WorksheetsHEMA2-23
Total questions: 107
Worksheet time: 54mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Factor II
a)
Zymogen
b)
Cofactors
2.
Factor VII
a)
Zymogen
b)
Cofactors
3.
Prekalikrein
a)
Zymogen
b)
Cofactors
4.
Factor XIII
a)
Zymogen
b)
Cofactors
5.
Factor XII
a)
Zymogen
b)
Cofactors
6.
Factor XI
a)
Zymogen
b)
Cofactors
7.
Factor X
a)
Zymogen
b)
Cofactors
8.
Factor IX
a)
Zymogen
b)
Cofactors
9.
Tissue factor (III)
a)
Zymogen
b)
Cofactors
10.
Factor V
a)
Zymogen
b)
Cofactors
11.
Factor VIII
a)
Zymogen
b)
Cofactors
12.
HMWK
a)
Zymogen
b)
Cofactors
13.
XII, XI, IX, VIII
a)
Intrinsic pathway
b)
Extrinsic pathway
c)
Common pathway
14.
X, V, II, I
a)
Intrinsic pathway
b)
Extrinsic pathway
c)
Common pathway
15.
III and VII
a)
Intrinsic pathway
b)
Extrinsic pathway
c)
Common pathway
16.
Factor I
a)
Fibrinogen group
b)
Prothrombin group
c)
Contact group
17.
Factor XIII
a)
Fibrinogen group
b)
Prothrombin group
c)
Contact group
18.
Factor VIII
a)
Fibrinogen group
b)
Prothrombin group
c)
Contact group
19.
Factor V
a)
Fibrinogen group
b)
Prothrombin group
c)
Contact group
20.
Factor II
a)
Fibrinogen group
b)
Prothrombin group
c)
Contact group
21.
Factor VII
a)
Fibrinogen group
b)
Prothrombin group
c)
Contact group
22.
Factor XII
a)
Fibrinogen group
b)
Prothrombin group
c)
Contact group
23.
Factor XI
a)
Fibrinogen group
b)
Prothrombin group
c)
Contact group
24.
HMWK
a)
Fibrinogen group
b)
Prothrombin group
c)
Contact group
25.
PK
a)
Fibrinogen group
b)
Prothrombin group
c)
Contact group
26.
Which of the following is also known as thrombin sensitive group?
a)
Fibrinogen group
b)
Prothrombin group
c)
Contact group
27.
Which of the following is calcium-dependent?
a)
Fibrinogen group
b)
Prothrombin group
c)
Contact group
28.
Which of the following is calcium independent?
a)
Fibrinogen group
b)
Prothrombin group
c)
Contact group
29.
Fibrinogen group
a)
Vitamin K dependent
b)
Vitamin K independent
30.
Contact group
a)
Vitamin K dependent
b)
Vitamin K independent
31.
Fibrinogen group
a)
Calcium dependent
b)
Calcium independent
32.
Prothrombin group
a)
Calcium dependent
b)
Calcium independent
33.
Contact group
a)
Calcium dependent
b)
Calcium independent
34.
Prothrombin group
a)
Vitamin K dependent
b)
Vitamin K independent
35.
Which of the following is vitamin K-dependent?
a)
Fibrinogen group
b)
Prothrombin group
c)
Contact group
36.
Increased in pregnancy, inflammation, stress, and oral contraceptives intake
a)
Fibrinogen group
b)
Prothrombin group
c)
Contact group
37.
Which of the following is ADSORBED from the plasma using either barium sulfate or alum hydroxide?
a)
Fibrinogen group
b)
Prothrombin group
c)
Contact group
38.
Which of the following is vitamin K-independent?
a)
Fibrinogen group
b)
Prothrombin group
c)
Contact group
39.
All of the following are present in aged serum EXCEPT;
a)
Factor II
b)
Factor VII
c)
Factor IX
d)
Factor X
40.
