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Worksheets

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Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which command is used to track the path packets take to a destination host?

a)

traceroute

b)

ping

c)

netstat

d)

ifconfig

2.

Which of these are NOT cyber recon examples?

a)

Cracking password with hashcat

b)

Scanning for open ports using Nmap

c)

Gathering public information from social media

d)

Enumerating DNS records

3.

Reading news articles about a target company is what type of recon? Any attempt of social engineering is what type?

a)

Passive / Active

b)

Active / Passive

c)

Passive / Passive

d)

Active / Active

4.

Which tool is used to find domain registration details like registrar and expiry date?

a)

WHOIS

b)

Ping

c)

Traceroute

d)

nslookup

5.

What is the primary purpose of hping3?

a)

Packet crafting and firewall testing

b)

Network file sharing

c)

Web server hosting

d)

Database management

6.

The command dig example.com is used for what purpose?

a)

Check DNS records

b)

Check disk usage

c)

Display environment variables

d)

Download files from the internet

7.

In Nmap, what does -sS flag indicate?

a)

SYN Stealth Scan

b)

UDP Scan

c)

Ping Sweep

d)

Connect Scan

8.

What does the -sV flag in Nmap do?

a)

Service Version Detection

b)

Subnet Validation

c)

Session Verification

d)

Source Value Identification

9.

Which of the following is a method of active reconnaissance?

a)

Network sniffing

b)

Social engineering

c)

Password cracking

d)

Physical security audit

10.

Which authentication factor is a Smart card?

a)

Smart card

b)

Password

c)

Fingerprint

d)

Security question

11.

Which of the following is considered a Password?

a)

Password

b)

Username

c)

Email address

d)

Phone number

12.

What is the main purpose of authentication design?

a)

To ensure CIA principles

b)

To improve system performance

c)

To reduce software development cost

d)

To enhance user interface aesthetics

e)

To increase network bandwidth

13.

User provisioning involves what?

a)

Creating and configuring user accounts

b)

Monitoring network traffic

c)

Designing user interfaces

d)

Managing hardware inventory

14.

What is an OTP?

a)

One-Time Password

b)

Online Transaction Protocol

c)

Open Text Platform

d)

Official Test Paper

15.

In authentication, confidentiality ensures that what?

a)

Credentials are kept secret

b)

Credentials are always encrypted during transmission

c)

Users are always authenticated

d)

Passwords are never changed

16.

Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC) decisions are made using _______.

a)

User and resource attributes

b)

Password policies

c)

Network protocols

d)

Encryption algorithms

17.

Which authentication factor is _______?

a)

Fingerprint

b)

Password

c)

PIN

d)

Security Token

18.

What policy prevents users from choosing an old password again?

a)

Password history policy

b)

Password complexity policy

c)

Account lockout policy

d)

Password expiration policy

19.

When a CSIRT documents a breach timeline and actor movements, what are they performing?

a)

Analysis and documentation

b)

Incident eradication

c)

Threat containment

d)

Vulnerability scanning

20.

A company needs to know its IP configuration details. Which command should they use?

a)

ipconfig

b)

ping

c)

netstat

d)

tracert

21.

Which command is used to track the path packets take to a destination host?

a)

traceroute

b)

ping

c)

netstat

d)

ifconfig

22.

The command dig example.com is used for what purpose?

a)

Check DNS records.

b)

Create a new user account.

c)

Install software packages.

d)

Format the hard drive.

23.

In Nmap, what does -sS flag indicate?

a)

SYN Stealth Scan.

b)

UDP Scan.

c)

Ping Sweep.

d)

Version Detection.

24.

Which of these are NOT cyber recon examples?

a)

Gaming online.

b)

Scanning network ports.

c)

Gathering information from social media.

d)

Phishing for credentials.

25.

According to the Lockheed Martin Cyber Kill Chain, which step is Cyber Recon?

a)

Reconnaissance.

b)

Weaponization.

c)

Delivery.

d)

Exfiltration.

26.

Reading news articles about a target company is what type of recon? Any attempt of social engineering is what type?

a)

Passive / Active.

b)

Active / Passive.

c)

Internal / External.

d)

Direct / Indirect.

27.

What does OSINT stand for?

a)

Open Source Intelligence.

b)

Online Security Information Technology.

c)

Operational System Integration.

d)

Official Source Information Technology.

28.

Which command displays a domain's IP address (A record)?

a)

dig

b)

ls

c)

cd

d)

ping

29.

