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NET6201 Final Exam - Questions Only

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A company has two offices. Office A uses network 192.168.1.0/24 and Office B uses network 192.168.1.0/24. When they connect both offices via a VPN, devices cannot communicate properly. What is the problem and how should it be solved?

a)

Both offices are using the same network address, causing an IP conflict. The solution is to use different network addresses for each office.

b)

The VPN is not configured to allow traffic between the offices. The solution is to enable inter-office routing.

c)

The devices are not compatible with VPN connections. The solution is to upgrade the devices.

d)

The internet connection is too slow for VPN communication. The solution is to increase bandwidth.

2.

A technician configures PC-A with IP 192.168.10.65/26 and PC-B with IP 192.168.10.130/26. Both are connected to the same switch. PC-A cannot ping PC-B. The technician believes the switch is faulty. Is this correct? Explain.

a)

No, because PC-A and PC-B are on different subnets and cannot communicate directly.

b)

Yes, because a faulty switch can prevent communication between devices.

c)

No, because both PCs should be able to communicate on the same switch regardless of subnet.

d)

Yes, because the IP addresses are incorrectly configured for the switch.

3.

An administrator needs to create 4 subnets from network 10.0.0.0/8. Which subnet mask is more appropriate: /10 or /30, and why?

a)

/10 mask, because it creates 4 large subnets suitable for the requirement.

b)

/30 mask, because it creates 4 usable subnets with maximum hosts.

c)

/30 mask, because it creates 4 subnets with only 2 hosts each.

d)

/10 mask, because it creates 4 subnets with only 2 hosts each.

4.

Host A (10.1.1.50/16) sends a packet to Host B (10.2.1.50/16). No router exists between them. Will the communication succeed?

a)

No, because they are on different subnets and need a router to communicate.

b)

Yes, because they are both in the 10.0.0.0/8 network.

c)

Yes, because their subnet masks are the same.

d)

No, because their IP addresses are not compatible.

5.

Can the administrator use 172.16.5.128/28 from the original 172.16.0.0/16 network to create a subnet for Finance with only 10 hosts? Why or why not?

a)

Yes, because 172.16.5.128/28 is a valid subnet within the original /16 and provides enough addresses for 10 hosts.

b)

No, because 172.16.5.128/28 overlaps with the Sales subnet 172.16.5.0/24.

c)

No, because 172.16.5.128/28 does not provide enough addresses for 10 hosts.

d)

Yes, because any subnet within 172.16.0.0/16 can be used regardless of existing subnets.

6.

A router has interface with IP 192.168.1.1/24. A host on that network is configured with IP 192.168.1.1/24. What will happen and why?

a)

There will be an IP address conflict, causing network issues.

b)

The host will be able to communicate normally with the router.

c)

The router will automatically change its IP address to avoid conflict.

d)

The host will be assigned a new IP address by DHCP.

7.

A VLSM design requires: LAN-A (100 hosts), LAN-B (50 hosts), LAN-C (25 hosts), and 2 WAN links (2 hosts each). Starting with 192.168.1.0/24, a technician allocates /25 for LAN-A, then /26 for LAN-B starting at 192.168.1.128. What mistake was made?

a)

The /26 subnet for LAN-B overlaps with the /25 subnet for LAN-A.

b)

The /26 subnet for LAN-B does not provide enough host addresses.

c)

The /25 subnet for LAN-A is too large for the required number of hosts.

d)

The WAN links were not allocated any address space.

8.

8. Two routers are connected via a serial link. Router A interface has 10.0.0.1/30 and Router B interface has 10.0.0.5/30. Routers cannot ping each other. What is wrong?

a)

The interfaces are on different subnets.

b)

The serial link is down.

c)

The IP addresses are not configured.

d)

The routers have a routing loop.

9.

A student calculates that 192.168.1.64/26 has a broadcast address of 192.168.1.128. Is this correct? Explain your reasoning.

a)

No, the correct broadcast address is 192.168.1.127.

b)

Yes, 192.168.1.128 is the correct broadcast address.

c)

No, the correct broadcast address is 192.168.1.191.

d)

No, the correct broadcast address is 192.168.1.255.