NOT soluble to 5M Urea
a)
Thrombin
b)
Tenase complex
c)
Prothrombinase Complex
d)
Calcium
e)
Stabilized fibrin clot
41.
includes 10a, PF-3, Calcium, and 5a
a)
Thrombin
b)
Tenase complex
c)
Prothrombinase Complex
d)
Calcium
e)
Stabilized fibrin clot
42.
includes 9a, platelet factor-3 (PF-3), Calcium, and 8a
a)
Thrombin
b)
Tenase complex
c)
Prothrombinase Complex
d)
Calcium
e)
Stabilized fibrin clot
43.
activates factors 1,5,8, and 13
a)
Thrombin
b)
Tenase complex
c)
Prothrombinase Complex
d)
Calcium
e)
Stabilized fibrin clot
44.
involved in all phases of coagulation, except in the contact phase
a)
Thrombin
b)
Tenase complex
c)
Prothrombinase Complex
d)
Calcium
e)
Stabilized fibrin clot
45.
Which two cell types are essential for normal physiologic (in vivo) coagulation?
a)
Endothelial cells and macrophages
b)
Tissue factor–bearing cells and platelets
c)
Hepatocytes and fibroblasts
d)
Neutrophils and monocytes
46.
Coagulation in vivo is divided into which two major phases?
a)
Activation and Dissolution
b)
Initiation and Propagation
c)
Intrinsic and Extrinsic
d)
Primary and Secondary
47.
The initiation phase of coagulation occurs on which cell type?
a)
Platelets
b)
Neutrophils
c)
Tissue factor–bearing cells
d)
Hepatocytes
48.
Approximately how much of the total thrombin is produced during the initiation phase?
a)
1–3%
b)
3–5%
c)
20–25%
d)
95%
49.
The propagation phase of coagulation occurs primarily on:
a)
Endothelial cells
b)
Tissue factor-bearing cells
c)
Platelet phospholipid membranes
d)
Macrophages
50.
Which coagulation complexes form during propagation to generate a thrombin burst?
a)
VIIa:TF and XIIIa:IIa
b)
IXa:VIIIa and Xa:Va
c)
XIIa:XI and II:III
d)
VII:V and VIII:IV
51.
APTT is called “partial” because the reagent contains only which component?
a)
Calcium chloride
b)
Platelet factor 3
c)
The phospholipid portion of tissue thromboplastin
d)
Tissue factor itself
52.
APTT is “activated” because:
a)
It uses platelet-rich plasma
b)
A negatively charged activator is included
c)
A positively charged activator is included
d)
Thrombin is added
53.
The addition of an activator in APTT improves PTT by:
a)
Removing the need for calcium
b)
Eliminating contact activation delay
c)
Increasing fibrinolysis
d)
Prolonging clotting time
54.
Which of the following is NOT an APTT activator?
a)
Kaolin
b)
Silica
c)
Celite
d)
Hemoglobin
55.
What is the general reference range for APTT?
a)
10–13 seconds
b)
20–30 seconds
c)
35–45 seconds
d)
60–90 seconds
56.
What is the general reference range for PT?
a)
10–13 seconds
b)
20–30 seconds
c)
35–45 seconds
d)
60–90 seconds
57.
The recommended INR therapeutic range for most clinical indications is:
a)
1.0 to 1.5
b)
2.0 to 3.0
c)
2.5 to 3.5
d)
4.0 to 6.0
58.
Patients with mechanical heart valves require which target INR range?
a)
1.0 to 1.5
b)
2.0 to 3.0
c)
2.5 to 3.5
d)
4.0 to 6.0
59.
ISI stands for:
a)
International Standard Index
b)
International Safety Indicator
c)
International Sensitivity Index
d)
Instrument Sensitivity Indicator
60.
What specimen is required for an APTT test?
a)
Serum
b)
Heparinized whole blood
c)
Citrated platelet-poor plasma
d)
Citrated platelet-rich plasma
61.
Platelet-poor plasma for APTT must have platelet count less than:
a)
<15,000/µL
b)
<5,000/µL
c)
<50,000/µL
d)
<150,000/µL
62.
