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Angiogram Limitations and Causes of Ischemia

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which coronary structures are visualized directly on standard angiography?

a)

Epicardial arteries luminal silhouette

b)

Capillary network perfusion map

c)

Microvascular flow heterogeneity

d)

Arteriolar resistance profiles

2.

Which statement best characterizes microcirculation in relation to angiography?

a)

Not directly seen on angiograms

b)

Always normal when angiogram is normal

c)

Dominated solely by flow stimuli

d)

Composed only of epicardial vessels

3.

Vulnerable plaque is mainly associated with which event?

a)

Endothelial cell prostacyclin rise

b)

Plaque rupture with thrombosis

c)

Capillary obstruction increase

d)

Demand ischemia without angina

4.

Persistent vasospasm can progress to which outcome?

a)

Myocardial infarction event

b)

Improved CFR response

c)

Enhanced exchange capacity

d)

Atheroma regression

5.

Microvascular dysfunction contributes to ischemia by impairing which process?

a)

Aortic valve opening and closing

b)

Coronary physiology and myocardial blood flow

c)

Pulmonary venous oxygenation

d)

Epicardial lumen visualization on angiogram

6.

Which statement reflects the continuum concept of vessel dysfunction?

a)

Microvascular damage always excludes macro disease

b)

Macro and micro levels can both be affected

c)

Vasospasm occurs only in capillaries

d)

Only epicardial disease causes ischemia

7.

Which vascular segment contributes the largest fraction of total coronary resistance?

a)

Arteriolar microcirculation

b)

Epicardial conductance vessels

c)

Capillary exchange network

d)

Large intramyocardial veins

8.

Primary function of epicardial arteries in coronary hemodynamics is best described as (a)   .

9.

Which structural change indicates microvascular remodeling linked to dysfunction?

a)

Focal atheroma formation

b)

Increased smooth muscle thickness

c)

Reduced capillary density

d)

Coronary artery remodeling

10.

Endothelial dysfunction mechanistically leads to which immediate functional effect?

a)

Augmented capillary diameter

b)

Improved EDHF responsiveness

c)

Enhanced thromboxane inhibition

d)

Impaired vasodilation capability

11.

Which mediator list aligns with impaired vasodilation in dysfunction?

a)

High coronary venous pressure

b)

Low ventricular wall tension

c)

Excess hemoglobin saturation

d)

NO, EDHF, prostacyclin deficits

12.

Which physiology measurement is listed as part of coronary testing to enable diagnosis?

a)

Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure

b)

Left Ventricular Ejection Fraction

c)

Peak Systolic Velocity (PSV)

d)

Fractional Flow Reserve (FFR)

13.

Select the guideline sources explicitly referenced for microvascular angina consensus.

a)

US Preventive Services Task Force 2018

b)

NICE Guidance 2012

c)

AHA Scientific Statement 2015

d)

ESC Guidelines 2019

14.

Which metric defines the ratio of cycle‑averaged coronary flow during maximal vasodilation to flow at rest in a stenosed segment?

a)

Index of microcirculatory resistance measure

b)

Fractional flow reserve wire procedure

c)

Coronary flow reserve ratio definition

d)

Instantaneous wave free ratio method

15.

IMR is best described as what type of measurement?

a)

Perfusion pressure distal to aorta

b)

Pressure ratio during wave‑free period

c)

Procedure measuring isolated segment flow

d)

Guidewire‑based microvascular function

16.

Fill in the blank: FFR is a (a)   procedure that measures pressure and flow through an isolated coronary segment.

17.

Which condition refers to decreased blood flow through small coronary vessels that supply oxygen to the heart?

a)

Coronary flow reserve finding

b)

Coronary microvascular dysfunction

c)

Hyperemic microvascular resistance

d)

Resting Pd/Pa perfusion ratio

18.

Which index is calculated as Pd divided by Pa during late diastole without hyperemia?

a)

Fractional flow reserve

b)

Hyperemic microvascular resistance

c)

Instantaneous wave‑free ratio

d)

Index of microcirculatory resistance

19.

A patient has preserved FFR but low CFR. What does this pattern most likely indicate?

a)

Increased hyperemic microvascular resistance

b)

Elevated epicardial stenosis severity

c)

Low resting Pd/Pa ratio

d)

Normal microcirculatory function

20.

Which metric is a resting ratio of distal coronary artery pressure to aortic pressure, assuming venous pressure is near zero?

a)

IMR

b)

CFR

c)

FFR

d)

Pd/Pa

21.