10.

A network administrator notices that host 172.16.45.130/20 cannot communicate with host 172.16.33.200/20. Both hosts are connected to the same router. What should the administrator check first?

a)

If both hosts are in the same subnet

b)

If the router is powered on

c)

If the hosts are using the same default gateway

d)

If the hosts have the same MAC address

11.

During troubleshooting, a technician discovers that PC (192.168.5.67/27) has gateway set to 192.168.5.1. The actual router interface on this network is 192.168.5.65/27. Why can't the PC reach other networks?

a)

The PC's gateway is set outside its subnet, so it cannot reach other networks.

b)

The PC's IP address is incorrect for the subnet.

c)

The router interface is down.

d)

The subnet mask is not compatible with the PC's IP address.

12.

What will the router do and why?

a)

The router will forward the packet based on its routing table because it determines the best path for the destination address.

b)

The router will drop all packets because it cannot process any data.

c)

The router will broadcast the packet to all connected devices because it does not use routing tables.

d)

The router will only send packets to the source device because it ignores destination addresses.

13.

TTL=128 tells you about the source operating system.

a)

It is likely Windows.

b)

It is likely Linux.

c)

It is likely macOS.

d)

It is likely a network device.

14.

What will happen?

a)

An event will occur.

b)

Nothing will change.

c)

The system will stop.

d)

A new process will start.

15.

15. Wireshark capture shows two packets from same source: Packet 1 - ID: 0x5F3A, Flags: 0x20 (More Fragments), Offset: 0, Length: 1500. Packet 2 - ID: 0x5F3A, Flags: 0x00, Offset: 185, Length: 700. What can you conclude?

a)

The packets are fragments of a larger IP datagram.

b)

The packets are part of a TCP handshake.

c)

The packets are retransmissions due to loss.

d)

The packets are unrelated and from different sessions.

16.

Which path will the packet take and why?

a)

The packet will take the shortest available path due to routing protocols.

b)

The packet will take the longest path to avoid congestion.

c)

The packet will randomly select a path each time.

d)

The packet will always follow a predetermined static route.

17.

17. Routing table shows: C 192.168.1.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0 and S 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 192.168.1.254. A packet arrives for 192.168.1.50. Which route is used and why?

a)

The packet uses the directly connected route C 192.168.1.0/24 because the destination IP is within this subnet.

b)

The packet uses the static route S 0.0.0.0/0 because it is a default route.

c)

The packet is dropped because there is no matching route in the table.

d)

The packet is forwarded to 192.168.1.254 because it matches the next hop.

18.

What is AA:BB:CC:DD:EE:99?

a)

A MAC address

b)

An IP address

c)

A subnet mask

d)

A port number

19.

Protocol: 1 is used for which purpose in a packet?

a)

It is used for ICMP packets.

b)

It is used for TCP packets.

c)

It is used for UDP packets.

d)

It is used for HTTP packets.

20.

Will this route be used?

a)

Yes, this route will be used.

b)

No, this route will not be used.

c)

This route is not relevant.

d)

The route is under construction.

21.

Wireshark shows packet: Total Length: 60, Header Length (IHL): 5, Data: 20 bytes of payload. Is this header information consistent?

a)

Yes, the header information is consistent.

b)

No, the header information is not consistent because the payload size does not match.

c)

No, the header length is incorrect for the given total length.

d)

No, the total length should be greater than 60 for this header and payload.

22.

What is the difference between the C and L entries?

a)

C entries refer to credits, while L entries refer to liabilities.

b)

C entries refer to credits, while L entries refer to loans.

c)

C entries refer to charges, while L entries refer to losses.

d)

C entries refer to credits, while L entries refer to ledgers.

23.

The asterisk (*) in a route indicates which of the following, and when will this route be used?

a)

It acts as a wildcard and is used when no other route matches.

b)

It specifies a default route and is always used first.

c)

It marks a secure route and is used for admin access only.

d)

It is used for static file routing and is always used for images.

24.

