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EN-PR1

Total questions: 141

Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Area of biology concerned with the phenomenon of dependence of one living organism with another living organism
a)
Parasitology
b)
Medical parasitology
c)
Protozoology
d)
Helminthology
2.
Study of protozoans (unicellular organisms)
a)
Parasitology
b)
Medical parasitology
c)
Protozoology
d)
Helminthology
3.
Study of helminths (multicellular organisms)
a)
Parasitology
b)
Medical parasitology
c)
Protozoology
d)
Helminthology
4.
Study of insects and arthropods that are of medical importance
a)
Medical entomology
b)
Tropical medicine
5.
Deals with tropical diseases and other medical problems of tropical regions
a)
Medical entomology
b)
Tropical medicine
6.
Living together of phylogenetically different organisms
a)
Symbiosis
b)
Mutualism
c)
Commensalism
d)
Parasitism
7.
Beneficial to both organisms
a)
Symbiosis
b)
Mutualism
c)
Commensalism
d)
Parasitism
8.
One organism gains benefit while the other organism neither benefit nor is harmed
a)
Symbiosis
b)
Mutualism
c)
Commensalism
d)
Parasitism
9.
One organism benefits at the expense of the other
a)
Symbiosis
b)
Mutualism
c)
Commensalism
d)
Parasitism
10.
Lives inside the body of a host
a)
Endoparasite
b)
Ectoparasite
c)
Intermittent
d)
Obligate
11.
Infection indicates the presence of ________ in a host
a)
Endoparasite
b)
Ectoparasite
c)
Intermittent
d)
Obligate
12.
Lives outside the body (body surfaces) of a host
a)
Endoparasite
b)
Ectoparasite
c)
Intermittent
d)
Obligate
13.
Infestation indicates the presence of ____ on a host
a)
Endoparasite
b)
Ectoparasite
c)
Intermittent
d)
Obligate
14.
Visits the host only during feeding time
a)
Endoparasite
b)
Ectoparasite
c)
Intermittent
d)
Obligate
15.
Depends entirely upon its host for existence; cannot live outside of a host
a)
Endoparasite
b)
Ectoparasite
c)
Intermittent
d)
Obligate
16.
Capable of living independently outside of a host
a)
Facultative
b)
Accidental
c)
Erratic
d)
Zoonotic
17.
Occurs in an unusual host
a)
Facultative
b)
Accidental
c)
Erratic
d)
Zoonotic
18.
Occurs in an unusual organ or habitat
a)
Facultative
b)
Accidental
c)
Erratic
d)
Zoonotic
19.
Primarily infects animals and may be acquired by man
a)
Facultative
b)
Accidental
c)
Erratic
d)
Zoonotic
20.
Parasites wherein the span of its life cycle will happen in different hosts
a)
Temporary parasitism
b)
Permanent parasitism
21.
Parasites wherein all of its life cycle will happen only within a single host
a)
Temporary parasitism
b)
Permanent parasitism
22.
Parasites that pass the gastrointestinal tract without infecting or causing harm to the host
a)
Spurious
b)
Hematozoic
c)
Cytozoic
d)
Coelozoic
e)
Enterozoic
23.
Parasites found in blood
a)
Spurious
b)
Hematozoic
c)
Cytozoic
d)
Coelozoic
e)
Enterozoic
24.
Parasites found in cells
a)
Spurious
b)
Hematozoic
c)
Cytozoic
d)
Coelozoic
e)
Enterozoic
25.
Parasites found in body cavities
a)
Spurious
b)
Hematozoic
c)
Cytozoic
d)
Coelozoic
e)
Enterozoic
26.
Parasites found within gastrointestinal tract
a)
Spurious
b)
Hematozoic
c)
Cytozoic
d)
Coelozoic
e)
Enterozoic
27.
Harbors the adult or sexual stage of a parasite
a)
Definitive or final host
b)
Intermediate host
c)
Paratenic host
d)
Reservoir host
28.
Cat serves as the ____ of T. gondii
a)
Definitive or final host
b)
Intermediate host
c)
Paratenic host
d)
Reservoir host
29.
Harbors larval or asexual stage of a parasite
a)
Definitive or final host
b)
Intermediate host
c)
Paratenic host
d)
Reservoir host
30.
Snail serves as the __ of trematodes or flukes
a)
Definitive or final host
b)
Intermediate host
c)
Paratenic host
d)
Reservoir host
31.
Harbors a parasite that does not develop into final stage but remains alive and is infective to the next host
a)
Definitive or final host
b)
Intermediate host
c)
Paratenic host
d)
Reservoir host
32.
