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Worksheets

SHDSDSF

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

This is the stage of the parasite which enters the human body

a)

infective stage

b)

diagnostic stage

c)

intermediate host

d)

definitive host

2.

This is the stage of the parasite which is commonly identified by Medical Technologists during routine microscopy

a)

infective stage

b)

diagnostic stage

c)

intermediate host

d)

definitive host

3.

Freshwater fishes, serve as _____ for Capillaria philippinensis

a)

infective stage

b)

diagnostic stage

c)

intermediate host

d)

definitive host

4.

Humans are the _______ for Ascaris lumbricoides

a)

infective stage

b)

diagnostic stage

c)

intermediate host

d)

definitive host

5.

It is often called as the “true hookworm”

a)

Necator americanus

b)

Ancylostoma duodenale

c)

Ancylostoma caninum

d)

AOTA

6.

Adults of Enterobius vermicularis and Trichuris trichiura reside in (humans)?

a)

large intestine

b)

small intestine

c)

lungs

d)

liver

7.

Adults of Ascaris spp., hookworms and Strongyloides stercoralis are found in (humans)?

a)

large intestine

b)

small intestine

c)

lungs

d)

liver

8.

Adults of Paragonimus westermani primarily develop in (humans)?

a)

large intestine

b)

small intestine

c)

lungs

d)

liver

9.

Adults of Fasciola hepatica primarily develop in (humans)?

a)

large intestine

b)

small intestine

c)

lungs

d)

liver

10.

Infective stage of Ascaris lumbricoides

a)

embryonated egg

b)

fertilized egg

c)

filariform larva/3rd stage larva

d)

miracidia

11.

Infective stage of Enterobius vermicularis

a)

embryonated egg

b)

fertilized egg

c)

filariform larva/3rd stage larva

d)

miracidia

12.

Infective stage of Capillaria philippinensis

a)

embryonated egg

b)

fertilized egg

c)

filariform larva/3rd stage larva

d)

miracidia

13.

Infective stage of hookworms in humans

a)

embryonated egg

b)

fertilized egg

c)

filariform larva/3rd stage larva

d)

miracidia

14.

Infective stage of Trichuris spp.

a)

embryonated egg

b)

fertilized egg

c)

filariform larva/3rd stage larva

d)

miracidia

15.

Infective stage of Wuchereria bancrofti

a)

embryonated egg

b)

fertilized egg

c)

filariform larva/3rd stage larva

d)

miracidia

16.

Infective stage of Brugia malayi

a)

embryonated egg

b)

fertilized egg

c)

filariform larva/3rd stage larva

d)

miracidia

17.

Routine or common diagnostic stage of Ascaris lumbricoides in humans

a)

embryonated egg

b)

fertilized egg

c)

filariform larva/3rd stage larva

d)

miracidia

18.

Diagnostic stage of Enterobius vermicularis in humans

a)

embryonated egg

b)

fertilized egg

c)

filariform larva/3rd stage larva

d)

miracidia

19.

Diagnostic stage of Capillaria philippinensis in humans

a)

embryonated egg

b)

fertilized egg

c)

filariform larva/3rd stage larva

d)

miracidia

20.

Diagnostic stage of hookworms in humans

a)

embryonated egg

b)

fertilized egg

c)

filariform larva/3rd stage larva

d)

miracidia

21.

Often called as the “pork tapeworm”

a)

Taenia saginata

b)

Taenia asiatica

c)

Taenia solium

d)

Trichinella spiralis

22.

Often called as the “pork worm”

a)

Taenia saginata

b)

Taenia asiatica

c)

Taenia solium

d)

Trichinella spiralis

23.

Often called as the “beef tapeworm”

a)

Taenia saginata

b)

Taenia asiatica

c)

Taenia solium

d)

Trichinella spiralis

24.

Often called as the “3rd Taenia or Taiwan Taenia Taenia spp.”

a)

Taenia saginata

b)

Taenia asiatica

c)

Taenia solium

d)

Trichinella spiralis

25.

Often called as the “dwarf tapeworm”

a)

Hymenolepis nana

b)

Hymenolepis diminuta

c)

Dipylidium caninum

d)

Dibothriocephalus latus (form D. latum)

26.