Which tool is used to find subdomains?

a)

amass or sublist3r.

b)

Nmap.

c)

Wireshark.

d)

Metasploit.

30.

What information can theHarvester find?

a)

TheHarvester can find information such as email addresses, subdomains, IPs, and URLs.

b)

TheHarvester can only find usernames and passwords.

c)

TheHarvester can only find phone numbers and physical addresses.

d)

TheHarvester can only find credit card details and bank account numbers.

31.

What is the purpose of Privileged Access Management (PAM)?

a)

To control and monitor administrative accounts and prevent misuse of privileges.

b)

To provide unlimited access to all users.

c)

To eliminate the need for authentication.

d)

To allow guest users to manage system settings.

32.

What does Single Sign-On (SSO) allow users to do?

a)

Authenticate once to access multiple systems or applications.

b)

Create multiple accounts for different applications.

c)

Require separate passwords for each system.

d)

Log in with a different username for every application.

33.

What is the function of OAuth in identity management?

a)

It allows apps to access user data from another service without sharing passwords.

b)

It encrypts user passwords for secure storage.

c)

It manages user roles and permissions within an application.

d)

It provides multi-factor authentication for users.

34.

What is the purpose of creating user groups in Linux before adding users?

a)

To organize users with similar permissions and simplify access control through group-based policies.

b)

To increase the system's processing speed.

c)

To prevent users from accessing the terminal.

d)

To automatically install software for all users.

35.

Why is it considered good practice to use the -m option with useradd?

a)

The -m flag automatically creates a home directory for the user, ensuring a proper environment for login and file storage.

b)

It sets the user's password to 'm' by default.

c)

It assigns the user to the 'm' group automatically.

d)

It prevents the user from logging in remotely.

36.

What is the difference between /etc/passwd and /etc/group files?

a)

/etc/passwd stores user account details; /etc/group defines user group memberships.

b)

/etc/passwd stores group information; /etc/group stores user passwords.

c)

/etc/passwd and /etc/group both store user passwords.

d)

/etc/passwd stores only root user details; /etc/group stores only admin group memberships.

37.

What command displays both the UID and GID of a user?

a)

id

b)

whoami

c)

groups

d)

passwd

38.

What is the main function of the SSH service (sshd) in Linux?

a)

It provides secure remote access to the system using encrypted communication channels.

b)

It manages local user accounts and passwords.

c)

It is responsible for printing documents to network printers.

d)

It handles file system mounting and unmounting operations.

39.

What does the AllowGroups directive in /etc/ssh/sshd_config do?

a)

It restricts SSH login permissions only to members of specified groups.

b)

It allows all users to log in without any restrictions.

c)

It disables password authentication for all users.

d)

It sets the maximum number of SSH connections allowed.

40.

Why must the SSH service be restarted after editing sshd_config?

a)

Changes to configuration files are applied only after the SSH daemon is reloaded or restarted.

b)

To update the system kernel for SSH.

c)

To reset all user passwords.

d)

To enable remote desktop access.

41.

What would happen if both PasswordAuthentication no and ChallengeResponseAuthentication no are set in sshd_config?

a)

No password-based authentication would be allowed.

b)

Only public key authentication would be allowed.

c)

Password authentication would still be possible.

d)

Challenge-response authentication would be enabled.

42.

What is the main purpose of simulating a Hydra brute-force attack in a security lab?

a)

To demonstrate how weak passwords can be exploited and to learn how to detect and mitigate such attacks.

b)

To test the speed of the network connection.

c)

To install new software on the server.

d)

To create backup copies of user data.

43.

Why is it risky to use high thread counts (e.g., -t 16) in Hydra against SSH?

a)

Excessive parallel connections can cause the SSH service to reject requests or temporarily disable access.

b)

It guarantees faster password cracking without any downsides.

c)

High thread counts will always bypass SSH security measures.

d)

Using high thread counts will encrypt all traffic automatically.

44.

How can system administrators detect brute-force attacks from SSH logs?

a)

By reviewing /var/log/auth.log or journalctl -u ssh, which show repeated attempts.

b)

By checking /etc/passwd for new users.

c)

By monitoring CPU temperature logs.

d)

By inspecting /var/log/dmesg for hardware errors.

45.

What is the purpose of enabling PAM modules in SSH authentication?

a)

PAM (Pluggable Authentication Modules) allows integration of additional security features, like 2FA, into the authentication process.

b)

PAM modules are used to increase network speed during SSH authentication.

c)

PAM modules are required for SSH to support file transfers.

d)

PAM modules are used to encrypt SSH traffic.