Large fish serves as the __ of D. latum
a)
Definitive or final host
b)
Intermediate host
c)
Paratenic host
d)
Reservoir host
33.
Allows the parasite’s life cycle to continue and serves as a source of human infection
a)
Definitive or final host
b)
Intermediate host
c)
Paratenic host
d)
Reservoir host
34.
Pigs serves as the __ of B. coli
a)
Definitive or final host
b)
Intermediate host
c)
Paratenic host
d)
Reservoir host
35.
Transmits a parasite only after the latter has completed part of its development
a)
Biologic host
b)
Mechanical or phoretic host
36.
Responsible only for transporting the parasite through appendages
a)
Biologic host
b)
Mechanical or phoretic host
37.
Deals primarily with clinically significant parasites which are capable of causing a disease or infection to the host
a)
Parasitology
b)
Medical parasitology
c)
Protozoology
d)
Helminthology
38.
Study of patterns, distribution, and occurrence of disease
a)
Epidemiology
b)
Incidence
c)
Prevalence
d)
Intensity of infection or worm burden
39.
Number of individuals in a population estimated to be infected with a particular parasite (Old + new cases)
a)
Epidemiology
b)
Incidence
c)
Prevalence
d)
Intensity of infection or worm burden
40.
Number of worms per infected person
a)
Epidemiology
b)
Incidence
c)
Prevalence
d)
Intensity of infection or worm burden
41.
: Use of anti-helminthic/parasitic drug in a public health program
a)
Deworming
b)
Eradication
c)
Elimination
42.
Permanent reduction to zero of the incidence of infection worldwide
a)
Deworming
b)
Eradication
c)
Elimination
43.
Reduction to zero of the incidence of infection in a specific region or geographical area
a)
Deworming
b)
Eradication
c)
Elimination
44.
Female cell within uterus
a)
Ova
b)
Embryo
c)
Egg
45.
Early developing stage
a)
Ova
b)
Embryo
c)
Egg
46.
Female cell outside uterus
a)
Ova
b)
Embryo
c)
Egg
47.
Motile, feeding stage of protozoan
a)
Larvae
b)
Trophozoite
c)
Cyst
48.
Active stage of parasites
a)
Larvae
b)
Trophozoite
c)
Cyst
49.
Non-motile, non-feeding stage of protozoan
a)
Larvae
b)
Trophozoite
c)
Cyst
50.
Number of new cases of infection
a)
Epidemiology
b)
Incidence
c)
Prevalence
d)
Intensity of infection or worm burden
51.
Parasite that do not lay eggs but instead produce fully developed larvae
a)
Viviparous
b)
Ovo-viviparous
c)
Oviparous
52.
Parasite that produce unembryonated eggs that undergo external embryonation
a)
Viviparous
b)
Ovo-viviparous
c)
Oviparous
53.
Male sex cell of malarial parasite
a)
Microgametocyte
b)
Macrogametocyte
c)
Sporogony
d)
Schizogony
54.
Female sex cell of malarial parasite
a)
Microgametocyte
b)
Macrogametocyte
c)
Sporogony
d)
Schizogony
55.
Sexual reproduction of malarial parasite, takes place in mosquito
a)
Microgametocyte
b)
Macrogametocyte
c)
Sporogony
d)
Schizogony
56.
Asexual reproduction of malarial parasite, takes place in man
a)
Microgametocyte
b)
Macrogametocyte
c)
Sporogony
d)
Schizogony
57.
Trophozoite into cyst
a)
Encystation
b)
Excystation
58.
Cyst emerges into trophozoite
a)
Encystation
b)
Excystation
59.
Disease which is constant in a community
a)
Endemic
b)
Epidemic
c)
Pandemic
60.
Outbreak of a disease affecting a wide area
a)
Endemic
b)
Epidemic
c)
Pandemic
61.
Worldwide epidemic
a)
Endemic
b)
Epidemic
c)
Pandemic
62.
Amebae and flagellates
a)
Phylum Sarcomastigophora
b)
Phylum Ciliophora
c)
Phylum Apicomplexa
63.
Balantidium coli, Paramecium spp.
a)
Phylum Sarcomastigophora
b)
Phylum Ciliophora
c)
Phylum Apicomplexa
64.
Sporozoans or coccidians
a)
Phylum Sarcomastigophora
b)
Phylum Ciliophora
c)
Phylum Apicomplexa
65.
Nematodes (roundworms)
a)
Phylum Nemathelminthes
b)
Phylum Platyhelminthes
66.
Trematodes (flukes) and cestodes (tapeworms)
a)
Phylum Nemathelminthes
b)
Phylum Platyhelminthes
67.