Which statement best defines hyperemic physiological measurements in coronary physiology?

a)

They measure autonomic tone in the epicardial wall

b)

They quantify venous return without arterial input

c)

They simulate stress to maximize flow and oxygen demand

d)

They assess flow at resting conditions only

22.

Which induction method is used to achieve maximal coronary hyperemia during invasive measurement?

a)

Intracoronary papaverine bolus

b)

Intramuscular dopamine injection

c)

Oral beta-blocker administration

d)

Transcutaneous nitroglycerin patch

23.

Name one intravenous agent commonly infused to induce coronary hyperemia.

(a)  

24.

Which group consists entirely of hyperemic pressure ratios?

a)

FFR, IMR, CFR, HMR

b)

iFR, DFR, Pd/Pa, RFR

c)

FFR, iFR, CFR, dPR

d)

CFR, Pd/Pa, HMR, DFR

25.

Which ratio is non-hyperemic and does not require pharmacologic vasodilation?

a)

FFR

b)

IMR

c)

iFR

d)

HMR

26.

What is the primary purpose of comparing rest and hyperemic states in coronary flow assessment?

a)

To measure coagulation activity changes

b)

To evaluate the difference in blood flow capacity

c)

To detect electrical conduction abnormalities

d)

To quantify pericardial pressure variation

27.

Which measurement is specific to the microcirculation rather than the epicardial artery?

a)

cFFR

b)

FFR

c)

IMR

d)

resting Pd/Pa

28.

Which measure applies to the entire coronary tree rather than only the epicardial artery?

a)

IMR

b)

FFR, cFFR

c)

CFR

d)

Pd/Pa, iFR, RFR

29.

Fill in the blank: Non-hyperemic pressure ratios do not induce (a)   .

30.

Which statement correctly contrasts macrovasculature and microvasculature assessment for CMD?

a)

Macrovasculature and microvasculature require identical indices

b)

Both macro- and microvasculature are assessed only with iFR

c)

Macrovasculature uses FFR; microvasculature uses IMR or HMR

d)

Macrovasculature is evaluated with IMR; microvasculature with FFR

31.

Which of the following is highlighted as requiring hyperemia in this session’s focus?

a)

FFR, CFR, IMR

b)

Pd/Pa, cFFR, iFR

c)

RFR, dPR, DFR

d)

iFR, DFR, Pd/Pa

32.

Which practical scenario best justifies using non-hyperemic ratios?

a)

When hyperemia must be avoided or is contraindicated

b)

When quantifying thermodilution-derived CFR values

c)

When assessing microcirculatory resistance during vasodilation

d)

When measuring maximum exercise capacity under stress

33.

Select the correct pairing of measure to vascular domain.

a)

FFR—microcirculation; IMR—epicardial artery

b)

IMR—microcirculation; FFR—epicardial artery

c)

CFR—epicardial artery only; iFR—entire tree

d)

Pd/Pa—microcirculation; CFR—epicardial artery

34.

Which contrast agent option is mentioned for use when standard hyperemic drugs are contraindicated?

a)

Epinephrine infusion

b)

Thermodilution saline bolus

c)

Radiopaque contrast media

d)

Carbon dioxide gas

35.

Determining CMD severity requires measurements that distinguish between the _______ and _______.

a)

macrovasculature and microvasculature

b)

arteries and veins

c)

left and right ventricles

d)

systolic and diastolic pressures

36.

Which formula defines fractional flow reserve during maximum hyperemia?

a)

Distal pressure divided by proximal pressure

b)

Proximal minus distal pressure difference

c)

Proximal pressure divided by distal pressure

d)

Distal minus proximal pressure difference

37.

FFR primarily indexes which physiologic property of the coronary circulation?

a)

Microvascular resistance at rest

b)

Collateral flow during exercise

c)

Left ventricular end-diastolic pressure

d)

Epicardial conductance under hyperemia

38.

During hyperemia induced by adenosine, which arterial segment contributes 0–10% of total resistance?

a)

Epicardial conductance arteries

b)

Terminal arteriolar network

c)

Pre-arteriolar resistance vessels

d)

Capillary meshwork and venules

39.

What does a reduced FFR value signify regarding stenosis-level obstruction?

a)

Greater physiologic obstruction of epicardial stenosis

b)

Higher distal pressure than proximal pressure

c)

Improved microvascular vasodilation capacity

d)

Lower aortic pressure during hyperemia

40.

BLANK: The pressure measured distal to a stenosis used in FFR calculation is abbreviated (a)   .

41.

BLANK: The proximal reference pressure used in FFR calculation is abbreviated (a)   .

