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Stock Offerings and Investor Monitoring

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a)

A) A stock is a certificate representing partial ownership in a corporation.

b)

B) Like debt securities, common stock is issued by firms to obtain funds.

c)

C) Stocks are issued by corporations to raise short-term funds.

d)

D) The secondary stock market enables investors to sell stocks that they had previously purchased.

2.

Preferred shareholders

a)

typically have the same voting rights as common shareholders.

b)

do not share the ownership of the firm with common shareholders.

c)

typically participate in the profits of the firm beyond the stated fixed annual dividend.

d)

may not receive a dividend every year.

3.

From a cost perspective, preferred stock is a less desirable source of capital for a firm than bonds.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

A ______ requires that dividends cannot be paid on common stock until all current and previously omitted dividends are paid on preferred stock.

a)

residual claim

b)

preferred margin

c)

cumulative provision

d)

liquidation claim

5.

Firms assume ______ risk when they issue preferred stock than when they issue bonds. The payment of dividends on preferred stock ______ be omitted without the firm being forced into bankruptcy.

a)

A. more; can

b)

B. less; can

c)

C. more; cannot

d)

D. less, cannot

6.

When a corporation first decides to issue stock to the public, it engages in a(n)

a)

A) secondary offering

b)

B) initial public offering

c)

C) seasoned equity offering

d)

D) none of the above

7.

A firm can best avoid the time lag between registering new securities with the SEC and actually selling them by

a)

use of proxy.

b)

shelf-registration.

c)

use of a margin call.

d)

use of preemptive rights.

8.

The process by which the lead underwriter solicits indications of interest by institutional investors in an IPO at various possible ______ prices is referred to as ___________.

a)

IPO; margin selling

b)

offer; secondary market building

c)

offer; bookbuilding

d)

IPO; bookbuilding

9.

To the extent that shares sold during an IPO are discounted from their appropriate price, the proceeds that the issuing firm receives from the IPO are lower than it deserves.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

The transaction costs to the issuing firm in an IPO is usually _____ percent of the funds raised.

a)

1

b)

3

c)

7

d)

25

11.

If many investors quickly sell an IPO stock in the secondary market, there will be ______ on the stock's price.

a)

downward pressure

b)

upward pressure

c)

no additional pressure

d)

none of the above

12.

The purpose of a lockup provision is to

a)

keep individual investors from buying and selling stock.

b)

prevent downward pressure on the stock’s price.

c)

increase the number of outstanding shares.

d)

allocate a larger proportion of stock to institutional investors.

13.

When the lockup period expires, the share price commonly

a)

remains unchanged.

b)

increases significantly.

c)

decreases significantly.

d)

none of the above

14.

IPOs tend to occur more primarily during recessions.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

The initial (one-day) return of IPOs in the United States has averaged about _____ percent over the last 30 years.

a)

10

b)

20

c)

30

d)

50

16.

The practice of purchasing IPO stock at the offer price and selling the stock shortly afterward is called

a)

flipping.

b)

skiing.

c)

flopping.

d)

none of the above

17.

________ occurs when an investment bank allocates share from an IPO to corporate executives who may be considering an IPO or other business that will require the help of an investment bank.

a)

Flipping

b)

Spinning

c)

Laddering

d)

none of the above

18.

When brokers encourage investors to place bids for IPO shares on the first day that are above the offer price this is referred to as

a)

flipping.

b)

spinning.

c)

laddering.

d)

none of the above

19.

On average, IPOs of firms tend to perform ___________ over a period of a year or longer.

a)

well

b)

poorly

c)

about the same as the S&P 500 index

d)

none of the above

20.

A firm that wants to engage in a secondary stock offering does not need to file the offering with the SEC.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

A firm will typically attempt to sell shares from a secondary offering

a)

far below the prevailing market price.

b)

far above the prevailing market price.

c)

at the prevailing market price.

d)

at the offer price of the IPO.

22.

Buy and sell orders on the OTC market are completed by

a)

auction on the trading floor.

b)

sealed competitive bids.

c)

noncompetitive bids.

d)

a telecommunications network.

23.