Ticks, mites, chiggers
a)
Class Arachnida
b)
Class Insecta
c)
Class Crustacea
68.
Lice, fleas, cockroaches, bugs, beetles, flies, mosquitoes, midges
a)
Class Arachnida
b)
Class Insecta
c)
Class Crustacea
69.
: Crabs, crayfish, copepods
a)
Class Arachnida
b)
Class Insecta
c)
Class Crustacea
70.
: Parasite that produce fully developed embryonated eggs
a)
Viviparous
b)
Ovo-viviparous
c)
Oviparous
71.
Acceptable amount of watery stool
a)
1 to 3 g
b)
2 to 5 g
c)
5 to 6 g
d)
1 to 3 tbsp
e)
5 to 6 tbsp
72.
Acceptable amount of formed stool
a)
1 to 3 g
b)
2 to 5 g
c)
5 to 6 g
d)
1 to 3 tbsp
e)
5 to 6 tbsp
73.
Liquid stool should be examined within
a)
30 minutes
b)
1 hour
c)
2 hours
d)
3 hours
74.
Specimen must be fixed in the preservative for at least ____ before processing
a)
30 minutes
b)
1 hour
c)
2 hours
d)
3 hours
75.
Ova and parasite samples collected ___ in 10 days (intermittently)
a)
1 sample
b)
2 samples
c)
3 samples
d)
4 samples
e)
6 samples
76.
Diagnosis of amebiasis involves collecting __ in 14 days
a)
1 sample
b)
2 samples
c)
3 samples
d)
4 samples
e)
6 samples
77.
Diagnosis of amebiasis involves collecting 6 samples for how many days?
a)
7 to 10 days
b)
10 days
c)
14 days
d)
2 to 3 weeks
e)
3 weeks
78.
Ova and parasite samples collected: 3 samples for how many days?
a)
7 to 10 days
b)
10 days
c)
14 days
d)
2 to 3 weeks
e)
3 weeks
79.
Refrain from taking the ff if you're going to have fecalysis: Antacids, kaolin, oil materials, anti-diarrheals, bismuth for how long?
a)
7 to 10 days
b)
10 days
c)
14 days
d)
2 to 3 weeks
e)
3 weeks
80.
Refrain from taking the ff if you're going to have fecalysis: antimicrobial agents for how long?
a)
7 to 10 days
b)
10 days
c)
14 days
d)
2 to 3 weeks
e)
3 weeks
81.
Refrain from taking the ff if you're going to have fecalysis: gallbladder dyes for how long?
a)
7 to 10 days
b)
10 days
c)
14 days
d)
2 to 3 weeks
e)
3 weeks
82.
Soft or semi-formed stool should be examined within
a)
30 minutes
b)
1 hour
c)
2 hours
d)
3 hours
83.
Formed stool can be held for
a)
12 hours
b)
24 hours
c)
48 hours
d)
72 hours
84.
What can you find in a watery stool?
a)
Cyst
b)
Trophozoite
85.
What can you find in a formed stool?
a)
Cyst
b)
Trophozoite
86.
What is the fixative to stool ratio?
a)
1:1
b)
2:1
c)
3:1
d)
1:3
e)
1:2
87.
All-purpose fixative
a)
Formalin
b)
Merthiolate-iodine-formalin (MIF)
c)
Schaudinn's solution
88.
Very useful for field surveys
a)
Formalin
b)
Merthiolate-iodine-formalin (MIF)
c)
Schaudinn's solution
89.
Provides fixation of intestinal protozoan, helminth eggs and larvae
a)
Formalin
b)
Merthiolate-iodine-formalin (MIF)
c)
Schaudinn's solution
90.
Iodine component should always be fresh because it is unstable (interferes with other stains and fluorescence; causes distortion of protozoans)
a)
Formalin
b)
Merthiolate-iodine-formalin (MIF)
c)
Schaudinn's solution
91.
Considered as the “gold standard”
a)
Formalin
b)
Merthiolate-iodine-formalin (MIF)
c)
Schaudinn's solution
92.
Provides excellent preservation of protozoan trophozoites and cysts
a)
Formalin
b)
Merthiolate-iodine-formalin (MIF)
c)
Schaudinn's solution
93.
Contains mercuric chloride (highly toxic to humans)
a)
Formalin
b)
Merthiolate-iodine-formalin (MIF)
c)
Schaudinn's solution
94.
Plastic resin that serves to adhere stool sample onto a slide (both preserves and makes organisms adhere to slides)
a)
Polyvinyl alcohol (PVA)
b)
Modified Polyvinyl alcohol
c)
Sodium Acetate Formalin (SAF)
d)
Universal fixative (TOTAL-FIX)
95.