Router has these entries: S 10.0.0.0/8 [1/0] via 192.168.1.1 and S 10.0.0.0/8 [5/0] via 192.168.1.2. The link to 192.168.1.1 fails. What happens to traffic destined for 10.5.5.5?

a)

Traffic is routed via 192.168.1.2.

b)

Traffic is dropped.

c)

Traffic is routed via 192.168.1.1.

d)

Traffic is sent to both 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.1.2.

25.

What can you conclude about the source host?

a)

The source host is actively sending data.

b)

The source host is offline.

c)

The source host is experiencing network issues.

d)

The source host is receiving data only.

26.

IHL: 7 indicates that this packet has a header length of how many bytes?

a)

28 bytes

b)

20 bytes

c)

14 bytes

d)

7 bytes

27.

A network administrator needs to determine if host 192.168.45.67/28 and host 192.168.45.72/28 are in the same subnet. Without using a calculator, how should the administrator approach this problem?

a)

Compare the network addresses of both hosts after applying the subnet mask.

b)

Ping both hosts to see if they respond to each other.

c)

Check if both IP addresses are in the same class.

d)

Count the number of hosts in the subnet.

28.

A junior administrator sees subnet mask 255.255.255.240 and needs to find the CIDR notation. Walk through the conversion process.

a)

/28

b)

/24

c)

/30

d)

/27

29.

What is the decimal notation of the Source IP C0.A8.01.64 shown in Wireshark and what type of address is it?

a)

The decimal notation is 192.168.1.100 and it is a private IP address.

b)

The decimal notation is 192.168.1.100 and it is a public IP address.

c)

The decimal notation is 192.168.1.64 and it is a private IP address.

d)

The decimal notation is 192.168.1.64 and it is a public IP address.

30.

A router receives a packet and sends back an ICMP message with Type 3, Code 0. What happened and what should the source host understand from this message?

a)

The destination network is unreachable, and the source host should stop sending packets to that network.

b)

The packet was successfully delivered to the destination.

c)

The router is overloaded and cannot process the packet.

d)

The source host needs to resend the packet with a different protocol.

31.

A host sends a ping to a remote server. After some time, it receives an ICMP message with Type 11, Code 0. What does this tell the administrator about the network path?

a)

The packet's TTL expired before reaching the destination.

b)

The destination port is unreachable.

c)

The remote server is down.

d)

The packet was successfully delivered to the destination.

32.

Network documentation shows a subnet mask as 0xFFFFFF00. An administrator needs to configure a device that only accepts dotted decimal format. What should be entered?

a)

255.255.255.0

b)

255.255.0.0

c)

255.0.0.0

d)

255.255.255.255

33.

A student needs to determine how many hosts can exist in a /20 network. Explain the calculation process.

a)

4096

b)

2048

c)

1024

d)

8192

34.

An administrator pings a host and receives the reply Destination Host Unreachable from the local router (192.168.1.1). What does this indicate compared to receiving no response at all?

a)

The local router has no route to the destination host.

b)

The destination host is powered off.

c)

The local router is unreachable.

d)

The ping request was blocked by a firewall.

35.

A packet arrives at a router with TTL=0. What does the router do and why might this situation occur?

a)

The router discards the packet because it has exceeded its maximum allowed hops, preventing routing loops.

b)

The router forwards the packet to the next hop to continue its journey.

c)

The router increases the TTL value and sends the packet back to the sender.

d)

The router stores the packet for future delivery when TTL is reset.

36.

Wireshark shows a packet with Protocol field = 6. What protocol is being used above the IP layer?

a)

TCP (Transmission Control Protocol)

b)

UDP (User Datagram Protocol)

c)

ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)

d)

IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol)

37.

A routing table shows: O IA 10.1.0.0/16 [110/30] via 192.168.1.1. What does IA indicate about this route?

a)

IA indicates that the route is an OSPF Inter-Area route.

b)

IA indicates that the route is an Internal Area route.

c)

IA indicates that the route is an IS-IS Area route.

d)

IA indicates that the route is an OSPF Intra-Area route.

38.

