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Marketing and Marketing Information Systems — Grade 12 Worksheet

Total questions: 148

Worksheet time: 1hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Marketing is the process by which companies create value for customers and build strong customer relationships in order to ________.

a)

develop new products

b)

capture value from customers in return

c)

increase production efficiency

d)

improve supply chain systems

2.

Which of the following best defines needs?

a)

Desires for specific products

b)

States of felt deprivation

c)

Human wants backed by buying power

d)

Preferences shaped by culture

3.

When human wants are backed by buying power, they become ________.

a)

needs

b)

demands

c)

expectations

d)

desires

4.

According to the marketing concept, the key to achieving organizational goals is to ________.

a)

improve production efficiency

b)

focus on short-term sales growth

c)

determine the needs and wants of target markets and deliver satisfaction

d)

increase advertising budgets

5.

Which of the following represents the market offering?

a)

Only tangible products

b)

Combination of products, services, information, or experiences offered to satisfy a need or want

c)

Only services and experiences

d)

Sales promotion activities

6.

Focusing more on specific products than on the benefits and experiences they produce is called ________.

a)

marketing myopia

b)

product orientation

c)

production concept

d)

selling orientation

7.

The act of obtaining a desired object from someone by offering something in return is called ________.

a)

value creation

b)

exchange

c)

transaction

d)

negotiation

8.

A market consists of ________.

a)

sellers who offer goods and services

b)

a group of suppliers

c)

actual and potential buyers of a product or service

d)

retailers and wholesalers

9.

Customer-perceived value is defined as ________.

a)

the difference between total customer benefits and total customer cost

b)

the total monetary value of a product

c)

the product’s performance versus competitors

d)

the emotional attachment to a brand

10.

Customer satisfaction is the extent to which ________.

a)

customer expectations match perceived performance

b)

company profits exceed costs

c)

customers pay premium prices

d)

customer loyalty increases

11.

The overall process of building and maintaining profitable customer relationships by delivering superior customer value and satisfaction is called ________.

a)

marketing management

b)

customer relationship management

c)

partner relationship management

d)

market segmentation

12.

Customer engagement marketing focuses on ________.

a)

one-way communication from brand to consumer

b)

hard-sell tactics

c)

direct and continuous customer involvement in shaping brand conversations and experiences

d)

reducing marketing costs

13.

The value of the entire stream of purchases that a customer would make over a lifetime of patronage is called ________.

a)

customer lifetime value

b)

share of customer

c)

customer equity

d)

brand loyalty

14.

The portion of a customer’s purchasing that a company gets in its product categories is known as ________.

a)

market share

b)

share of customer

c)

customer equity

d)

retention rate

15.

The total combined customer lifetime values of all the company’s customers is called ________.

a)

customer equity

b)

market capitalization

c)

customer loyalty

d)

brand value

16.

Which of the following best describes digital marketing?

a)

Marketing conducted through physical retail stores only

b)

Using digital tools such as websites, apps, social media, and email to engage consumers

c)

Marketing through traditional TV and print media

d)

Offline relationship marketing

17.

The concept of marketing myopia warns marketers against ________.

a)

underpricing their products

b)

focusing too much on customer needs

c)

paying more attention to specific products than to benefits and experiences

d)

ignoring competitor actions

18.

Which of the following is NOT part of the modern marketing process?

a)

Understanding the marketplace and customer needs

b)

Designing a customer value-driven marketing strategy

c)

Building profitable relationships and creating customer delight

d)

Focusing on production efficiency only

19.

Which statement about sustainable marketing is true?

a)

It focuses only on maximizing profit

b)

It emphasizes short-term sales

c)

It involves social and environmental responsibility

d)

It discourages corporate ethics

20.

Which of the following best describes partner relationship management?

a)

Hiring marketing consultants

b)

Working closely with partners inside and outside the company to jointly bring greater value to customers

c)

Managing only supplier relationships

d)

Reducing relationships with competitors

21.

What is the primary purpose of marketing information?

a)

To increase product prices

b)

To gain customer insights

c)

To reduce employee turnover

d)

To design production schedules

22.

Big data refers to:

a)

Small datasets updated frequently

b)

Huge and complex data sets generated by modern technologies

c)

Only customer complaints

d)

Data collected solely from surveys

23.

A Marketing Information System (MIS) provides information to:

a)

Only the marketing department

b)

Managers and external partners

c)

Only financial analysts

d)

Only the CEO

24.