Citrated platelet-poor plasma is centrifuged at
a)
2500 x g
b)
5000 x g
c)
7500 x g
d)
10000 x g
63.
Citrated platelet-poor plasma is centrifuged for how long?
a)
10 minutes
b)
15 minutes
c)
20 minutes
d)
30 minutes
64.
Platelet substitute supplied to replace PF3
a)
Phosphotidylserine
b)
Phosphoinositol
c)
Phospholipid
d)
All of the above
65.
Used to monitor patients in unfractioned heparin therapy
a)
aPTT
b)
PT
66.
Used to monitor patient in warfarin therapy
a)
aPTT
b)
PT
67.
Used to detect coagulation factor deficiencies in the common and intrinsic pathways
a)
aPTT
b)
PT
68.
APTT is reported in seconds, to the nearest ___ along with the reference range
a)
Ones
b)
Tenth
c)
Hundreds
d)
Thousands
69.
How much PPP is added to the APTT reagent?
a)
0.1 mL
b)
0.1 mg
c)
0.1 L
d)
0.1 uL
70.
How much PT reagent is added in PT?
a)
0.1 mL
b)
0.2 mL
c)
0.3 mL
d)
0.4 mL
71.
Amount of plasma where PT reagent is added
a)
0.1 mL
b)
0.2 mL
c)
0.3 mL
d)
0.4 mL
72.
Incubation time in aPTT is approximately
a)
2 to 5 minutes
b)
3 to 5 minutes
c)
5 to 10 minutes
d)
15 to 20 minutes
73.
A thromboplastin reagent with an ISI < 1.0 is considered:
a)
Less sensitive
b)
More sensitive
74.
A thromboplastin reagent with an ISI > 1.0 is considered:
a)
Less sensitive
b)
More sensitive
75.
A highly sensitive thromboplastin will produce PT results that are:
a)
Shortened
b)
Prolonged
c)
Either
d)
Neither
76.
Coumarin drugs are classified as:
a)
Direct thrombin inhibitors
b)
Vitamin K antagonists
c)
Antiplatelet agents
d)
Thrombolytics
77.
Coumarin drugs are administered primarily through which route?
a)
Intravenous
b)
Subcutaneous
c)
Oral
d)
Intradermal
78.
Which of the following is not a coumarin drug?
a)
Warfarin
b)
Dicumarol
c)
Phenprocoumon
d)
Chlorampenicol
79.
The most commonly used coumarin drug is:
a)
Warfarin
b)
Acenocoumarol
c)
Dicumarol
d)
Phenprocoumon
80.
In the name warfarin, "Warf" originates from:
a)
Washington Research Foundation
b)
Wisconsin Alumni Research Foundation
c)
Wisconsin Alumni Research Federation
d)
Worldwide Anticoagulant Research Foundation
81.
Warfarin works by interfering with the synthesis of which coagulation factors?
a)
Factors I, V, and XIII
b)
Factors VIII, IX, and XI
c)
Factors II, VII, IX, and X
d)
Factors III, IV, and XII
82.
In addition to vitamin K–dependent coagulation factors, warfarin also inhibits which anticoagulant proteins?
a)
Protein Z and Protein T
b)
Protein C and Protein S
c)
Protein C and Protein T
d)
. Protein T and Protein S
83.
The brand name of warfarin is:
a)
Heparin
b)
Pradaxa
c)
Coumadin
d)
Coumarin
84.
Which of the following can be used to reverse Coumadin (warfarin) overdose, depending on clinical condition?
a)
Vitamin K
b)
Fresh-frozen plasma
c)
Prothrombin complex concentrate
d)
Recombinant factor VIIa
e)
All of the above
85.
Vitamin K reversal of warfarin overdose can be administered:
a)
Intravenously
b)
Orally
c)
Subcutaneously
d)
Orally or itnravenously
86.