Often called as the “rat tapeworm”

a)

Hymenolepis nana

b)

Hymenolepis diminuta

c)

Dipylidium caninum

d)

Dibothriocephalus latus (form D. latum)

27.

Often called as the “dog tapeworm”

a)

Hymenolepis nana

b)

Hymenolepis diminuta

c)

Dipylidium caninum

d)

Dibothriocephalus latus (form D. latum)

28.

Often called as the “fish tapeworm”

a)

Hymenolepis nana

b)

Hymenolepis diminuta

c)

Dipylidium caninum

d)

Dibothriocephalus latus (form D. latum)

29.

Which of the ff. have embryonated eggs as the routine diagnostic stage?

a)

Schistosoma spp.

b)

Paragonimus westermani

c)

Fasciola spp.

d)

Fasciolopsis buski

30.

Which of the ff. parasites utilize crabs as 2nd intermediate hosts?

a)

Schistosoma spp.

b)

Paragonimus westermani

c)

Fasciola spp.

d)

Fasciolopsis buski

31.

Which of the ff. parasites utilize snails as the only intermediate hosts?

a)

Schistosoma spp.

b)

Paragonimus westermani

c)

Fasciola spp.

d)

Fasciolopsis buski

32.

Which of the ff. parasites utilize freshwater plants as the 2nd intermediate hosts?

a)

Schistosoma spp.

b)

Paragonimus westermani

c)

Fasciola spp.

d)

Heterophyid spp.

33.

Mode of transmission of Schistosoma japonicum

a)

skin penetration

b)

ingestion of snail

c)

penetration of snail

d)

ingestion of aquatic plants

34.

What is the infective stage of the Schistosoma japonicum?

a)

cercaria

b)

metacercaria

c)

cysticercus

d)

AOTA

35.

What is the infective stage of Taenia asiatica?

a)

cysticercus

b)

cercocystis

c)

plerocercoid

d)

spargana

36.

Eggs of pinworm are usually diagnosed in what specimen?

a)

duodenal aspirate

b)

AOTA

c)

tape swabs

d)

stool

37.

Eggs of Ascaris lumbricoides are usually diagnosed in what specimen?

a)

duodenal aspirate

b)

AOTA

c)

tape swabs

d)

stool

38.

Which of the following arthropods is responsible for transmitting the deadliest parasitic disease?

a)

mosquitoes

b)

fleas

c)

tick

d)

true bugs

39.

The term “gravid” used in Parasitology denotes

a)

“extreme length”

b)

“laying larva”

c)

“pregnant”

d)

“enlarged size”

40.

Feeding life stages of protozoans

a)

embryo

b)

embryonated larva

c)

trophozoite

d)

cyst

41.

Which parasite causes neurocysticercosis

a)

Plasmodium

b)

Schistosoma

c)

beef tapeworm

d)

pork tapeworm

42.

This protozoan causes “ping-pong’s disease”

a)

Cryptosporidium spp.

b)

AOTA

c)

Giardia lamblia

d)

Trichomonas vaginalis

43.

Infectious fork tailed cercaria is seen in

a)

Schistosoma spp.

b)

Fasciola spp.

c)

Babesia

d)

Onchocerca

44.

What is the proper amount of watery stool for routine examination

a)

5-6 tablespoons

b)

2 cups

c)

1-2 teaspoon

d)

20 grams

45.

Commensal amoeba with a large glycogen body

a)

Entamoeba hartmanni

b)

Entamoeba gingivalis

c)

Iodamoeba butschlii

d)

Endolimax nana

46.

Which of the ff. can cause amebic keratitis?

a)

Acanthamoeba

b)

Entamoeba coli

c)

Leishmania donovani

d)

Dientamoeba fragilis

47.

Most common vector of Malaria

a)

Culex

b)

Mansonia

c)

Aedes

d)

Anopheles

48.

“Kala – azar” is caused by

a)

Loa loa

b)

Onchocerca volvulus

c)

Leishmania donovani

d)

Leishmania tropica

49.

“Oriental blood fluke”

a)

Schistosoma japonicum

b)

Clonorchis sinensis

c)

Schistosoma mansoni

d)

Fasciola hepatica

50.