Internal databases are:

a)

Data collected outside the company

b)

Collections of consumer and market information from within the company

c)

Purchased information from competitors

d)

Government reports

25.

Competitive marketing intelligence involves:

a)

Tracking financial records

b)

Systematic collection of publicly available information about competitors and the environment

c)

Tracking employee performance

d)

Buying private data

26.

The first step of the marketing research process is:

a)

Interpreting findings

b)

Collecting data

c)

Defining the problem and research objectives

d)

Choosing sample size

27.

Exploratory research aims to:

a)

Describe market characteristics

b)

Test cause-and-effect hypotheses

c)

Gather preliminary information to define problems

d)

Measure brand loyalty

28.

Descriptive research is used to:

a)

Explore unknown topics

b)

Describe market characteristics such as demographics

c)

Determine the advertising budget

d)

Test hypotheses in labs

29.

Causal research focuses on:

a)

Relationships between variables

b)

Understanding consumer emotions

c)

Testing cause-and-effect relationships

d)

Observing real-life behavior only

30.

Secondary data refers to:

a)

Data collected first-hand for the current research

b)

Data already existing and collected for another purpose

c)

Data from experiments

d)

Real-time sales data

31.

A main advantage of secondary data is:

a)

Always highly accurate

b)

Low cost and quick availability

c)

Always up-to-date

d)

Always impartial

32.

Observational research involves:

a)

Asking consumers survey questions

b)

Conducting experiments

c)

Watching people, actions, and situations

d)

Running focus groups

33.

Ethnographic research involves:

a)

Observing consumers in their natural environment

b)

Collecting sales reports

c)

Conducting only online surveys

d)

Interviewing managers

34.

Survey research is best for:

a)

Understanding feelings and emotions

b)

Asking questions about attitudes, behaviors, and preferences

c)

Testing causality

d)

Capturing hidden emotions through sensors

35.

A focus group is a form of:

a)

Experiment

b)

Individual observation

c)

Group interviewing

d)

Panel data collection

36.

Experimental research aims to:

a)

Collect descriptive data

b)

Understand correlations

c)

Analyze behavioral tracking

d)

Identify cause-and-effect relationships

37.

Online behavioral targeting means:

a)

Targeting employees based on performance

b)

Using financial data to target investors

c)

Tracking online behavior to personalize marketing

d)

Designing offline promotions

38.

A sampling unit answers the question:

a)

How many people to survey

b)

Who should be surveyed

c)

What questions should be asked

d)

How to analyze data

39.

The sample size refers to:

a)

Who to study

b)

How many people to include in the study

c)

The number of questions

d)

The number of research objectives

40.

The final step of the marketing research process is:

a)

Collecting data

b)

Designing questionnaires

c)

Interpreting and reporting the findings

d)

Choosing research approaches

41.

Which of the following best explains why “big data” is not necessarily “better data”?

a)

It cannot be used for marketing analytics

b)

It is often cheap but unreliable

c)

Large volume does not guarantee useful customer insights

d)

It is always biased

42.

A company using real-time social media dashboards to identify trending complaints is practicing:

a)

Internal database analysis

b)

Exploratory research

c)

Competitive marketing intelligence

d)

Secondary data mining

43.

Which of the following is a limitation of internal databases?

a)

They are difficult to store

b)

They often contain incomplete or outdated information

c)

They rely solely on external sources

d)

They cannot support decision making

44.

A research objective aiming to “understand why customers abandon their carts” most likely requires:

a)

Descriptive research

b)

Causal research

c)

Exploratory research

d)

Secondary research

45.

A test that compares two versions of a website landing page (A/B test) is an example of:

a)

Survey research

b)

Experimental research

c)

Observational research

d)

Focus group interviewing

46.

The greatest risk in using secondary data for decision-making is

a)

It is too expensive

b)

It may not be relevant or current

c)

It always requires large sample sizes

d)

It cannot be quantified

47.

Which primary data approach is most useful for identifying unconscious or hidden customer motivations?

a)

Surveys

b)

Experimental research

c)

Ethnographic research

d)

Online panels

48.

Focus groups are weak for decision making mainly because

a)

Participants are too diverse

b)

Results cannot be generalized to large populations

c)

The cost is low

d)

They do not allow group interaction

49.

Behavioral targeting becomes problematic when marketers

a)

Use customer actions to personalize offerings

b)

Rely on demographic segmentation

c)

Track user behavior without transparency or permission

d)

Use cookies for website improvement

50.