Host A (192.168.1.10/24) sends data to Host B (192.168.2.10/24). The packet leaves Host A with destination MAC set to Host A's default gateway. Why?

a)

Because Host B is on a different subnet and Host A must send the packet to its gateway for routing.

b)

Because Host A does not know Host B's MAC address.

c)

Because Host B is on the same subnet as Host A.

d)

Because the default gateway always handles all traffic, regardless of destination.

39.

A router receives packets for 10.0.0.0/8 and has two equal-cost paths. What is this called and what happens?

a)

This is called equal-cost multipath routing, and the router will load-balance the packets across both paths.

b)

This is called route summarization, and the router will drop the packets.

c)

This is called static routing, and the router will send all packets through one path only.

d)

This is called route poisoning, and the router will block both paths.

40.

An IP packet has Total Length: 576, IHL: 5, and 20 bytes of options. Is this consistent?

a)

No, this is not consistent because IHL: 5 means no options are present.

b)

Yes, this is consistent because the total length allows for options.

c)

No, this is not consistent because the options exceed the header length specified by IHL: 5.

d)

Yes, this is consistent because the IHL value matches the options length.

41.

A network administrator sees ARP entries for IP addresses that don't exist on the local network. What might cause this?

a)

ARP spoofing or poisoning

b)

Incorrect subnet mask configuration

c)

Physical cable fault

d)

DNS server misconfiguration

42.

Wireshark shows an IP packet with source address 127.0.0.1 arriving at a router from the internet. What should the router do?

a)

Drop the packet as it is not valid from the internet.

b)

Forward the packet to the local network.

c)

Send the packet back to the source.

d)

Route the packet to the destination address.

43.

A packet fragmented into 3 fragments arrives at the destination, but fragment 2 is missing. What happens?

a)

The packet cannot be reassembled and is discarded.

b)

The remaining fragments are processed and delivered.

c)

Fragment 2 is requested again from the sender.

d)

The packet is partially reassembled and delivered.

44.

Routing table shows: S 10.0.0.0/8 [1/0] via 192.168.1.1 and O 10.1.0.0/16 [110/20] via 192.168.1.2. A packet for 10.1.5.5 arrives. Which route is used?

a)

The packet is routed via 192.168.1.2 (O 10.1.0.0/16)

b)

The packet is routed via 192.168.1.1 (S 10.0.0.0/8)

c)

The packet is dropped

d)

The packet is routed via both 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.1.2

45.

Wireshark shows ICMP Type 3, Code 4 with Next-Hop MTU: 1400. What is the host being told?

a)

The packet is too large and must be fragmented, but fragmentation is not allowed.

b)

The destination port is unreachable.

c)

The packet was successfully delivered.

d)

The source IP address is invalid.

46.

A network has two routers: R1 and R2. R1's routing table shows 10.0.0.0/8 via R2. R2's routing table shows 10.0.0.0/8 via R1. What happens to packets destined for 10.5.5.5?

a)

Packets will loop indefinitely between R1 and R2.

b)

Packets will be delivered successfully to 10.5.5.5.

c)

Packets will be dropped by R1.

d)

Packets will be dropped by R2.

47.

Wireshark shows TCP segment with flags SYN, ACK set, Seq=0, Ack=1. What stage of TCP connection is this?

a)

This is the second step of the TCP three-way handshake (SYN-ACK).

b)

This is the first step of the TCP three-way handshake (SYN).

c)

This is the third step of the TCP three-way handshake (ACK).

d)

This is the termination phase of the TCP connection (FIN-ACK).

48.

A TCP connection shows: Host A Seq=100, sends 50 bytes. What should Host B's acknowledgment number be?

a)

150

b)

100

c)

149

d)

151

49.

Wireshark shows TCP RST flag set. Source port 80, destination port 45678. What likely happened?

a)

The web server closed the connection abruptly.

b)

The client successfully completed the connection.

c)

A SYN flood attack was detected.

d)

The connection was encrypted using SSL.

50.

What do these options tell you about the connection?

a)

They indicate the status of the connection.

b)

They show the speed of the connection.

c)

They display the type of device connected.

d)

They provide information about the connection's security.

51.