What is the definitive host of malarial parasite?

a)

Snail host

b)

Aquatic plants

c)

Anopheles vector

d)

Human

51.

Which organism is the natural definitive and reservoir host of Capillaria?

a)

fish

b)

birds

c)

snail

d)

humans

52.

Vitamin malabsorption for Ascaris lumbricoides

a)

Vit B

b)

albumin

c)

Vit A

d)

vit C

53.

Which parasite given below has the characteristic adult worm bearing a wing like expansion of the cuticle near the anterior end?

a)

Dracunculus

b)

Whipworm

c)

Oesophagostomum

d)

pinworm

54.

Vector for African Eyeworm

a)

chrysops

b)

culicoides

c)

cone –nosed bug

d)

cyclops

55.

Identify the parasite isolated: Stool diagnostics—detects barrel shaped eggs with mucus plugs at the ends, patient has Peripheral blood Eosinophilia and Increased serum IgE level

a)

Trypanosoma cruzi

b)

Capillaria hepatica

c)

Trichinella

d)

Trichuris

56.

Only known infected host of the Enterobius vermicularis?

a)

humans

b)

snails

c)

pigs

d)

cattles

57.

“Cat liver fluke”

a)

Toxocara cati

b)

Ancylostoma braziliensis

c)

Paragonimus siamensis

d)

Opisthorchis felineus

58.

It is the most pathogenic species among the schistosomes.

a)

haematobium

b)

intercalatum

c)

japonicum

d)

mansoni

59.

Infective stage of pinworm

a)

adult worm

b)

3rd stage larva

c)

embryonated egg

d)

fertilized egg

60.

Infectious fork tailed cercaria is seen in

a)

Onchocerca

b)

Schistosome

c)

Babesia

d)

Cytoisospora

61.

Which tapeworm is capable of autoinfection? I. Hymenolepis nana II. Enterobius vermicularis III. Strongyloides stercoralis IV. Capillaria spp.

a)

II,III,IV

b)

I,II

c)

I

d)

I,II,III

62.

Natural and reservoir host of Balantidium coli

a)

C & D

b)

snail

c)

human

d)

pig

63.

Non feeding life stage of protozoans

a)

embryo

b)

embryonated larva

c)

trophozoite

d)

cyst

64.

Most common malarial parasite worldwide

a)

falciparum

b)

ovale

c)

malariae

d)

vivax

65.

Which of the ff. parasites are viviparous?

a)

Brugia

b)

Loa loa

c)

Wuchereria

d)

AOTA

66.

“String of beads” appearance of esophagus

a)

whipworm

b)

Entamoeba histolytica

c)

Strongyloides stercoralis

d)

Enterobius vermicularis

67.

“Guitar shaped egg”

a)

Hookworm egg

b)

Giardia immature cyst

c)

Enterobius

d)

Capillaria spp.

68.

Microfilaria isolated in a body cavity is unsheathed, and nuclei is continuous to tail tip

a)

Onchocerca volvulus

b)

Brugia timori

c)

Loa loa

d)

Mansonella perstans

69.

Mosquito vectors of Brugia malayi I. Aedes II. Anopheles III. Culex IV. Mansonia

a)

II, IV

b)

I,III,IV

c)

I, IV

d)

I, II, IV

70.

Bachmann intradermal test is highly specific for?

a)

Baylisascaris procyonis

b)

Echinococcus spp.

c)

Trichinella sp.

d)

Toxoplasma

71.

Scolex is characterized by 20-30 Y shaped hooklets

a)

temperate liver fluke

b)

Raillietina spp.

c)

rat tapeworm

d)

dwarf tapeworm

72.

A liquid stool specimen is collected at 10 pm & brought to Laboratory for culture & ova determination. It is refrigerated for 12 hours, when the physician requested to look for amoeba, best thing to do would be?

a)

do saline/NSS, specimen is safe, proper processing was done

b)

just perform staining, specimen maintained its integrity

c)

recollection cannot be done, instead, perform concentration tests

d)

recollect another specimen

73.

“Rotten egg” flatus

a)

Giardia duodenalis

b)

E. histolytica

c)

Trichomonas

d)

Dientamoeba

74.