Which sampling method gives every member of the population an equal chance of being selected?

a)

Convenience sampling

b)

Judgment sampling

c)

Quota sampling

d)

Simple random sampling

51.

Which example best represents “marketing intelligence” rather than “marketing research”?

a)

Running a survey to collect feedback

b)

Observing competitor price changes weekly

c)

Conducting experiments on packaging

d)

Performing in-depth interviews

52.

If a company wants to measure “brand attitude” numerically, which instrument is most appropriate?

a)

Open-ended interview

b)

Semantic differential scale

c)

Observational notes

d)

Ethnographic diary

53.

The biggest advantage of online survey panels is

a)

Lower interviewer bias

b)

Higher external validity

c)

Guaranteed honesty

d)

More accurate sampling frames

54.

A researcher wants to compare three advertising messages across three matched consumer groups. Which research approach fits best?

a)

Descriptive research

b)

Experimental research

c)

Exploratory research

d)

Intelligence gathering

55.

When designing a questionnaire, a leading question may result in

a)

Increased response rate

b)

Improved accuracy

c)

Biased responses

d)

Faster data processing

56.

Which situation requires causal research rather than descriptive research?

a)

Profiling typical customer segments

b)

Understanding how price changes affect sales

c)

Measuring customer satisfaction levels

d)

Describing consumer demographics

57.

A company using loyalty card data to predict future purchases is using

a)

Exploratory research

b)

Predictive analytics within internal databases

c)

Focus group data

d)

Ethnographic insights

58.

The greatest operational challenge in managing a Marketing Information System (MIS) is

a)

Integrating data from multiple sources

b)

Training the finance team

c)

Collecting only secondary data

d)

Eliminating all forms of customer data

59.

Which contact method LEAST suitable for sensitive topics?

a)

Online surveys

b)

Anonymous questionnaires

c)

Face-to-face interviews

d)

Email surveys

60.

If research shows that insights are not being used effectively by managers, the problem lies primarily in

a)

Data collection

b)

Data quality

c)

The Marketing Information Ecosystem's application process

d)

Sample design

61.

The marketing environment refers to

a)

Internal company data only

b)

Forces outside marketing that affect customer relationships

c)

Only competitors

d)

Only consumer markets

62.

The microenvironment includes

a)

Technology

b)

Cultural trends

c)

Suppliers, competitors, publics

d)

Natural resources

63.

Which of the following is part of the company’s internal environment?

a)

Government agencies

b)

Resellers

c)

Finance and R&D departments

d)

International markets

64.

Marketing intermediaries help a company

a)

Manufacture products

b)

Distribute, promote, and sell to buyers

c)

Hire employees

d)

Reduce taxes

65.

Competitors must be analyzed because

a)

They supply raw materials

b)

They affect customer value and strategic positioning

c)

They regulate marketing practices

66.

Publics include:

a)

Only local communities

b)

Any group interested in or impacted by the company

c)

Only shareholders

d)

Only government

67.

Demography is the study of:

a)

Product pricing

b)

Human populations

c)

Economic cycles

d)

Social media behavior

68.

Baby Boomers, Gen X, Gen Y, Gen Z are examples of:

a)

Cultural trends

b)

Generational segments

c)

Political groups

d)

Competitor types

69.

The natural environment concerns:

a)

Competitor strategies

b)

Population age

c)

Raw materials, pollution, sustainability

d)

Advertising spending

70.

The technological environment includes:

a)

Digital innovations and new product technologies

b)

Retail store design

c)

Internal HR policies

d)

Supplier relationships

71.

A major concern in the economic environment is:

a)

Social norms

b)

Changes in consumer spending and income

c)

Competitor pricing

d)

Interest rates and inflation

72.

The political environment exists to protect:

a)

Government from consumers

b)

Firms from international markets

c)

Companies, consumers, and society's interests

d)

Cultural beliefs

73.

Cause-related marketing involves:

a)

Promoting products based on low price

b)

Linking brands to social causes

c)

Reducing production costs

d)

Influencing political elections

74.

Core values are:

a)

Easily changed

b)

Passed on from parents and reinforced by institutions

c)

Influenced by advertising

d)

Temporary consumer opinions

75.

Secondary beliefs refer to:

a)

Unchangeable cultural views

b)

Long-term traditions

c)

People’s changing views of themselves and society

d)

Laws and regulations

76.