Wireshark shows source port 53, destination port 49152, protocol UDP. What application is likely involved?

a)

DNS

b)

FTP

c)

HTTP

d)

SMTP

52.

What protocol is this?

a)

HTTP

b)

FTP

c)

SMTP

d)

TCP

53.

Wireshark shows ICMP Port Unreachable (Type 3, Code 3) following a UDP packet. What happened?

a)

The destination port is closed and cannot receive the UDP packet.

b)

The UDP packet was successfully delivered to the destination port.

c)

The source port is unreachable due to network congestion.

d)

The UDP packet was dropped due to a firewall rule.

54.

A TCP capture shows window size going from 65535 to 32768 to 16384 to 0 across several segments. What is happening?

a)

The receiver's buffer is filling up and eventually becomes full, causing the window size to reach zero.

b)

The sender is increasing its transmission rate due to congestion control.

c)

The network is experiencing packet loss, causing retransmissions.

d)

The TCP connection is being reset by the sender.

55.

A capture shows TCP retransmission after 200ms, then 400ms, then 800ms. What pattern is this?

a)

Exponential backoff

b)

Linear backoff

c)

Constant interval retransmission

d)

Random retransmission

56.

A UDP header shows Length: 8. Is this valid? What does it mean?

a)

Yes, it is valid. It means the UDP packet contains only the header and no data.

b)

No, it is invalid. The minimum length should be greater than 8.

c)

Yes, it is valid. It means the UDP packet contains both header and data.

d)

No, it is invalid. The length should be less than 8.

57.

Wireshark shows duplicate ACKs: Ack=5000, Ack=5000, Ack=5000. What is the receiver signaling?

a)

The receiver is signaling that a packet was lost and is requesting retransmission.

b)

The receiver is confirming successful receipt of all packets.

c)

The receiver is indicating a connection termination.

d)

The receiver is requesting a new connection.

58.

A capture shows SACK blocks: 6000-6500, 7000-7500. The ACK number is 5000. What has been received?

a)

Data up to 5000 and blocks 6000-6500, 7000-7500

b)

Data up to 7500

c)

Only blocks 6000-6500 and 7000-7500

d)

Data up to 6500 and block 7000-7500

59.

Wireshark shows TCP PSH flag set on a segment. What does this indicate and when is it typically used?

a)

It indicates that the sender wants the data to be pushed to the receiving application immediately, typically used for interactive data transfer.

b)

It indicates that the connection is being reset, typically used during connection termination.

c)

It indicates that the segment is part of a retransmission, typically used for lost packets.

d)

It indicates that the sender is requesting a new connection, typically used during connection setup.

60.

Wireshark capture shows a TCP connection with consistently high RTT (500ms+) but no packet loss. What might cause this?

a)

Long physical distance between endpoints

b)

High packet loss

c)

TCP window size too small

d)

Network congestion causing retransmissions

61.

Including IP addresses in a transport layer checksum is important because:

a)

It helps detect misrouted packets by verifying the source and destination addresses.

b)

It increases the speed of packet transmission.

c)

It allows for encryption of the data payload.

d)

It reduces the size of the packet header.

62.

Why does DNS use UDP while HTTP uses TCP? Explain the fundamental transport needs that drive this choice.

a)

DNS uses UDP because it requires fast, connectionless queries, while HTTP uses TCP for reliable, ordered data transfer.

b)

DNS uses TCP because it needs reliable connections, while HTTP uses UDP for speed.

c)

Both DNS and HTTP use UDP because it is faster than TCP.

d)

DNS uses UDP for security, while HTTP uses TCP for simplicity.

63.

Two applications on the same host both try to bind() to TCP port 8080. The second bind() fails with Address already in use. Why does the OS prevent this, and what would happen if it were allowed?

a)

The OS prevents this to avoid ambiguity in delivering incoming packets; if allowed, packets could be delivered to the wrong application.

b)

The OS prevents this to save memory; if allowed, both applications would crash.

c)

The OS prevents this to increase network speed; if allowed, the network would slow down.

d)

The OS prevents this to allow multiple connections; if allowed, only one connection would be possible.

64.