Provides good preservation of protozoan trophozoites and cysts
a)
Polyvinyl alcohol (PVA)
b)
Modified Polyvinyl alcohol
c)
Sodium Acetate Formalin (SAF)
d)
Universal fixative (TOTAL-FIX)
96.
Uses mercuric chloride
a)
Polyvinyl alcohol (PVA)
b)
Modified Polyvinyl alcohol
c)
Sodium Acetate Formalin (SAF)
d)
Universal fixative (TOTAL-FIX)
97.
Eco-friendly fixative
a)
Polyvinyl alcohol (PVA)
b)
Modified Polyvinyl alcohol
c)
Sodium Acetate Formalin (SAF)
d)
Universal fixative (TOTAL-FIX)
98.
Used for concentration technique and permanent stained smear only
a)
Polyvinyl alcohol (PVA)
b)
Modified Polyvinyl alcohol
c)
Sodium Acetate Formalin (SAF)
d)
Universal fixative (TOTAL-FIX)
99.
Staining is not consistent; provides poor morphology
a)
Polyvinyl alcohol (PVA)
b)
Modified Polyvinyl alcohol
c)
Sodium Acetate Formalin (SAF)
d)
Universal fixative (TOTAL-FIX)
100.
Liquid fixative with a long shelf-life
a)
Polyvinyl alcohol (PVA)
b)
Modified Polyvinyl alcohol
c)
Sodium Acetate Formalin (SAF)
d)
Universal fixative (TOTAL-FIX)
101.
Used for concentration technique, permanent stained smear, can be used for staining with modified acid-fast stain to detect coccidian oocyst, and immunoassay
a)
Polyvinyl alcohol (PVA)
b)
Modified Polyvinyl alcohol
c)
Sodium Acetate Formalin (SAF)
d)
Universal fixative (TOTAL-FIX)
102.
Images are not as sharp after staining
a)
Polyvinyl alcohol (PVA)
b)
Modified Polyvinyl alcohol
c)
Sodium Acetate Formalin (SAF)
d)
Universal fixative (TOTAL-FIX)
103.
A single vial system that provides a standardized method for untrained personnel to properly collect and preserve stool specimens for the detection of helminth larvae and eggs, protozoan trophozoite
a)
Polyvinyl alcohol (PVA)
b)
Modified Polyvinyl alcohol
c)
Sodium Acetate Formalin (SAF)
d)
Universal fixative (TOTAL-FIX)
104.
Does not contain mercury compounds, does not contain formalin
a)
Polyvinyl alcohol (PVA)
b)
Modified Polyvinyl alcohol
c)
Sodium Acetate Formalin (SAF)
d)
Universal fixative (TOTAL-FIX)
105.
Does not contain mercuric chloride (substitute: copper sulfate or zinc sulfate)
a)
Polyvinyl alcohol (PVA)
b)
Modified Polyvinyl alcohol
c)
Sodium Acetate Formalin (SAF)
d)
Universal fixative (TOTAL-FIX)
106.
Which component of MIF serves as staining agent?
a)
Merthiolate and iodine
b)
Formalin
c)
Either
d)
Neither
107.
Which component of MIF serves as preservative that both fixes and stains the organism?
a)
Merthiolate and iodine
b)
Formalin
c)
Either
d)
Neither
108.
Routinely used for direct examinations and concentration, but not for permanent stained smear
a)
Formalin
b)
Merthiolate-iodine-formalin (MIF)
c)
Schaudinn's solution
109.
Formalin concentration used for protozoan cysts:
a)
1% concentration or 0.01%
b)
3% concentration or 0.03%
c)
5% concentration or 0.05%
d)
10% concentration or 0.1%
110.
Formalin concentration used for helminth eggs and larvae:
a)
1% concentration or 0.01%
b)
3% concentration or 0.03%
c)
5% concentration or 0.05%
d)
10% concentration or 0.1%
111.
Type of blood that is best for demonstrating blood parasites:
a)
Venous blood
b)
Capillary blood
c)
Arterial blood
d)
Any of the choices
112.
Avoid use of anticoagulated blood. If EDTA blood is used, specimen must be processed within:
a)
30 minutes
b)
1 hour
c)
Either
d)
Neither
113.
Timing of collection for malarial spp.
a)
Before the next anticipated fever spike
b)
Depends on the periodicity
114.
Timing of collection for filarial spp.
a)
Before the next anticipated fever spike
b)
Depends on the periodicity
115.
Useful in demonstration of: T. vaginalis trophozoites
a)
Urine
b)
Sputum
c)
CSF
d)
Eye specimens
e)
Nasal discharge
116.