An increase in remote working is an example of:

a)

A demographic trend

b)

A pricing strategy

c)

A technological threat

d)

Product life cycle change

77.

Publics such as media or government can:

a)

Only support the company

b)

Have no influence on marketing

c)

Affect company reputation and decision-making

d)

Only influence HR departments

78.

Environmental sustainability means:

a)

Reducing prices for eco-friendly buyers

b)

Creating strategies that support long-term ecological balance

c)

Eliminating competitors

d)

Removing regulations

79.

Increased diversity in a population means marketers must:

a)

Use one message for all segments

b)

Avoid targeting disabled consumers

c)

Develop inclusive, diverse marketing approaches

d)

Stop adapting products

80.

A company reacting only after changes occur is classified as:

a)

Proactive

b)

Reactive

c)

Aggressive

d)

Neutral

81.

Which of the following is not a part of an organization's external environment?

a)

Customers

b)

Competitors

c)

Suppliers

d)

Staff

82.

A devaluation of the Australian dollar makes exports cheaper and imports more expensive. Within the macro-environment, this is known as a(n):

a)

Political forces

b)

Economic force

c)

Sociocultural force

d)

Technological force

83.

Working for the Coca-Cola company, you are very aware of the activities of your company's competitors, PepsiCo, and find that you frequently make changes to your businesses in response to actions they have taken. You also notice that they react when you make changes to your business offering. This competition is occurring within the:

a)

Microenvironment

b)

Macroenvironment

c)

Internal environment

d)

Natural environment

84.

A firm monitoring raw material shortages is responding to which environment?

a)

Technological

b)

Natural environment

c)

Cultural

d)

Political

85.

Domino’s ANYWARE platform (orders via many digital channels) illustrates:

a)

Economic environment

b)

Demographic shift toward Gen Z digital lifestyles

c)

Cultural core values

d)

Natural environment

86.

When a company partners with local nonprofits to build goodwill, it is engaging with:

a)

Physical distribution firms

b)

Local publics

c)

Reseller markets

d)

Political institutions

87.

A sudden drop in consumer spending due to recession mainly affects which environment?

a)

Cultural

b)

Economic

c)

Technological

d)

Publics

88.

A marketer designing wheelchair-accessible packaging responds to:

a)

Natural environment forces

b)

Demographic diversity trends

c)

Political regulations

d)

Competitor threats

89.

Increasing pollution and climate concerns pressure firms to:

a)

Ignore sustainability to reduce cost

b)

Adopt environmental sustainability strategies

c)

Focus only on digital technology

d)

Target younger generations

90.

If legislation demands more consumer protection, marketers must adjust which area most?

a)

Internal HR policies

b)

Pricing and product safety rules

c)

Logistics design

d)

International expansion

91.

When a company creates its own smartphone innovation to alter market expectations, it is being:

a)

Reactive

b)

Passive

c)

Proactive

d)

Demographic-focused

92.

Which of the following BEST describes generational marketing?

a)

Offering different price levels to each age group

b)

Creating value propositions based on lifestyle differences across generations

c)

Targeting only older consumers

d)

Designing products only for Gen Z

93.

A company expanding into a foreign country with different cultural values must primarily analyze:

a)

Competitor pricing

b)

Domestic demographic trends

c)

International cultural environment

d)

Raw material availability

94.

A company notices a sudden increase in consumers seeking “zero-waste” products. Which environment is driving this trend?

a)

Technological

b)

Cultural

c)

Economic

d)

Political

95.

A multinational must adjust its marketing after a new law restricts the use of customer data. This change is caused by:

a)

Technological forces

b)

Political–legal environment

c)

Cultural environment

d)

Microenvironment (suppliers)

96.

A firm that launches a sustainability program before competitors and before regulations appear is taking a:

a)

Reactive approach

b)

Defensive approach

c)

Proactive approach

d)

Passive approach

97.

A shortage of semiconductor chips affects automakers worldwide. This is an example of:

a)

Macroenvironment → Natural

b)

Microenvironment → Suppliers

c)

Microenvironment → Competitors

d)

Macroenvironment → Technological

98.

A luxury brand expands to a country where median income is falling. What is the MOST relevant environment to analyze?

a)

Natural

b)

Economic

c)

Political

d)

Cultural

99.

A company’s marketing strategy adjusts to population movement from big cities to rural regions. This reflects a:

a)

Geographic demographic shift

b)

Technological trend

c)

Cultural reversal

d)

Competitive threat

100.