A client socket is identified by 4-tuple (192.168.1.10, 50000, 10.0.0.1, 80). The client host has one network interface. Can the same client create another connection with 4-tuple (192.168.1.10, 50000, 10.0.0.2, 80)?

a)

Yes, because the destination IP address is different.

b)

No, because the source port and IP are the same.

c)

No, because the client has only one network interface.

d)

Yes, because the destination port is the same.

65.

Port ranges are divided into well-known (0-1023), registered (1024-49151), and dynamic/ephemeral (49152-65535) because:

a)

They help organize and manage network services and applications.

b)

They are assigned randomly by network devices.

c)

They are used only for internal communication within a computer.

d)

They are reserved for military and government use only.

66.

Wireshark shows TCP segment: Source Port: 443, Dest Port: 51234, Seq: 1000, Ack: 5000, Flags: ACK, PSH. What does the PSH flag tell us about this data and what should the receiver do?

a)

The PSH flag indicates that the data should be pushed to the application immediately by the receiver.

b)

The PSH flag means the receiver should wait for more segments before processing the data.

c)

The PSH flag tells the receiver to close the connection after receiving this segment.

d)

The PSH flag indicates that the data is encrypted and should be decrypted by the receiver.

67.

An application developer creates a UDP socket and sends a 10,000-byte message. The developer expects one recv() call to receive all 10,000 bytes. Will this work? How does UDP handle large messages compared to TCP?

a)

No, UDP may fragment or drop large messages, and recv() may not receive all 10,000 bytes in one call.

b)

Yes, UDP guarantees that recv() will receive all 10,000 bytes in one call.

c)

No, TCP is used for large messages, not UDP.

d)

Yes, both UDP and TCP handle large messages identically.

68.

A firewall administrator sees thousands of half-open TCP connections (SYN received, SYN-ACK sent, no final ACK). The server is slow and memory is exhausted. What type of attack is this, and why does it target the transport layer specifically?

a)

It is a SYN flood attack, which exploits the TCP handshake process at the transport layer.

b)

It is a DNS amplification attack, which targets the application layer.

c)

It is a brute force attack, which targets the network layer.

d)

It is a phishing attack, which targets the presentation layer.

69.

Explain why three different protocols are involved in loading one web page.

a)

Because each protocol handles a different aspect: HTTP for data transfer, TCP for reliable connection, and IP for addressing and routing.

b)

Because all protocols are used for encryption only.

c)

Because only one protocol is needed for loading a web page.

d)

Because protocols are randomly selected for each web page.

70.

Under what circumstances does DNS switch to TCP, and why not use TCP always?

a)

DNS switches to TCP when the response data size exceeds 512 bytes, and TCP is not always used because it is slower and requires more resources than UDP.

b)

DNS switches to TCP when the client requests it, and TCP is not always used because UDP is more secure.

c)

DNS switches to TCP for all queries, and TCP is not always used because it is less reliable than UDP.

d)

DNS switches to TCP when the server is overloaded, and TCP is not always used because UDP is faster.

71.

A user sends email from alice@gmail.com to bob@yahoo.com. The email travels through multiple servers. Which protocol is used between Gmail's server and Yahoo's server, and why is this different from what Bob uses to read the email?

a)

SMTP is used between Gmail's server and Yahoo's server, while Bob uses IMAP or POP3 to read the email.

b)

IMAP is used between Gmail's server and Yahoo's server, while Bob uses SMTP to read the email.

c)

POP3 is used between Gmail's server and Yahoo's server, while Bob uses SMTP to read the email.

d)

FTP is used between Gmail's server and Yahoo's server, while Bob uses IMAP to read the email.

72.

A company's internal DNS server cannot resolve external domains. Nslookup for internal.company.com works, but google.com fails. What DNS concept is likely misconfigured?

a)

DNS forwarding

b)

DHCP lease time

c)

MX record

d)

TTL value

73.

When a browser makes an HTTPS request to port 443, the HTTP content is encrypted. But TCP and IP headers remain unencrypted. Why can't we encrypt everything including port numbers and IP addresses?

a)

Because routers and switches need to read IP addresses and port numbers to route packets correctly.

b)

Because encryption of headers is technically impossible.

c)

Because browsers do not support header encryption.

d)

Because HTTPS automatically encrypts all headers.