Useful in demonstration of: N. fowleri
a)
Urine
b)
Sputum
c)
CSF
d)
Eye specimens
e)
Nasal discharge
117.
Useful in demonstration of: S. haematobium eggs
a)
Urine
b)
Sputum
c)
CSF
d)
Eye specimens
e)
Nasal discharge
118.
Useful in demonstration of: P. westermani eggs
a)
Urine
b)
Sputum
c)
CSF
d)
Eye specimens
e)
Nasal discharge
119.
Useful in demonstration of: E. histolytica trophozoites (in cases of pulmonary abscess)
a)
Urine
b)
Sputum
c)
CSF
d)
Eye specimens
e)
Nasal discharge
120.
Useful in demonstration of: migrating larvae of Ascaris, Strongyloides and Hookworms
a)
Urine
b)
Sputum
c)
CSF
d)
Eye specimens
e)
Nasal discharge
121.
Useful in demonstration of: Naegleria and Acanthamoeba trophozoites
a)
Urine
b)
Sputum
c)
CSF
d)
Eye specimens
e)
Nasal discharge
122.
Useful in demonstration of: Trypanosoma spp
a)
Urine
b)
Sputum
c)
CSF
d)
Eye specimens
e)
Nasal discharge
123.
Useful in demonstration of: T. gondii
a)
Urine
b)
Sputum
c)
CSF
d)
Eye specimens
e)
Nasal discharge
124.
Useful in demonstration of: T. solium cysticercus larvae
a)
Urine
b)
Sputum
c)
CSF
d)
Eye specimens
e)
Nasal discharge
125.
Useful in demonstration of: Echinococcus spp.
a)
Urine
b)
Sputum
c)
CSF
d)
Eye specimens
e)
Nasal discharge
126.
Useful in demonstration of: A. keratitis
a)
Urine
b)
Sputum
c)
CSF
d)
Eye specimens
e)
Nasal discharge
127.
Useful in demonstration of: Loa loa
a)
Urine
b)
Sputum
c)
CSF
d)
Eye specimens
e)
Nasal discharge
128.
Useful in demonstration of: Panstrongylus larvae
a)
Urine
b)
Sputum
c)
CSF
d)
Eye specimens
e)
Nasal discharge
129.
Useful in demonstration of: Microsporidia
a)
Urine
b)
Sputum
c)
CSF
d)
Eye specimens
e)
Nasal discharge
130.
Useful in demonstration of: W. bancrofti adult (in cases of hydrocoele)
a)
Urine
b)
Sputum
c)
CSF
d)
Eye specimens
e)
Nasal discharge
131.
Useful in demonstration of: O. volvulus
a)
Tissue aspirate
b)
Muscle biopsy
c)
Rectal biopsy
d)
Skin biopsy or skin snips
132.
Useful in demonstration of: Mansonella spp.
a)
Tissue aspirate
b)
Muscle biopsy
c)
Rectal biopsy
d)
Skin biopsy or skin snips
133.
Useful in demonstration of: S. japonicum
a)
Tissue aspirate
b)
Muscle biopsy
c)
Rectal biopsy
d)
Skin biopsy or skin snips
134.
Useful in demonstration of: S. mansoni
a)
Tissue aspirate
b)
Muscle biopsy
c)
Rectal biopsy
d)
Skin biopsy or skin snips
135.
Useful in demonstration of: T. spiralis
a)
Tissue aspirate
b)
Muscle biopsy
c)
Rectal biopsy
d)
Skin biopsy or skin snips
136.
Useful in demonstration of: T. solium
a)
Tissue aspirate
b)
Muscle biopsy
c)
Rectal biopsy
d)
Skin biopsy or skin snips
137.
Useful in demonstration of: Spirometra spp.
a)
Tissue aspirate
b)
Muscle biopsy
c)
Rectal biopsy
d)
Skin biopsy or skin snips
138.
Useful in demonstration of: E. histolytica
a)
Tissue aspirate
b)
Muscle biopsy
c)
Rectal biopsy
d)
Skin biopsy or skin snips
139.
Useful in demonstration of: Echinococcus hydatid cyst
a)
Tissue aspirate
b)
Muscle biopsy
c)
Rectal biopsy
d)
Skin biopsy or skin snips
140.
Useful in demonstration of: Leishmania
a)
Tissue aspirate
b)
Muscle biopsy
c)
Rectal biopsy
d)
Skin biopsy or skin snips
141.
Useful in demonstration of: T. gondii
a)
Tissue aspirate
b)
Muscle biopsy
c)
Rectal biopsy
d)
Skin biopsy or skin snips