42.

Why is FFR discussed in a module on coronary microvascular dysfunction?

a)

FFR is unaffected by microvascular tone changes

b)

FFR replaces coronary flow reserve entirely

c)

FFR directly measures microvascular resistance only

d)

Microvascular disease alters FFR-based epicardial assessment

43.

In clinical workflows for CAD or CMD, which vascular territory is typically assessed first?

a)

Pulmonary arterial circulation

b)

Coronary venous system pressures

c)

Capillary bed for diffusion defects

d)

Epicardial vessels with potential stenosis

44.

How can coexisting CMD modify ischemic patterns in obstructive CAD?

a)

Ischemia is confined strictly to stenotic segments

b)

Hyperemia eliminates all ischemia evidence

c)

Ischemia may appear in non-stenotic territories

d)

Perfusion becomes uniformly normal everywhere

45.

Which statement best explains pseudonormal FFR values in the presence of CMD?

a)

Aortic pressure is underestimated by the catheter

b)

Epicardial dilation exaggerates stenosis gradient

c)

Collateral flow overestimates Pa during exercise

d)

Microvascular dysfunction blunts hyperemia, raising Pd

46.

When CMD is present, how might FFR misrepresent stenosis severity?

a)

Always classifies lesions as hemodynamically severe

b)

Overestimates severity due to higher resistance

c)

Underestimates physiologic severity of stenosis

d)

Shows no change compared to normal microvasculature

47.

Which component of coronary physiology is most directly gauged by FFR during pharmacologic hyperemia?

a)

Stenosis-level pressure drop across epicardial lesion

b)

Absolute coronary flow in microvasculature at rest

c)

Oxygen extraction fraction in capillaries

d)

Left ventricular end-systolic wall stress

48.

A patient has obstructive CAD and CMD. What planning consideration should guide lesion assessment?

a)

Measure only Pa because Pd is unreliable

b)

Ignore CMD because FFR isolates epicardial flow

c)

Interpret FFR cautiously due to attenuated hyperemia

d)

Avoid adenosine since FFR requires resting state

49.

Which pharmacologic agent is depicted as inducing maximum hyperemia for FFR?

a)

Nitroglycerin for vasodilation

b)

Epinephrine for stress testing

c)

Adenosine as the hyperemic agent

d)

Dopamine for inotropy

50.

Which statement best describes FFRangio in clinical practice?

a)

Requires CT imaging with CFD modeling workflow

b)

Measures microvascular resistance using thermodilution

c)

Generates 3D arterial reconstruction from angiography

d)

Uses coronary pressure wire during hyperemia

51.

Fill in the blank: FFR-CT creates a three-dimensional model of the coronary vasculature using (a)   .

52.

Which core principle underlies both FFRangio and FFR-CT analyses?

a)

Estimation of pressure drop across stenosis via modeling

b)

Assumption of steady laminar flow in large arteries

c)

Measurement of collateral flow using Doppler velocity

d)

Direct invasive pressure transduction at the lesion

53.

A cath lab aims to reduce wire-based FFR. Which approach aligns with this goal while preserving physiological lesion assessment?

a)

Use resting Pd/Pa during routine coronary angiography

b)

Perform standard treadmill stress testing protocols

c)

Adopt FFRangio with angiographic 3D reconstruction

d)

Switch to IVUS for lumen area measurements

54.

A patient has CTA showing 50–70% LAD stenosis. Which next step best leverages non-invasive physiology to guide management?

a)

Proceed directly to stent implantation

b)

Order FFR-CT to estimate lesion-specific ischemia

c)

Rely on percent stenosis alone for decision

d)

Schedule invasive FFR without hyperemia

55.

Which statement best describes what Coronary Flow Reserve (CFR) integrates across the coronary circulation?

a)

Epicardial stenosis severity only

b)

Microvascular resistance changes only

c)

Combined macro- and microvascular function

d)

Capillary leukocyte activity exclusively

56.

Fill in the ratio used to calculate CFR (Flow). CFR equals (a)   divided by flow at rest.

57.

CFR measured by transit time uses which variables in its ratio?

a)

Pressure at rest and hyperemia

b)

Mean transit time at rest and hyperemia

c)

Velocity at rest and exercise

d)

Diameter at baseline and peak

58.

During hyperemia, CFR primarily increases myocardial oxygen delivery by which mechanism?

a)

Reducing venous capacitance

b)

Decreasing myocardial oxygen extraction

c)

Increasing coronary blood flow

d)

Increasing arterial oxygen content

59.