Heparin has no anticoagulant activity of its own (acts as an anticoagulant by accelerating the binding of antithrombin to target enzymes (e.g., thrombin and factor Xa)
a)
First statement is true, second statement is false
b)
First statement is false, second statement is true
c)
Both statements are true
d)
Both statements are false
87.
Heparin exerts its anticoagulant effect by:
a)
Directly inhibiting thrombin
b)
Accelerating the action of antithrombin against target enzymes
c)
Inhibiting platelet adhesion
d)
Blocking fibrinogen synthesis
88.
Unfractionated heparin (UFH) is routinely used in:
a)
Neurosurgery
b)
Dermatologic surgery
c)
Cardiac surgery
d)
Lung surgery
89.
UFH therapy is commonly monitored using which test?
a)
PT or INR
b)
Bleeding time
c)
Clotting time
d)
aPTT or ACT
90.
UFH is administered primarily via:
a)
Subcutaneous
b)
Intravenous
c)
Intramuscular
d)
Orally
91.
LMWH is administered via:
a)
Subcutaneous
b)
Intravenous
c)
Intramuscular
d)
Orally
92.
The agent used to neutralize UFH is:
a)
Vitamin K
b)
Prothrombin complex concentrate
c)
Protamine sulfate
d)
Recombinant factor VIIa
93.
Protamine sulfate is extracted from:
a)
Human plasma
b)
Bovine thrombin
c)
Salmon sperm
d)
Yeast cultures
94.
ACT is particularly useful when:
a)
PT is prolonged
b)
UFH dosage is low
c)
UFH dosage is high
d)
Patient is taking warfarin
95.
In an ACT test, the method involves:
a)
Adding calcium to plasma and measuring turbidity
b)
Measuring optical density changes in a photometer
c)
Adding a particulate activator to whole blood and timing the clot
d)
Mixing reagents in a citrated sample without activation
96.
Low-molecular-weight heparins (LMWH) are produced by:
a)
Recombinant DNA technology
b)
Controlled fragmentation of heparin
c)
Extraction from porcine liver
d)
Synthetic chemical synthesis
97.
LMWH inhibits which factor predominantly through antithrombin?
a)
Factor IIa
b)
Factor XIIa
c)
Factor VIIIa
d)
Factor Xa
98.
LMWH does NOT effectively inhibit:
a)
Factor IIa
b)
Factor XIIa
c)
Factor VIIIa
d)
Factor Xa
99.
(uses electromechanical clot detection system that measures a change in conductivity between two metal electrodes in plasma
a)
BBL Fibrometer
b)
Diagnostica Stago analyzers
100.
In these analyzers, an electromagnetic field detects the oscillation of a steel ball within the plasma-reagent solution. Viscosity starts to increase as fibrin strands form, slowing the movement. When the oscillation decreases to a predefined rate, the timer stops, indicating the clotting time of the plasma.
a)
BBL Fibrometer
b)
Diagnostica Stago analyzers
101.
TURBIDOMETRIC
a)
Photo-optical
b)
Nephelometric
c)
Chromogenic
102.
Coagulometers that use this principle detect a change in plasma optical density during clotting.
a)
Photo-optical
b)
Nephelometric
c)
Chromogenic
103.
A modification of photo-optical end-point detection. Here, 90-degree or forward-angle light scatter, rather than OD, is measured
a)
Photo-optical
b)
Nephelometric
c)
Chromogenic
104.
AMIDOLYTIC
a)
Photo-optical
b)
Nephelometric
c)
Chromogenic
105.
✓ Uses a synthetic oligopeptide substrate conjugated to a chromophore, usually para-nitroaniline (pNA)
a)
Photo-optical
b)
Nephelometric
c)
Chromogenic
106.
A means for measuring specific coagulation factor activity because it uses the factor’s enzymatic (protease) properties
a)
Photo-optical
b)
Nephelometric
c)
Chromogenic
107.
Useful to evauate specimens from patients who have circulating inhibitors or who are on anticoagulant treatment because the inhibitors do not interfere in the chromogenic assay.
a)
Photo-optical
b)
Nephelometric
c)
Chromogenic
100 %