An advertising agency restructuring its business around AI-generated ads is responding to:

a)

Demographic trends

b)

Technological disruption

c)

Economic downturn

d)

Cultural beliefs

101.

Which scenario best illustrates the impact of “publics”?

a)

Competitors copy your product

b)

Local community protests your factory’s pollution

c)

Retailers refuse to stock your goods

d)

Employees demand higher salaries

102.

A company markets protein drinks to older consumers focusing on "active lifestyle" rather than age. This is an example of:

a)

Generational marketing

b)

Misleading targeting

c)

Cultural stereotyping

d)

Political segmentation

103.

A firm redesigns packaging to reduce plastic due to rising environmental activism. Which two environments interact here?

a)

Technological + Political

b)

Cultural + Natural

c)

Economic + Competitor

d)

Micro + Demographic

104.

Due to inflation, consumers shift from premium brands to private-label. The firm should monitor:

a)

Natural environment

b)

Political–legal environment

c)

Economic environment

d)

Cultural core values

105.

When consumers increasingly trust peer reviews more than corporate advertising, this reflects a change in:

a)

People’s view of nature

b)

People’s view of organizations

c)

People’s view of society

d)

People’s view of themselves

106.

A competitor invests heavily in R&D and launches a disruptive product. The affected firm must analyze:

a)

Marketing intermediaries

b)

Demographic shifts

c)

Competitor strategies + technological environment

d)

Cultural core values

107.

A country’s declining birth rate will MOST strongly affect which market first?

a)

Luxury goods

b)

Baby product markets

c)

Energy sector

d)

Political institutions

108.

Regulations requiring companies to provide carbon-emission data primarily influence:

a)

Supplier selection

b)

Technological innovation

c)

Natural + Political environments

d)

Consumer lifestyle changes

109.

A company collaborates with influencers to shape emerging cultural trends rather than follow them. This is:

a)

Uncontrollable

b)

Reactive

c)

Proactive cultural shaping

d)

Passive adaptation

110.

Automation reduces the need for physical labor, which forces marketers to:

a)

Increase prices

b)

Adjust product offerings for higher-skilled workers

c)

Reduce distribution networks

d)

Ignore demographic changes

111.

A company targets Gen Alpha with short, interactive content. This demonstrates:

a)

Cultural influence

b)

Technological adoption

c)

Demographic segmentation and media adaptation

d)

International expansion

112.

A retailer facing criticism from environmental groups launches a recycling program. This is a response to:

a)

Publics in the microenvironment

b)

Technological forces

c)

Economic threats

d)

Internal HR pressure

113.

When interest rates rise sharply, businesses reduce borrowing, affecting marketing budgets. This results from:

a)

Demographic environment

b)

Political environment

c)

Cultural shifts

d)

Economic environment

114.

A company that monitors elderly population growth and launches home-care robots is reacting to:

a)

Cultural shifts in family values

b)

Macro → Demographic + Technological forces

c)

Competitor pressure

d)

Public regulation

115.

A fashion brand adopts a “no-retouching” policy to match social movements about authenticity. This aligns with:

a)

Political environment

b)

Natural environment

c)

Shifts in secondary cultural values

d)

Economic decline

116.

During a major recession, which market is least affected?

a)

Essential goods and staple products

b)

Luxury travel and leisure experiences

c)

High-end consumer electronics

d)

Premium fashion and accessories

117.

When Gen Z prefers eco-friendly brands even at higher prices, marketers must integrate:

a)

Microenvironment changes

b)

Economic cost reductions

c)

Cultural values with natural environment sustainability

d)

Political lobbying

118.

Which scenario reflects a PROACTIVE response to the environment?

a)

Waiting for new laws before changing policies

b)

Copying competitor strategies once they succeed

c)

Launching an innovation that reshapes consumer expectations

d)

Reducing marketing budgets during downturns

119.

Consumer buyer behavior refers to the buying behavior of:

a)

Businesses

b)

Government units

c)

Final consumers

d)

Resellers

120.

A consumer market consists of:

a)

Businesses buying for resale

b)

Individuals and households buying for personal consumption

c)

Governments and NGOs

d)

Global corporations

121.

Which factor is NOT one of the four major influences on consumer behavior?

a)

Cultural

b)

Psychological

c)

Personal

d)

Technological

122.

Culture is defined as:

a)

Temporary personal preferences

b)

Basic values and behaviors learned by society

c)

A person’s economic background

d)

Life-cycle influences

123.

