

c)

Genetic endowment, environmental influences, and lifestyle

d)

Only genetic endowment

116.

What are instrumental activities of daily living?

a)

Personal hygiene and grooming

b)

Bathing and dressing

c)

Cooking and cleaning

d)

Using public transportation and handling finances

117.

What are activities of daily living?

a)

Taking medicine and doing laundry

b)

Personal hygiene, bathing, dressing, and grooming

c)

Using public transportation and handling finances

d)

Cooking, cleaning, and shopping

118.

What does functional age refer to?

a)

Only mental age

b)

Combination of chronological, physiological, mental, and emotional ages

c)

Only emotional age

d)

Only chronological age

119.

What is the age range for a person to be considered elderly?

a)

50 years or more

b)

60 years or more

c)

80 years or more

d)

70 years or more

120.

What is the main focus of geriatrics?

a)

Dental care

b)

Mental health care

c)

Health care of elderly people

d)

Child care

121.

It utilizes the collective efforts of members of the nursing staff, including auxiliary nursing personnel, and directs them so that the nursing care plan can be carried out.

a)

Assessment

b)

Diagnosis

c)

Planning

d)

Implementation

e)

Evaluation

122.

A patient’s physical, verbal and behavioral responses, informal caregivers’ reports, and observations by healthcare providers from other disciplines are important aspects of the feedback mechanism that helps the nursing staff to maintain a dynamic, flexible care plan.

a)

Assessment

b)

Diagnosis

c)

Planning

d)

Implementation

e)

Evaluation

123.

This is the collecting biophysical data about geriatric patients by means of interviews, record reviews, direct observations and other approaches.

a)

Assessment

b)

Diagnosis

c)

Planning

d)

Implementation

e)

Evaluation

124.

The following are Primary Prevention for elderly chronic illnesses, except;

a)

Regular Check-up

b)

Immunization

c)

Cancer Screening

d)

Control of Blood Glucose Level

125.

Appropriate nursing care for a patient with urinary incontinence is to:

a)

insert an indwelling Foley catheter.

b)

order oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan).

c)

encourage fluids to decrease the urine concentration so it is less irritating.

d)

recommend herbal approaches to reduce incontinence.

126.

A nursing intervention for a patient with constipation is to:

a)

avoid the urge to defecate.

b)

limit fluid intake.

c)

give prune juice with a noncarbonated drink.

d)

encourage bran cereal or whole-grain breads

127.

A patient with dysphagia is:

a)

fed only for pleasure.

b)

at low risk for nutritional deficits.

c)

at higher risk for pneumonia.

d)

able to drink thin liquids.

128.

The nurse is performing an assessment on an older client who is having difficulty sleeping at night. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching regarding measures to improve sleep?

a)

"I swim three times a week."

b)

"I have stopped smoking cigars."

c)

"I drink hot chocolate before bedtime"

d)

"I read for 40 minutes before bedtime."

129.

The following are "Anti-Aging" Lifestyle choices, except:

a)

Optimism

b)

Alcohol Consumption

c)

Keep Learning new skills

d)

Sleep 7-8 hours a day

130.

True or False: Tackling health inequalities should be at the core of any healthy ageing strategies.

a)

True

b)

False

131.

True or False: Older people are extrinsic value to the community.

a)

True

b)

False

132.

In our Comprehensive Geriatric Assessment, below are components of Medical Status except;

a)

Physical Examination

b)

History of Present Illness

c)

Immunization History

d)

Chief Complaint

133.

As a Gerontological Nurse assigned in a long term care facility your approach to geriatric care should be?

a)

Interdisciplinary

b)

Multidisciplinary

c)

Transdisciplinary

d)

Intradisciplinary

134.

A principle of Geriatric Assessment which involves Physical, Cognition, Psychological and Social Domains?

a)

Goal

b)

Focus

c)

Scope

d)

Approach

135.

The following are principles of Geriatric Assessment, except;

a)

Goal

b)

Focus

c)

Scope

d)

Variability