46.

What type of authentication does Google Authenticator implement?

a)

Time-based One-Time Password (TOTP) authentication.

b)

Password-based authentication.

c)

Biometric authentication.

d)

Certificate-based authentication.

47.

Which PAM file must be modified to enable Google Authenticator for SSH?

a)

/etc/pam.d/sshd

b)

/etc/pam.d/login

c)

/etc/pam.d/system-auth

d)

/etc/pam.d/common-auth

48.

Why is ChallengeResponseAuthentication yes required for 2FA to function in SSH?

a)

It allows SSH to prompt users for an additional dynamic verification code after password entry.

b)

It enables SSH to use public key authentication only.

c)

It disables password authentication entirely.

d)

It allows SSH to bypass all authentication checks.

49.

What happens if the SSH config is misconfigured with invalid options like AuthenticationMethods keyboard-interactive (unsupported)?

a)

The SSH service will fail to start, producing a error in system logs.

b)

The SSH service will ignore the invalid option and start normally without error.

c)

The SSH service will automatically correct the invalid option and restart.

d)

The SSH service will prompt the user to fix the configuration before starting.

50.

What kind of evidence helps identify brute-force attacks in SSH logs?

a)

Multiple failed password attempts, connection drops, and messages like repeated attempts.

b)

Single successful login with no errors.

c)

Frequent use of secure shell keys without password prompts.

d)

Consistent logins from the same trusted IP address.

51.

Why is it important to analyze timestamps during incident investigation?

a)

They help correlate events, identify the exact time of compromise, and reconstruct the attack timeline.

b)

They allow investigators to ignore irrelevant data and focus only on user credentials.

c)

Timestamps are used solely for system performance monitoring, not for security analysis.

d)

Analyzing timestamps helps in encrypting sensitive data during an incident.

52.

What are key steps in responding to a detected SSH brute-force attack?

a)

Lock compromised accounts and reset passwords; analyze affected systems for data access or exfiltration; implement stricter authentication policies and monitoring.

b)

Ignore the attack and continue normal operations; only monitor for future incidents.

c)

Disable SSH service permanently on all servers without further investigation.

d)

Inform users to change their passwords at their discretion, but take no further action.

53.

What is a computer security incident?

a)

A computer security incident is any accidental or deliberate activity that compromises the confidentiality, integrity, or availability (CIA) of information systems or data.

b)

A computer security incident is any routine maintenance performed on a computer system.

c)

A computer security incident is any software update applied to improve system performance.

d)

A computer security incident is any scheduled backup of important files.

54.

What are the three main principles of information security (CIA)?

a)

Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

b)

Control, Investigation, Analysis

c)

Communication, Innovation, Adaptability

d)

Compliance, Inspection, Assessment

55.

What does the acronym PICERL stand for?

a)

Preparation, Identification, Containment, Eradication, Recovery, Lessons Learned.

b)

Preparation, Investigation, Correction, Evaluation, Restoration, Learning.

c)

Planning, Inspection, Control, Elimination, Reinstatement, Learning.

d)

Prevention, Investigation, Correction, Examination, Recovery, Learning.

56.

What does SOAR stand for and what is its purpose?

a)

Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response. Its purpose is to automate and coordinate incident response processes.

b)

System Optimization and Analysis Resource. Its purpose is to improve network performance.

c)

Secure Operations and Risk. Its purpose is to manage organizational risk.

d)

Software Orchestration and Recovery. Its purpose is to restore systems after failure.

57.

MTTC's IR plan includes escalation paths. What does this ensure?

a)

Incidents reach the right level of management quickly.

b)

All incidents are ignored until further notice.

c)

Incidents are resolved without any management involvement.

d)

Escalation paths delay the response to incidents.

58.

A post-incident meeting discusses what went wrong and how to improve. Which phase is this?

a)

Lessons Learned (Post-incident phase).

b)

Detection phase.

c)

Preparation phase.

d)

Containment phase.

59.

What should be done before eradicating malware from a compromised host?

a)

Collect forensic evidence.

b)

Disconnect the host from the network.

c)

Update the operating system.

d)

Run a full system backup.

60.

What is the role of SIEM in incident response?

a)

Aggregates and analyzes logs for potential incidents.

b)

Provides physical security to data centers.

c)

Manages user authentication and access control.

d)

Performs network hardware maintenance.

61.

Why is communication planning essential during incident response?

a)

To ensure coordinated and accurate information sharing.

b)

To delay the response process.

c)

To create confusion among team members.

d)

To avoid documenting the incident.