74.

User clicks a link. Browser has IP cached (no DNS needed). Wireshark shows HTTP GET sent, but HTTP response takes 3 seconds. TCP handshake completed in 50ms. Where should the administrator look for the delay?

a)

Web server processing time

b)

DNS resolution issues

c)

TCP handshake latency

d)

Browser cache problems

75.

What layer is likely blocking this?

a)

Application Layer

b)

Transport Layer

c)

Network Layer

d)

Data Link Layer

76.

Why do application layer protocols define their own message formats instead of using a universal format?

a)

Because different applications have unique requirements and functionalities.

b)

To make network communication slower.

c)

To avoid compatibility with other protocols.

d)

Because universal formats are always less secure.

77.

What mechanism caused the improvement, and what determines how long the improvement lasts?

a)

The underlying biological process and the duration of exposure determine the improvement and its longevity.

b)

The improvement is caused by random chance and lasts indefinitely.

c)

The mechanism is unknown and the duration is fixed for all cases.

d)

Improvement is caused by external factors and lasts only for a short period.

78.

If P2P has no server, how does a new peer find other peers to connect to? Explain the bootstrap problem and solutions.

a)

By using a bootstrap mechanism such as a list of known peers or a bootstrap server.

b)

By randomly generating IP addresses until a connection is made.

c)

By relying solely on broadcast messages to the entire network.

d)

By waiting for other peers to initiate contact.

79.

A web server log shows client IP 203.0.113.50 made requests, but the actual user is behind NAT with private IP 192.168.1.100. The application layer (HTTP) only sees the public IP. Why can't the server see the user's real IP, and what header might help?

a)

Because NAT hides the private IP; the 'X-Forwarded-For' header can help reveal the real IP.

b)

Because the server is misconfigured; the 'User-Agent' header can help reveal the real IP.

c)

Because the client is using a VPN; the 'Referer' header can help reveal the real IP.

d)

Because the server only logs public IPs; the 'Content-Type' header can help reveal the real IP.

80.

The purpose of the TTL (Time To Live) field in an IP packet is:

a)

To limit the lifetime of a packet in the network

b)

To specify the packet's destination address

c)

To indicate the protocol used in the packet

d)

To define the size of the packet

81.

A router receives a packet for destination 10.5.5.5. The routing table has: 10.0.0.0/8 via 192.168.1.1, 10.5.0.0/16 via 192.168.1.2, 10.5.5.0/24 via 192.168.1.3. Which route is selected?

a)

10.5.5.0/24 via 192.168.1.3

b)

10.0.0.0/8 via 192.168.1.1

c)

10.5.0.0/16 via 192.168.1.2

d)

192.168.1.1 via 10.0.0.0/8

82.

A default route is used in networking. What is a default route and when is it used?

a)

A default route is a route that directs packets to a gateway when no specific route is found in the routing table.

b)

A default route is a route that is used only for local network traffic.

c)

A default route is a route that blocks all outgoing traffic from a network.

d)

A default route is a route that is used only for incoming traffic.

83.

What is the difference between a routing table in a router and a routing table in a regular computer (host)?

a)

A router's routing table contains routes for forwarding packets to different networks, while a host's routing table mainly contains routes for reaching its default gateway.

b)

A router's routing table only contains local network routes, while a host's routing table contains routes for all networks.

c)

A host's routing table is used to forward packets between networks, while a router's routing table is only used for local communication.

d)

Both router and host routing tables are identical and serve the same purpose.

84.

A packet needs to travel from Network A through Router 1, Router 2, and Router 3 to reach Network B. At each router, what decision is made?

a)

The router decides which path the packet should take next.

b)

The router encrypts the packet for security.

c)

The router changes the packet's destination address.

d)

The router stores the packet for future delivery.

85.

What is the difference between directly connected and static routes in a routing table?

a)

Directly connected routes are learned automatically from interfaces, while static routes are manually configured by an administrator.

b)

Directly connected routes require manual configuration, while static routes are learned automatically.

c)

Static routes are always preferred over directly connected routes in routing decisions.

d)

Directly connected routes are used only for external networks, while static routes are used for internal networks.

