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Firewall Functions and Threat Protection

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which firewall technique primarily blocks unsolicited incoming sessions by allowing only packets that are part of established connections?

a)

Stateful packet inspection tracking connection state

b)

Application filtering using specific application port numbers

c)

Packet filtering based on source or destination addresses

d)

URL filtering with predefined domain or keyword categories

2.

Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing network resources during certain time periods of the week. What kind of information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is part of a normal network behavior?

a)

network configuration files

b)

debug output and packet captures

c)

the network performance baseline

d)

syslog records and messages

3.

How does the service password-encryption command enhance password security on Cisco routers and switches?

a)

It encrypts passwords as they are sent across the network.

b)

It requires encrypted passwords to be used when connecting remotely to a router or switch with Telnet.

c)

It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or switch configuration files.

d)

It requires that a user type encrypted passwords to gain console access to a router or switch.

4.

Which two statements are correct in a comparison of IPv4 and IPv6 packet headers? (Choose two.)

a)

The Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced by the Hop Limit field in IPv6.

b)

The Header Checksum field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.

c)

The Destination Address field is new in IPv6.

d)

The Version field from IPv4 is not kept in IPv6.

e)

The Source Address field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.

5.

A network administrator wants to have the same network mask for all networks at a particular small site. The site has the following networks and number of devices: IP phones – 22 addresses; PCs – 20 addresses needed; Printers – 2 addresses needed; Scanners – 2 addresses needed. The network administrator has deemed that 192.168.10.0/24 is to be the network used at this site. Which single subnet mask would make the most efficient use of the available addresses to use for the four subnets?

a)

255.255.255.248

b)

255.255.255.252

c)

255.255.255.240

d)

255.255.255.192

6.

What characteristic describes identity theft?

a)

the use of stolen credentials to access private data

b)

software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications

c)

software that identifies fast-spreading threats

d)

a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization

7.

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 200 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

a)

255.255.255.0

b)

255.255.255.224

c)

255.255.255.240

8.

What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.)

a)

cost per meter (foot)

b)

cable lengths

c)

pinouts

d)

connector color

e)

connector types

9.

Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?

a)

The wires are too thick for the connector that is used.

b)

The wrong type of connector is being used.

c)

The untwisted length of each wire is too long.

d)

The woven copper braid should not have been removed.

10.

Which IPv6 header field serves the same function as the IPv4 Time-to-Live field?

a)

Flow Label

b)

Hop Limit

c)

Fragment Offset

d)

Traffic Class

11.

During RJ-45 connector termination, which action ensures a reliable crimp and prevents exposed conductors at the plug tip?

a)

Untwist pairs fully to ease wire insertion

b)

Trim pairs short and crimp onto bare copper

c)

Leave colored wires slightly visible past the plug

d)

Crimp the flexible sheath, not the bare wires

12.

Which statement correctly distinguishes IP and MAC addresses in standard networks?

a)

IP addresses are hardware-burned; MAC addresses are assigned by DHCP

b)

IP addresses appear in Layer 2; MAC addresses in Layer 3 headers

c)

IP addresses are 48 bits; MAC addresses are 32 or 128 bits

d)

IP addresses split into network and host; MAC split into OUI and device

13.

A server receives a packet with destination port 143. Which service is being requested?

a)

IMAP email retrieval service

b)

FTP file transfer control

c)

SSH secure remote shell

d)

Telnet unencrypted terminal access

14.

Which feature is common to both TCP and UDP when directing data to the correct application?

a)

Sequence numbering of segments for ordering

b)

Use of source and destination port numbers

c)

Three-way handshake before data transfer

d)

Flow control with sliding window

15.

A subnet must support 10 usable hosts within 10.18.10.0/24 without overlapping existing 10.18.10.0/26 and 10.18.10.192/29. Which network is a valid choice that wastes fewest addresses?

a)

10.18.10.224/27 using larger block

b)

10.18.10.240/27 using larger block

c)

10.18.10.208/28 aligned to a /28 boundary

d)

10.18.10.200/28 within the upper range

16.

A server receives a packet with destination port 21. Which service is being requested?

a)

LDAP directory service

b)

SLP service discovery

c)

SNMP management service

d)

FTP file transfer service

17.

Which network interface card attribute operates at the OSI Data Link layer?

a)

Attached Ethernet cable

b)

RJ-45 physical port

c)

IP address configuration

d)

MAC address identifier

18.