What is the proper amount of watery stool for routine examination

a)

5-6 tablespoons

b)

2 cups

c)

1-2 teaspoon

d)

20 grams

75.

Component of urine which is unfavourable for protozoan trophozoites

a)

uric acid

b)

AOTA

c)

ammonia

d)

creatinine

76.

Which parasite causes neurocysticercosis

a)

Plasmodium

b)

Schistosoma

c)

beef tapeworm

d)

pork tapeworm

77.

Embryo found in pseudophyllidean worms that requires aquatic development

a)

plerocercoid

b)

sparganum

c)

coracidium

d)

copepod

78.

Sinton and Mulligan’s stippling

a)

P. knowlesi

b)

P. vivax

c)

P. ovale

d)

AOTA

79.

Infective stage of Schistosoma japonicum

a)

cercaria

b)

miracidium

c)

sporocyst

d)

metacercaria

80.

"Bunch of grapes" appearance of lesions in x rays (chest) of a trematode

a)

Wuchereria

b)

Echinococcus

c)

lung fluke

d)

Ascaris

81.

Immunologic test for Schistosoma infection

a)

Zinc sulphate

b)

Sheather’s flotation

c)

COPT

d)

kato thick

82.

Sundathelpusa philippina, is the 2nd intermediate host of?

a)

Oriental lung fluke

b)

Oriental blood fluke

c)

Tropical liver fluke

d)

Oriental liver fluke

83.

Infective stage of Brugia malayi

a)

embryonated ova

b)

rhabditiform larva

c)

3rd stage larva

d)

microfilaria

84.

Which of the ff. has hexacanth eggs?

a)

ameba

b)

flagellate

c)

cestodes

d)

nematodes

85.

In knott’s concentration technique is used for?

a)

filarial worm

b)

trophozoites

c)

diarrheic patients

d)

AOTA

86.

Schistosoma infections can be easily visualized using what reagent?

a)

eosin

b)

india ink

c)

methylene blue

d)

knott’s

87.

Flotation technique that employs boiled sugar & phenol

a)

Zinc Sulphate

b)

Kato thick

c)

Sheather’s

d)

Knott’s

88.

What parasites would not be harvested in Acid Ether Concentration Technique?

a)

protozoan trophozoite

b)

Helminth egg

c)

cestode egg

d)

trematode egg

89.

Which is false about Plasmodium ovale?

a)

fimbriated cell

b)

all stages can be seen in peripheral blood

c)

infects old RBC

d)

8 merozoites

90.

G6PD individuals are highly resistant to this Plasmodium spp.

a)

P. ovale

b)

P. malariae

c)

P. falciparum

d)

P. vivax

91.

Infective stage of malaria to mosquitoes

a)

promastigote

b)

epimastigote

c)

gametocyte

d)

3rd stage larva

92.

What is the definitive host of malarial parasite?

a)

Snail host

b)

Aquatic plants

c)

Anopheles vector

d)

Human

93.

This parasite is characterized by having banana shaped zoites

a)

Fusarium

b)

Plasmodium falciparum

c)

Sarcocystis

d)

Fusobacterium

94.

Winterbottom’s sign is exclusive pathogenesis of ?

a)

Trypanosoma brucei complex

b)

Trypanosoma cruzi

c)

Entamoeba histolytica

d)

Wuchereria bancrofti

95.

Intracellular form of blood & tissue flagellates

a)

amastigote

b)

trypomastigote

c)

epimastigote

d)

promastigote

96.

Diagnostic stage of Dientamoeba fragilis

a)

embryonated egg

b)

rhabditiform larva

c)

trophozoite

d)

cyst

97.

What is the largest protozoan parasite?

a)

Entamoeba coli

b)

Microsporidia

c)

Balantidium coli

d)

Fasciolopsis buski

98.

Main similarity of Opisthorchis & Chlonorchis

a)

hexacanth embryo

b)

AOTA

c)

testes morphology

d)

location of vittelaria

99.

2nd intermediate host Echinostomes spp.

a)

snail

b)

freshwater fish

c)

aquatic plant

d)

copepod

100.

Rectal prolapse is caused by what parasite?

a)

Enterobius vermicularis

b)

Trichuris trichiura

c)

Giardia lamblia

d)

Cryptosporidium spp.