A subculture is:

a)

A competing group

b)

A group with shared values based on common experiences

c)

A social network

d)

A type of lifestyle segment

124.

Reference groups influence consumers by:

a)

Setting government standards

b)

Creating new regulations

c)

Exposing consumers to new lifestyles and behaviors

d)

Setting product prices

125.

The most important consumer-buying organization is:

a)

Work group

b)

Family

c)

Online influencers

d)

Social networks

126.

Occupation affects:

a)

Product availability

b)

What products and services a person buys

c)

Government regulation

d)

Subcultural identification

127.

Maslow’s model explains:

a)

Perception filtering

b)

Hierarchy of learning

c)

Motivation based on needs

d)

Personality dimensions

128.

Need recognition is triggered by:

a)

Internal stimuli such as hunger or discomfort

b)

External stimuli like advertising or word-of-mouth

c)

Postpurchase evaluation outcomes

d)

Government regulations mandating purchases

129.

Selective attention refers to:

a)

Remembering only negative information

b)

Interpreting information incorrectly

c)

Screening out most information exposed

d)

Learning through repetition

130.

Selective retention means consumers:

a)

Ignore information similar to their beliefs

b)

Remember good points about favored brands

c)

Distort negative information

d)

Only remember product prices

131.

The group most influential in shaping early consumer attitudes is:

a)

Government

b)

Family

c)

Opinion leaders

d)

Media networks

132.

A person’s pattern of living measured through activities, interests, and opinions is called:

a)

Motivation

b)

Lifestyle

c)

Culture

d)

Learning

133.

In the buyer decision process, evaluation of alternatives occurs after:

a)

Purchase

b)

Information search

c)

Need recognition

d)

Postpurchase behavior

134.

In purchase decisions, the gap between purchase intention and purchase decision is influenced by:

a)

Social class only

b)

Attitudes of others and unexpected factors

c)

Personality traits

d)

Motivation hierarchy

135.

Cognitive dissonance occurs when:

a)

Consumers forget information

b)

Postpurchase discomfort arises from conflict

c)

Consumers are unaware of alternatives

d)

Products fail during the trial stage

136.

Variety-seeking behavior occurs when:

a)

Low involvement, high brand differences

b)

High involvement, high differences

c)

Low involvement, low differences

d)

High involvement, low differences

137.

The adoption stage where the consumer tries the product on a small scale is:

a)

Interest

b)

Evaluation

c)

Trial

d)

Adoption

138.

Early Adopters are characterized by:

a)

High risk tolerance and first movers

b)

Cautious and skeptical

c)

Guided by respect; opinion leaders

d)

Last to adopt innovations

139.

A consumer interprets an ad to match their existing beliefs. This demonstrates:

a)

Selective retention

b)

Selective distortion

c)

Perception misalignment

d)

Motivational conflict

140.

A marketer targeting construction workers with rugged phones focuses on which personal factor?

a)

Occupation

b)

Age

c)

Culture

d)

Reference groups

141.

A consumer shopping on a tight budget during an economic downturn is influenced primarily by:

a)

Lifestyle

b)

Cultural norms

c)

Personality

d)

Economic situation

142.

When consumers rely on influencer recommendations because they distrust ads, this reflects:

a)

Reference group influence

b)

Subliminal motivation

c)

Personal lifestyle change

d)

Maslow’s belonging need

143.

In the decision process, which stage is most affected by selective distortion?

a)

Need recognition

b)

Information search

c)

Alternative evaluation

d)

Trial adoption

144.

A consumer choosing products that symbolize status (luxury watches, cars) reflects:

a)

Economic constraint

b)

Role & status influence

c)

Subliminal messaging

d)

Low involvement behavior

145.

A customer journey focuses on:

a)

Activities after purchase

b)

Only the moment of purchase

c)

All touchpoints influencing experience over time

d)

Reducing postpurchase dissonance only

146.

A consumer postpones buying due to bad weather or store closure. This is an example of:

a)

Attitude of others

b)

Postpurchase conflict

c)

Unexpected situational factor

d)

Perception filtering

147.

A highly innovative customer who is eager to try new technologies first is classified as:

a)

Early mainstream

b)

Late mainstream

c)

Laggard

d)

Innovator

148.

A brand targeting “ethical consumerism” aligns with which factor?

a)

Motivation (security)

b)

Lifestyle (AIO)

c)

Learning reinforcement

d)

Perception filtering