A new LAN must support 10 devices. What is the smallest subnet mask you can use?

a)

255.255.255.224 mask

b)

255.255.255.240 mask

c)

255.255.255.248 mask

d)

255.255.255.192 mask

19.

What UTP cable construction helps reduce crosstalk between wires?

a)

Twisting the wires into pairs

b)

Wrapping pairs with foil shield

c)

Encasing in plastic sheath

d)

Using grounded terminations

20.

A network 192.168.10.0/24 is subnetted with a /29 mask. The fifth subnet is used, the router gets the first usable address, and a server gets the last usable address. What IP, mask, and gateway should be configured on the server?

a)

192.168.10.65, 255.255.255.240, 192.168.10.76

b)

192.168.10.41, 255.255.255.248, 192.168.10.46

c)

192.168.10.38, 255.255.255.240, 192.168.10.33

d)

192.168.10.254, 255.255.255.0, 192.168.10.1

21.

In the shown topology, host A needs the MAC of its default gateway. Which devices will receive A’s ARP request on the local segment?

a)

only hosts A, B, and C on the LAN

b)

only hosts B, C, and router R1

c)

only hosts A, B, C, and D everywhere

d)

only router R1 on the local LAN

e)

only host D on the remote LAN

22.

Which statement correctly contrasts a peer-to-peer network with a peer-to-peer application?

a)

Both models force one fixed role for each device

b)

A peer-to-peer application never runs a background service

c)

A peer-to-peer application never needs any user interface

d)

A peer-to-peer network sets roles per request without a server

e)

A peer-to-peer network requires a dedicated server always

23.

Two LANs require 30 hosts and 14 hosts. You design four subnets: A with 30 hosts, D with 14 hosts, and point-to-point links B and C with 2 hosts each. If you allocate a /24 block, how many host addresses remain unused after subnetting?

a)

88 addresses remain available for future growth

b)

224 addresses remain available for future growth

c)

200 addresses remain available for future growth

d)

158 addresses remain available for future growth

e)

72 addresses remain available for future growth

24.

Which connector is typically used with twisted‑pair Ethernet cabling for LAN devices?

a)

LC connector for duplex fiber links

b)

RJ‑11 connector for telephone handsets

c)

RJ‑45 connector for copper Ethernet

d)

SC connector for multimode fiber runs

e)

BNC connector for legacy coax segments

25.

A server receives a TCP packet with destination port 22. Which service is the client attempting to use?

a)

HTTPS secure web pages

b)

TELNET unencrypted shell

c)

SMB/CIFS file sharing

d)

SSH remote shell access

e)

SLP service discovery

26.

Which statement best describes an intrusion prevention system (IPS)?

a)

A tunneling protocol for secure remote access

b)

Software that only identifies fast‑spreading malware

c)

A passive sensor that only logs suspicious events

d)

A device that filters and blocks malicious network traffic

e)

A router feature filtering by IPs or applications

27.

What core function does DHCP provide on an IP network?

a)

Real‑time chat for remote users

b)

Secure remote access to servers

c)

Dynamic assignment of IP configuration

d)

File and printer sharing on subnets

e)

Encrypting traffic between endpoints

28.

Which OSI layer contains the TTL field in an IPv4 packet header?

a)

Layer 3 Network layer

b)

Layer 2 Data Link layer

c)

Layer 7 Application layer

d)

Layer 4 Transport layer

29.

Host A sends an ARP request to learn the MAC of its default gateway. In a LAN with two switches and router R1 on Host A’s switch, which devices receive the ARP broadcast?

a)

Hosts B, C, and router R1

b)

Only hosts B and C on the local switch

c)

Only hosts A, B, C, and D

d)

Only host D on the remote switch

30.

Which two ICMPv6 message types must be allowed through IPv6 ACLs to map Layer 3 IPv6 addresses to Layer 2 MAC addresses? (Choose two.)

a)

echo requests and echo replies

b)

redirect messages and time exceeded

c)

neighbor solicitations and neighbor advertisements

d)

router solicitations and router advertisements

31.

A host uses SLAAC to configure its IPv6 address. After forming and assigning the address, what must it do before using that address on the network?

a)

Send an ICMPv6 Router Solicitation for default route

b)

Send a DHCPv6 REQUEST to obtain permission

c)

Send a DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST for DNS

d)

Send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation for DAD

32.

A host pings its default gateway and the ping fails. It then pings a host outside the local network and that ping succeeds. What is a plausible cause?

a)

Gateway has wrong IP configured

b)

Gateway is powered off entirely

c)

TCP/IP stack on gateway is broken

d)

Security policy blocks ICMP to gateway

33.