A(n) ______ is a certificate which represents ownership of a foreign stock.

a)

ADR

b)

SEAQ

c)

Nasdaq

d)

AMEX

24.

The first-time issuance of shares by a specific firm to the public is referred to as a(n)

a)

stock repurchase.

b)

secondary stock offering.

c)

initial rights issue.

d)

initial public offering (IPO).

25.

A new stock issuance by a specific firm that already has stock outstanding is referred to as a(n)

a)

stock repurchase.

b)

secondary stock offering.

c)

initial rights issue.

d)

initial public offering (IPO).

26.

Managers of firms may consider a stock repurchase or even a leveraged buyout when they believe their stock is ____________ by the market, or a secondary stock offering when they believe their stock is ____________ by the market.

a)

undervalued; undervalued

b)

overvalued; overvalued

c)

undervalued; overvalued

d)

overvalued; undervalued

e)

none of the above

27.

The largest organized exchange, listing the largest firms, is the

a)

New York Stock Exchange.

b)

American Stock Exchange.

c)

Midwest Stock Exchange.

d)

Pacific Stock Exchange.

28.

__________ are employed by brokerage houses and execute orders for clients on the floor of the NYSE.

a)
Specialists
b)

Commission brokers

c)

Independent brokers

d)

Dealers

29.

Unlike the organized exchanges, the OTC market does not have a trading floor.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Firms listed as “pink sheets” on the OTC market

a)

are typically very large.

b)

satisfy Nasdaq’s listing requirements.

c)

are typically owned by various institutional and individual investors.

d)

none of the above

31.

The prevailing price per share divided by the firm’s earnings per share is known as the

a)

dividend yield.

b)

price-earnings ratio.

c)

fully diluted earnings per share.

d)

annual dividend.

32.

The __________________________ is a price-weighted average of stock prices of 30 large U.S. firms.

a)

A) Dow Jones Industrial Average

b)

B) Standard and Poor's 500

c)

C) NASDAQ

d)

D) New York Stock Exchange Index

33.

The __________________________ is a value-weighted index of stock prices of 500 large U.S. firms.

a)

B) Standard and Poor’s 500

b)

A) Dow Jones Industrial Average

c)

C) New York Stock Exchange Index

d)

D) Nasdaq

34.

Sudden favorable news about the performance of a firm will make investors believe that the firm’s stock is ________ at its prevailing price.

a)

overvalued

b)

fixed

c)

appropriate

d)

undervalued

35.

Analysts periodically communicate with high-level managers of the firms whose stock they rate.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Shareholders can most easily measure a firm’s performance by monitoring changes in its __________ over time.

a)

share price

b)

employee job descriptions

c)

board of directors

d)

asset size

37.

Which of the following is not true regarding the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?

a)

It attempts to force accountants to conform to regular accounting standards in preparing a firm’s financial statements.

b)

It requires that only outside board members of a firm be on the firm’s audit committee.

c)

It allows public accounting firms to offer nonaudit consulting services to an audit client whether the client’s audit committee pre-approves the nonaudit services or not.

d)

It prevents members of a firm’s audit committee from receiving consulting or advising fees or other compensation from the firm beyond that earned from serving on the board.

38.

An example of shareholder activism is

a)

communication with the firm.

b)

engaging in a proxy contest.

c)

filing a lawsuit against the board.

d)

all of the above

39.

______________ are acquisitions that require substantial amounts of borrowed funds.

a)

Leveraged buyouts

b)

Stock repurchases

c)

Corporate controls

d)

Stock splits

40.

__________ are not barriers to corporate control to eliminate agency problems.

a)

Leveraged buyouts

b)

Antitakeover amendments

c)

Poison pills

d)

Golden parachutes

41.

Listing stock on a foreign stock exchange

a)

enhances the stock’s liquidity.

b)

may increase the firm’s perceived financial standing.

c)

may protect a firm against hostile takeovers.

d)

all of the above

42.

American Depository Receipts (ADRs) are similar to

a)

stock options.

b)

bank deposits.

c)

stocks.

d)

bonds.

43.

__________ are portfolios of international stocks created and managed by various financial institutions.

a)

International mutual funds

b)

American Depository Receipts

c)

World Equity Benchmark Shares

d)

Initial Public Offerings

44.