CFR can be measured in different ways. Select the two named approaches.

a)

Pressure-derived CFR

b)

Capillary density CFR

c)

Flow-based CFR

d)

Transit-time CFR

60.

Why does a mild epicardial stenosis often not reduce resting coronary flow?

a)

Epicardial arteries maintain constant pressure drop

b)

Resting flow equals maximal flow in health

c)

Resting flow is limited by microvascular resistance

d)

Collateral vessels always bypass stenosis

61.

At rest, approximately what degree of diameter reduction is typically needed to influence coronary flow rate?

a)

About 50% reduction

b)

About 100% reduction

c)

About 25% reduction

d)

About 85% reduction

62.

Which statement about CFR is accurate regarding predictive value?

a)

Weak predictor of adverse events

b)

Predictive only with microvascular disease

c)

Predictive only with epicardial disease

d)

Strong independent predictor of events

63.

Mean transit time (Tmn) measured during adenosine hyperemia corresponds to which physiologic state?

a)

Flow at maximal vasodilation

b)

Autoregulation under anemia

c)

Capillary leukocyte adhesion

d)

Basal flow at rest

64.

CFR decreases with increasing stenosis. Which limitation accompanies CFR interpretation?

a)

It is specific to microvascular disease

b)

It requires invasive pressure wires

c)

Normal reference values are unclear

d)

It ignores epicardial lesions entirely

65.

Which component of the coronary tree is affected by endothelial and smooth muscle function relevant to CFR?

a)

Epicardial veins

b)

Resistance arteries

c)

Cardiac lymphatics

d)

Pericardial vessels

66.

When calculating CFR (Flow), what procedural step must be performed to obtain the numerator?

a)

Quantify plaque composition

b)

Record diastolic pressure

c)

Induce pharmacologic hyperemia

d)

Measure flow during rest

67.

A patient has resting Tmn of 2.0 s and hyperemic Tmn of 1.0 s. What is CFR by transit time?

a)

3.0

b)

0.5

c)

1.0

d)

2.0

68.

Which pathophysiologic feature in capillaries can influence CFR according to the schematic?

a)

Pericardial pressure fluctuations

b)

Arterial stiffness over 500 μm

c)

Epicardial plaque composition exclusively

d)

Systemic inflammation and leukocyte adhesion

69.

Which variable remains relatively stable at rest despite increasing coronary stenosis due to compensatory microvascular changes?

a)

Trans-stenotic gradient rises steadily

b)

Epicardial resistance increases markedly

c)

Resting coronary flow remains stable

d)

Distal coronary pressure falls progressively

70.

As stenosis worsens, how does distal coronary pressure behave?

a)

Increases to preserve perfusion

b)

Remains unchanged at baseline

c)

Oscillates with cardiac cycle only

d)

Decreases progressively with severity

71.

Fill in the blank: Resting distal coronary perfusion pressure is intrinsically associated with the (a)   capacity of the coronary circulation.

72.

Which determinant is highlighted as critical for myocardial ischemia in non-hyperaemic conditions?

a)

Left ventricular wall stress

b)

Epicardial plaque composition

c)

Vasodilator capacity at rest

d)

Systolic blood pressure level

73.

During resting conditions, what does microvascular resistance determine?

a)

The reserve capacity to vasodilate

b)

The need for hyperaemic testing

c)

The extent of collateralization

d)

The epicardial stenosis morphology

74.

Why does microvascular resistance decrease in the presence of a coronary stenosis?

a)

To prevent distal edema formation

b)

To trigger reactive hyperemia

c)

To compensate and maintain flow

d)

To limit flow and pressure

75.

What happens to the coronary circulation’s reserve capacity as stenosis persists and compensatory vasodilation continues?

a)

It expands to meet demand

b)

It shifts to collateral pathways

c)

It remains unchanged at rest

d)

It is progressively depleted

76.

Strategic scenario: A patient has a 70% diameter stenosis under non-hyperaemic conditions. Predict the combined effect on resting flow, distal pressure, and trans-stenotic gradient.

a)

Resting flow stable, pressure falls, gradient increases

b)

Resting flow falls, pressure rises, gradient decreases

c)

Resting flow rises, pressure stable, gradient unchanged

d)

Resting flow stable, pressure rises, gradient increases

77.

Which formula expresses the Index of Microcirculatory Resistance (IMR) in its simplest form?

a)

IMR = Pd/Pv

b)

IMR = FFR × CFR

c)

IMR = Pa − Pv

d)

IMR = Pd × TmnHyp

78.