62.

A company detects suspicious activity on its network. What should it do first according to the incident response process?

a)

Identify and confirm the incident.

b)

Notify law enforcement immediately.

c)

Erase all affected data.

d)

Ignore the activity and monitor further.

63.

Why are timelines crucial in an investigation?

a)

They help reconstruct attacker actions and timing.

b)

They provide legal advice to investigators.

c)

They automatically prevent future attacks.

d)

They identify the physical location of all suspects.

64.

If malware is removed and systems are rebuilt, which two phases does this involve?

a)

Eradication and Recovery.

b)

Detection and Containment.

c)

Preparation and Identification.

d)

Analysis and Reporting.

65.

What is social engineering?

a)

A psychological manipulation technique used to trick people into giving away confidential information or performing harmful actions.

b)

A method of encrypting data to prevent unauthorized access.

c)

A type of computer virus that spreads through email attachments.

d)

A process of physically securing computer hardware from theft.

66.

Does social engineering require technical hacking skills?

a)

No. It mostly relies on human psychology rather than computer skills.

b)

Yes. It requires advanced programming knowledge.

c)

Yes. It involves breaking encryption algorithms.

d)

Yes. It needs expertise in network penetration testing.

67.

Who is Kevin Mitnick and why is he famous?

a)

He was one of the first and most famous social engineers; served jail time for hacking and later became a cybersecurity consultant.

b)

He was a famous mathematician known for his work in number theory.

c)

He was a renowned physicist who contributed to quantum mechanics.

d)

He was a celebrated artist known for his abstract paintings.

68.

What are the two main phases of a social engineering attack?

a)

Reconnaissance contacting and manipulating the target.

b)

Planning and execution.

c)

Detection and prevention.

d)

Reporting and analysis.

69.

What is the purpose of reconnaissance in SE?

a)

To gather as much information as possible (emails, names, habits, company structure) to make the attack convincing.

b)

To immediately launch an attack without preparation.

c)

To protect the target from social engineering attacks.

d)

To report suspicious activities to authorities.

70.

Name one tool used for reconnaissance.

a)

theHarvester

b)

Wireshark

c)

Metasploit

d)

John the Ripper

71.

What is the principle of authority?

a)

Victims tend to obey authority figures quid pro quo—something for something the attacker offers help or reward in exchange for access or data.

b)

Victims tend to ignore authority figures and act independently.

c)

Victims always question authority and never comply with requests.

d)

Victims are more likely to trust strangers than authority figures.

72.

How can employees detect a possible social engineering attempt?

a)

By noticing urgency, intimidation, excessive friendliness, or lack of verifiable details.

b)

By ignoring all emails from unknown senders.

c)

By trusting any message that uses company branding.

d)

By sharing passwords with colleagues to confirm identity.

73.

What is the main countermeasure against SE attacks?

a)

Security awareness training for employees across all organizational roles.

b)

Implementing only physical security measures.

c)

Relying solely on antivirus software.

d)

Ignoring suspicious emails and messages.

74.

What is the Social Engineering Toolkit (SET) used for?

a)

A tool on Kali Linux that simulates and tests social engineering.

b)

A tool for network packet analysis.

c)

A tool for password cracking only.

d)

A tool for wireless network scanning.

75.

What is Typosquatting?

a)

Registering similar domain names to trick users.

b)

A method of encrypting data for security.

c)

A technique for speeding up website loading times.

d)

A process of creating backup copies of websites.

76.

Why are small factual mistakes in emails a warning sign?

a)

They show limited insider knowledge.

b)

They indicate strong technical skills.

c)

They prove the sender is trustworthy.

d)

They confirm the email is genuine.

77.

Dumpster Diving is used to:

a)

Collect sensitive information from discarded materials.

b)

Recycle electronic waste responsibly.

c)

Clean public spaces for community service.

d)

Dispose of hazardous chemicals safely.

78.

Which attack focuses on specific individuals using personalized lures?

a)

Spear Phishing.

b)

Pharming.

c)

Brute Force Attack.

d)

Watering Hole Attack.

79.

Which tool is used to automate phishing and social engineering attacks?

a)

Social Engineering Toolkit (SET).

b)

Wireshark.

c)

Metasploit.

d)

Nmap.

80.

When an employee receives a suspicious email what should they do first?

a)

Report it to IT or security.

b)

Reply to the email to ask for more information.

c)

Click on any links to verify their authenticity.

d)

Forward the email to all colleagues.