__________ sell shares to investors and use the proceeds to invest in portfolios of international stocks created and managed by portfolio managers.

a)

International mutual funds

b)

American Depository Receipts

c)

World Equity Depository Receipts

d)

Initial Public Depository Receipts

45.

When a firm buys some of its shares that it had previously issued, this is referred to as a:

a)

reverse IPO.

b)

leveraged buyout.

c)

ladder spin.

d)

stock repurchase.

46.

Whenever __________ exceeds __________, the stock price will be driven __________.

a)

supply; demand; up

b)

demand; supply; down

c)

demand; supply; up

d)

none of the above

47.

Which of the following is not a form of shareholder activism?

a)

investors communicating their concerns to other investors in an effort to place more pressure on the firm’s managers or its board members

b)

poison pills

c)

shareholder lawsuits

d)

all of the above

48.

Initial public offerings (IPOs) tend to occur more frequently during bearish (weak) stock markets.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Initial public offerings (IPOs) perform _______ on the day following the IPO and _______ for periods of a year or longer after the IPO.

a)

well; poorly

b)

poorly; well

c)

well; well

d)

poorly; poorly

50.

Which of the following is not a part of the over-the-counter market?

a)

the Nasdaq National Market

b)

the Nasdaq Small Cap Market

c)

the OTC Bulletin Board

d)

yellow sheets

e)

all of the above are part of the over-the-counter market

51.

A firm has a current stock price of $15.32. The firm's annual dividend is $1.14 per share. The firm’s dividend yield is

a)

.74 percent.

b)

1.34 percent.

c)

7.44 percent.

d)

1.14 percent.

52.

If the secondary market is inactive, then the shares would be illiquid.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Private firms that need a large equity investment but are not yet in a position to go public may attempt to obtain funding from a venture capital (VC) fund.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Venture capital (VC) funds receive money from wealth investors and from pension funds that need to receive their money back in one year or less.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Venture capital (VC) funds commonly serve as advisors to the businesses in which they invest.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Venture capital (VC) funds usually invest in publicly-traded businesses.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Venture capital (VC) funds typically plan to exit from their original investment within a period of about one year.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

The phrase “leaving money on the table” refers to investors who pay more for a stock in the secondary market than was paid by those investors who were able to buy shares at the initial (offer) price on the IPO date.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Underwriters sell most of the shares of an IPO to institutional investors.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

The total cost of engaging in an IPO is usually about 1 percent of the total proceeds.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Since the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, the initial returns resulting from an IPO have generally been smaller.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

In general, secondary offerings cause an immediate increase in the market price of the stock.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

Electronic stock exchanges that execute stock transactions electronically are referred to as electronic communications networks (ECNs).

a)

True

b)

False

64.

As a result of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, firms were able to reduce their costs of compiling and reporting financial information.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

As a result of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, there was a reduced likelihood of fraudulent financial reporting by firms.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

The legal protection of shareholders varies substantially among countries.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

Common law countries such as the U.S., Canada, and the United Kingdom allow for more legal protection than civil law countries such as France or Italy.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

The government enforcement of securities laws varies among countries.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

The laws of the financial information that must be provided by public companies is similar among all developed countries.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Electronic communications networks (ECNs) are passive funds that track a specific index.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

A VC fund typically plans to exit from its original investment within about four to seven years.

a)
True
b)

False

72.

Like VC funds, private equity funds commonly take over businesses and manage them.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Normally, only the owners of preferred stock are permitted to vote on certain key matters concerning the firm, such as the election of the board of directors.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

If investors become dissatisfied with a firm’s performance, they can compete with management in soliciting proxy votes in what is known as a proxy fight.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Initial public offerings (IPOs) tend to occur more frequently during bullish stock markets.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

According to financial research, there is evidence that the stock price associated with an IPO typically rises on the first day but then declines over time.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Shelf-registration allows firms quick access to funds without repeatedly being slowed by the registration process.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

In addition to the Nasdaq market, the OTC market has another segment known as “pink sheets,” where smaller stocks are traded.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

The Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJIA) is a value-weighted average of stock prices of 30 large U.S. firms.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Research studies have found that the share prices of target firms and of acquiring firms react very positively to announcements of an acquisition.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