In IMR calculation, what does Pd represent?

a)

Lowest diastolic pressure

b)

Peak systolic pressure

c)

Proximal arterial pressure

d)

Venous pressure at rest

79.

During hyperemia, mean transit time is denoted as TmnHyp. What physiologic variable does shorter TmnHyp indicate?

a)

Reduced adenosine dose

b)

Higher venous pressure

c)

Lower distal pressure

d)

Higher flow at hyperemia

80.

Select the statement describing a recognized advantage of IMR compared with CFR.

a)

Directly measures venous pressure

b)

Requires no hyperemia induction

c)

More dependent on epicardial stenosis

d)

More reproducible values

81.

Complete the relationship: Resistance equals ΔPressure divided by (a)  

82.

Which pressure gradient is used when conceptualizing IMR as resistance?

a)

Pd − Pv

b)

Pa − Pd

c)

Pa − Pv

d)

Pd − Pa

83.

Flow in thermodilution during IMR assessment is inversely related to which measured quantity?

a)

Fractional flow reserve (FFR)

b)

Mean transit time (Tmn)

c)

Proximal temperature

d)

CFR ratio

84.

Identify the sensor configuration used to measure Tmn in the coronary artery during IMR assessment.

a)

External chest impedance leads

b)

Epicardial Doppler probe only

c)

Single mid-vessel pressure sensor

d)

Proximal thermistor and distal sensor

85.

IMR is considered independent of which factor that can influence CFR?

a)

Epicardial coronary artery stenosis

b)

Thermistor calibration drift

c)

Adenosine infusion rate

d)

Venous pressure variability

86.

State one clinical context where IMR has shown prognostic value.

a)

Atrial fibrillation episodes

b)

Hypertension without CAD

c)

Stable angina without ischemia

d)

ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction

87.

Which device system is shown providing practical IMR measurements alongside FFR and CFR?

a)

Portable echocardiography unit

b)

Transesophageal Doppler platform

c)

Swan-Ganz catheter console

d)

Coroventis CoroFlow cardiovascular system

88.

When interpreting IMR values, what does a higher numeric IMR generally signify?

a)

Improved coronary flow reserve

b)

Higher thermistor temperature

c)

Greater epicardial stenosis

d)

Greater microvascular resistance

89.

A patient has Pd of 80 mmHg and TmnHyp of 0.30 seconds. Calculate IMR using the simple formula.

a)

32 units

b)

24 units

c)

26 units

d)

30 units

90.

Which statement best distinguishes CFR from IMR?

a)

IMR depends on epicardial stenosis grade

b)

CFR equals Pd times TmnHyp

c)

IMR is calculated as flow ratio at rest

d)

CFR reflects flow reserve of the whole vessel

91.

During hyperemia induced with adenosine, the arrow labeled A to B represents what in the schematic?

a)

Electrical signal propagation speed

b)

Time as flow at hyperemia

c)

Pressure drop across stenosis

d)

Temperature increase along vessel

92.

Which statement best describes the procedural efficiency of measuring fractional flow reserve (FFR) and index of microcirculatory resistance (IMR) during invasive coronary assessment?

a)

They can be measured simultaneously in under five minutes

b)

They need noninvasive imaging and overnight monitoring

c)

They require separate catheters and over 30 minutes

d)

They must be staged across two different procedures

93.

Fill in the blank: Routine IMR measurement in European centers of excellence occurs in approximately (a)   of centers for daily clinical decision making.

94.

A patient presents with suspected ischemia without clear epicardial stenosis. How should simultaneous FFR and IMR inform next steps?

a)

Use FFR and IMR together to decide on revascularization benefit

b)

Proceed directly to epicardial revascularization without physiology

c)

Delay invasive assessment until noninvasive tests return

d)

Rely on symptoms alone to guide microvascular therapy

95.

In the diagnostic framework, which combination indicates predominantly microvascular disease?

a)

High IMR with high FFR

b)

Low IMR with low FFR

c)

High IMR with low FFR

d)

Low IMR with high FFR

96.

A vessel shows low FFR and normal IMR. What condition is most consistent with this pattern?

a)

Macrovascular disease

b)

Mixed coronary disease

c)

Adequate vascular function

d)

Microvascular disease

97.

A patient post-PCI develops angina. Which FFR–IMR pattern best flags risk for post-PCI angina?

a)

High FFR with high IMR

b)

High IMR with low FFR

c)

Low IMR with high FFR

d)

Low FFR with low IMR

98.

Complete the statement: High IMR combined with low FFR suggests (a)   .