86.

A client application wants to communicate with a server. What two pieces of information does the client need to reach the correct application on the server?

a)

IP address and port number

b)

Username and password

c)

MAC address and protocol

d)

Hostname and subnet mask

87.

At the transport layer, what happens when a client connects to a server running a web service on port 80?

a)

A TCP connection is established between the client and server.

b)

An HTTP request is sent directly to the server.

c)

The server assigns a new port number to the client.

d)

A UDP connection is established between the client and server.

88.

TCP provides which feature that UDP does not?

a)

Connection-oriented communication

b)

Faster data transmission

c)

Lower overhead

d)

Broadcast capability

89.

An application might choose UDP over TCP despite UDP being unreliable because:

a)

UDP offers lower latency and faster transmission for time-sensitive data.

b)

UDP guarantees reliable delivery of packets.

c)

UDP automatically corrects transmission errors.

d)

UDP provides built-in congestion control mechanisms.

90.

DNS is necessary for internet communication because:

a)

It translates domain names into IP addresses, allowing devices to locate each other on the network.

b)

It encrypts all internet traffic for secure communication.

c)

It provides wireless connectivity between devices.

d)

It stores all website data on the internet.

91.

A user types www.example.com in a browser. What is the first thing that must happen before the browser can send an HTTP request?

a)

The browser must resolve the domain name to an IP address using DNS.

b)

The browser must establish a TCP connection to the server.

c)

The browser must load the website from cache.

d)

The browser must authenticate the user.

92.

A computer has DNS server configured as 8.8.8.8. The user browses to www.example.com. The basic DNS resolution process involves:

a)

The computer sends a DNS query to 8.8.8.8, which resolves www.example.com to its IP address.

b)

The computer sends a DNS query to www.example.com, which resolves 8.8.8.8 to its IP address.

c)

The computer sends a DNS query to its local router, which always resolves the domain name.

d)

The computer sends a DNS query to 8.8.8.8, which redirects the request to another DNS server.

93.

What is the difference between a DNS recursive query and an iterative query?

a)

A DNS recursive query requires the DNS server to respond with either the requested resource record or an error, while an iterative query allows the server to refer the client to another DNS server.

b)

A DNS recursive query allows the client to refer the server to another DNS server, while an iterative query requires the server to respond with the requested resource record.

c)

A DNS recursive query is only used for internal networks, while an iterative query is used for external networks.

d)

A DNS recursive query is faster than an iterative query because it skips intermediate servers.

94.

94. A DNS A record is:

a)

a record that maps a domain name to an IPv4 address

b)

a record that maps a domain name to an IPv6 address

c)

a record that stores mail server information

d)

a record that provides alias names for domains

95.

A company's email address is user@company.com but their mail server is mail.company.com. How does a sending server know to deliver email to mail.company.com?

a)

By looking up the MX record for company.com in DNS

b)

By checking the IP address of user@company.com

c)

By using the SMTP header in the email

d)

By contacting the web server at company.com

96.

DNS caching is important because:

a)

It speeds up domain name resolution by storing previous lookups locally.

b)

It prevents all DNS attacks.

c)

It eliminates the need for DNS servers.

d)

It increases internet bandwidth usage.

97.

An HTTP GET request is used for:

a)

Retrieving data from a server

b)

Sending data to a server

c)

Deleting data from a server

d)

Updating data on a server

98.

A server responds with: HTTP/1.1 200 OK. What does the status code 200 indicate?

a)

The request was successful

b)

The server encountered an error

c)

The resource was not found

d)

The request was redirected

99.

99. HTTP status code 500 indicates:

a)

A server error occurred.

b)

The requested resource was not found.

c)

The request was successful.

d)

The client is not authorized.

100.

The difference between HTTP and HTTPS is:

a)

HTTPS is secure while HTTP is not.

b)

HTTP uses encryption while HTTPS does not.

c)

HTTP is faster than HTTPS because it is secure.

d)

HTTPS is used only for file transfers.