If managers believe that their firm’s stock price is weak because it is undervalued by the market, they may consider repurchasing a portion of the shares that are outstanding.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

International exchange-traded funds (ETFs) represent international indexes that reflect composites of stocks for particular countries; shares of the index can be purchased or sold, thereby allowing investors to invest directly in a stock index representing any one of several countries.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Which of the following is not true with respect to venture capital (VC) funds?

a)

When a VC fund decides to invest in a business, it will negotiate the terms of its investment, including the amount of funds it is willing to invest.

b)

One common exit strategy for VC funds is to sell its equity stake to the public before the business engages in a public stock offering.

c)

VC funds receive money from wealthy investors and from pension funds that are willing to maintain the investment for a long-term period.

d)

All of the above are true with respect to VC funds.

84.

Assume a firm that is valued at $800 million with 6 million shares of stock outstanding. This firm’s stock should have a price of $_______ per share.

a)

6.00

b)

80.00

c)

133.33

d)

none of the above

85.

The owners of common stock are permitted to vote on the

a)

election of the board of directors.

b)

authorization to issue new shares of common stock.

c)

approval of amendments to the corporate charter.

d)

adoption of bylaws.

e)

all of the above

86.

Which of the following is not true with respect to preferred stock?

a)

Preferred stock usually does not allow for significant voting rights.

b)

If the firm does not have sufficient earnings from which to pay the preferred stock dividends, the preferred shareholders may force the firm into bankruptcy.

c)

Normally, the owners of preferred stock do not participate in the profits of the firm beyond the stated fixed annual dividend.

d)

Payment of preferred dividends is not a tax-deductible expense.

e)

All of the above are true.

87.

Which of the following is false with respect to initial public offerings (IPOs)?

a)

IPOs are first-time offerings of shares by a specific firm to the public.

b)

Normally, a firm planning an IPO will hire a securities firm to recommend the amount of stock to issue and the asking price for the stock.

c)

Firms engaging in IPOs are normally not well known to investors.

d)

IPOs are typically intended to raise funds so the corporation can expand.

e)

All of the above are true.

88.

To discourage flipping, some securities firms make _________ shares of future IPOs available to institutional investors that retain shares for a ________ period of time.

a)

A) fewer; long

b)

B) more; short

c)

C) more; long

d)

answers A and B are correct

89.

There is strong evidence that IPOs of firms perform ________ on average over a period of a year or longer.

a)

well

b)

poorly

c)

very well relative to other firms in their industry

d)

none of the above

90.

Firms are more willing to issue new stock in a secondary stock offering when the market price of their outstanding shares is relatively

a)

high.

b)

low.

c)

either high or low, depending on the overall market.

d)

none of the above

91.

“Pink sheets” are traded on the

a)

New York Stock Exchange.

b)

American Stock Exchange.

c)

over-the-counter market.

d)

Nasdaq.

92.

The annual dividend on Grozky, Inc. stock is $5 per share and the stock’s prevailing price is

$93.13 per share. Thus, the stock’s dividend yield is __________ percent.

a)

18.63

b)

5.37

c)

8.81

d)

none of the above

93.

Which of the following is not a provision specified in the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?

a)

A) It requires that only inside board members of a firm be on the firm’s audit committee.

b)

B) It prevents the members of a firm’s audit committee from receiving consulting or advising fees or other compensation from the firm beyond that earned from serving on the board.

c)

C) It requires that the CEO and CFO of firms that are of at least a specified size certify the audited financial statements are accurate.

d)

D) It allows public accounting firms to offer nonaudit consulting services to an audit client only if the client’s audit committee pre-approves the nonaudit services to be rendered before the audit begins.

94.

Which of the following is not a form of shareholder activism?

a)

investors communicating their concerns to other investors in an effort to place more pressure on the firm’s managers or its board members

b)

poison pill contests

c)

shareholder lawsuits

d)

all of the above are forms of shareholder activism

95.

Which of the following is not a barrier to corporate control?

a)

antitakeover amendments

b)

proxy contests

c)

poison pills

d)

golden parachutes

e)

all of the above are barriers to corporate control