An organization is allocated 2001:db8:0:ca00::/56. Without using interface ID bits, how many /64 subnets can it create?

a)

1024

b)

256

c)

4096

d)

512

34.

What is the smallest IPv4 subnet mask that supports 40 usable host addresses without wasting address space?

a)

255.255.255.240

b)

255.255.255.0

c)

255.255.255.224

d)

255.255.255.192

35.

Refer to the diagram. Host A sends an IP packet to remote host B on a different subnet. What destination MAC address should Host A place in the outbound Ethernet frame?

a)

The MAC address of host B NIC

b)

The MAC address of router R1 LAN

c)

The MAC address of router R2 LAN

d)

The broadcast MAC FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF

36.

Which statement best describes a key benefit of adopting cloud computing in an enterprise network?

a)

Users must avoid personal tools to access information

b)

Daily home wiring use reduces the need for data cables

c)

Appliances become smart and interconnect more easily

d)

Network capabilities expand without large new infrastructure costs

37.

During end-to-end delivery without NAT, which addressing behavior is correct?

a)

Source MAC address remains constant across all LAN segments

b)

Both IP and MAC addresses change at each router hop

c)

Destination MAC address stays the same across every hop on the path

d)

IP addresses remain constant across all routers on the path

38.

Which statement best describes the role of the data link layer?

a)

It generates optical signaling from binary data on fiber links

b)

It shields upper layers from the specifics of the physical medium

c)

It determines the path across remote networks using routing metrics

d)

It provides end-to-end connection-oriented transport for applications

39.

Which three actions characterize CSMA/CD on Ethernet after a collision is possible or detected?

a)

All devices on the segment can detect traffic on the shared medium

b)

Hosts attempt retransmission after a random backoff interval

c)

A device with a token transmits first after each collision

d)

Devices wait for idle media before any transmission attempts

40.

A host on an Ethernet LAN sends a frame to a remote network through a router. What happens to the MAC and IP addresses at the router interface?

a)

MAC addresses are rewritten, IP addresses remain unchanged

b)

Both MAC and IP addresses are rewritten

c)

Both MAC and IP addresses remain unchanged

d)

IP addresses are rewritten, MAC addresses remain unchanged

41.

Which Windows commands display the local routing table?

a)

tracert and netstat -s

b)

route print and netstat -r

c)

show ip route and tracert

d)

ipconfig and arp -a

42.

Which pair describes two core functions of the network layer?

a)

Forwarding packets to other networks and assigning unique logical addresses

b)

Providing reliable end-to-end sessions and port multiplexing

c)

Encoding signals onto copper or fiber and error detection

d)

Framing bits and controlling access to the shared medium

43.

Which command displays the IPv4 routing table on a router?

a)

debug ip routing output

b)

show ip route command output

c)

netstat -r command output

d)

show mac address-table output

44.

What does a default static route add to the IPv4 routing table when configured?

a)

An entry with source code S

b)

An entry listing MAC addresses

c)

An entry with source code C

d)

An entry with the highest metric

45.

Which statement best describes a VPN in enterprise networking?

a)

A switch feature sending local broadcast frames

b)

An antivirus identifying fast-spreading threats

c)

A router feature filtering by IP applications

d)

A tunneling protocol enabling secure remote access

46.

Why might a Layer 2 switch require an IP address configured on a virtual interface?

a)

To allow remote management access

b)

To forward frames between hosts

c)

To operate as a default gateway

d)

To increase broadcast forwarding

47.

Which statement best defines message encapsulation in networking?

a)

Placing one message format inside another format

b)

Splitting a long message into smaller pieces

c)

Converting data into a transmittable format

d)

Encrypting data for confidentiality

48.

Why is message sizing used when sending data across a network?

a)

To reduce processing by removing headers entirely

b)

To break a long message into smaller pieces

c)

To convert analog signals into digital bits

d)

To avoid using the default gateway address

49.

During LAN-to-remote communication, what destination is typically placed in the Layer 2 frame address when forwarding the first hop?

a)

MAC address of the default gateway

b)

Network domain of the destination host

c)

MAC address of the remote server

d)

IP address of the default gateway

50.

What is a primary benefit of protocols defined by open standards?

a)

They avoid regulation by standards bodies

b)

They run only on a single-vendor platform

c)

They allow one company to control the market

d)

They encourage competition and promote choices