81.

During which phase does the attacker directly engage the victim?

a)

Victim Approach.

b)

Reconnaissance.

c)

Planning.

d)

Escape.

82.

Limiting public contact information online helps prevent:

a)

Reconnaissance.

b)

Phishing attacks.

c)

Data encryption.

d)

Software updates.

83.

Threatening users to gain compliance leverages which principle?

a)

Intimidation.

b)

Reciprocity.

c)

Consensus.

d)

Scarcity.

84.

What is social engineering?

a)

A psychological manipulation technique used to trick people into giving away confidential information or performing harmful actions.

b)

A method of encrypting data to protect it from hackers.

c)

A type of software used to detect viruses on computers.

d)

A process of building social networks for marketing purposes.

85.

Does social engineering require technical hacking skills?

a)

No. It mostly relies on human psychology rather than computer skills.

b)

Yes. It requires advanced programming knowledge.

c)

Only if the target is a computer system.

d)

It always involves breaking into networks.

86.

Who is Kevin Mitnick and why is he famous?

a)

He was one of the first and most famous social engineers; served jail time for hacking and later became a cybersecurity consultant.

b)

He was a renowned mathematician known for his work in cryptography.

c)

He was a famous computer hardware engineer who invented the microprocessor.

d)

He was a leading figure in the development of the World Wide Web.

87.

What are the two main phases of a social engineering attack?

a)

Reconnaissance and exploitation

b)

Planning and execution

c)

Detection and prevention

d)

Analysis and reporting

88.

What is the purpose of reconnaissance in SE?

a)

To gather as much information as possible (emails, names, habits, company structure) to make the attack convincing.

b)

To immediately launch an attack without preparation.

c)

To ignore the target's background and focus on random individuals.

d)

To report suspicious activities to law enforcement.

89.

Name one tool used for reconnaissance.

a)

theHarvester

b)

Wireshark

c)

Metasploit

d)

John the Ripper

90.

What is the principle of authority?

a)

Victims tend to obey authority figures quid pro quo—something for something; the attacker offers help or reward in exchange for access or data.

b)

Victims tend to ignore authority figures and act independently.

c)

Victims always verify the identity of authority figures before complying.

d)

Victims are immune to manipulation by authority figures.

91.

How can employees detect a possible social engineering attempt?

a)

By noticing urgency, intimidation, excessive friendliness, or lack of verifiable details.

b)

By ignoring all emails from unknown senders.

c)

By trusting anyone who claims to be from IT support without verification.

d)

By sharing passwords with colleagues to avoid delays.

92.

What is the main countermeasure against SE attacks?

a)

Security awareness training for employees across all organizational roles.

b)

Implementing advanced firewalls only.

c)

Using complex passwords for all accounts.

d)

Regularly updating software patches.

93.

What is the Social Engineering Toolkit (SET) used for?

a)

A tool on Kali Linux that simulates and tests social engineering attacks to train or assess defenses.

b)

A tool for scanning network vulnerabilities and patching systems automatically.

c)

A software for encrypting files and managing secure passwords.

d)

A program for monitoring network traffic and blocking suspicious IP addresses.

94.

What does Tailgating involve?

a)

Following someone into a secure area without authorization.

b)

Leaving a secure area unattended.

c)

Reporting suspicious activity to authorities.

d)

Using a password to access a secure area.

95.

Which is a sign of a social engineering attempt?

a)

Urgent requests for sensitive information.

b)

Routine company updates.

c)

General greetings from colleagues.

d)

Scheduled maintenance notifications.

96.

Why are small factual mistakes in emails a warning sign?

a)

They show limited insider knowledge.

b)

They indicate strong technical skills.

c)

They confirm the sender's identity.

d)

They prove the email is genuine.

97.

Why are social media platforms attractive to attackers?

a)

They expose personal details useful for pretexting.

b)

They offer advanced encryption for attackers.

c)

They prevent attackers from accessing any information.

d)

They automatically block all suspicious activities.

98.

Threatening users to gain compliance leverages which principle?

a)

Intimidation.

b)

Reciprocity.

c)

Authority.

d)

Consensus.

99.

Which of the following reduces social engineering risk the most?

a)

Regular security awareness training.

b)

Installing more printers.

c)

Using outdated software.

d)

Ignoring suspicious emails.

100.

What tactic involves creating urgency to push victims into action?

a)

Hurry tactic.

b)

Delay tactic.

c)

Confusion tactic.

d)

Distraction tactic.