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WorksheetsKMU Block D E F MCQs Practice Book (Front Matter)
Total questions: 111
Worksheet time: 56mins
Which joint is an exception in the union of bones in the skull anatomy?
Coronal joint
Sagittal joint
Temporomandibular joint
Sphenoid joint
What is the composition of the skull bones in terms of external and internal tables?
Both tables are thick and equally strong
The internal table is thicker and more robust
The external table is thinner and more brittle
Both tables are spongy and flexible
Which bone is perforated by the infraorbital foramen below the orbit?
Frontal bone
Maxillae
Zygomatic bone
Mandible
A patient presents with a head injury, and imaging reveals a fracture at the pterion. What is the significance of this finding?
It is a common area for cosmetic surgery.
It overlies the anterior division of the middle meningeal artery and vein.
It indicates a fracture in the occipital bone.
It is associated with maxillary sinusitis.
A person experiences difficulty in voice resonance, and examination shows abnormalities in the frontal air sinuses. Which bone is likely affected?
Temporal bone
Sphenoid bone
Frontal bone
Occipital bone
Which part of the skull contains the cerebellum, pons, and medulla oblongata?
Anterior cranial fossa
Middle cranial fossa
Posterior cranial fossa
Superior cranial vault
Which bone forms the majority of the middle cranial fossa?
Frontal bone
Temporal bone
Occipital bone
Sphenoid bone
What structure passes through the foramen magnum?
Optic nerve
Facial nerve
Medulla oblongata
Olfactory nerve
A patient presents with symptoms of hearing loss and imbalance. Which structure might be affected based on the symptoms?
Optic chiasm
Cerebellum
Internal acoustic meatus
Foramen lacerum
A patient sustains a head injury, resulting in a fracture at the pterion. What potential complications should be considered due to this fracture location?
Damage to the optic nerve
Injury to the middle meningeal artery
Impaired olfactory function
Decreased blood flow to the cerebellum
Which structure forms the majority of the floor of the fourth ventricle in the medulla oblongata?
Pyramids
Olive
Inferior cerebellar peduncles
Central gray matter
Which structure emerges from the groove between the pyramid and the olive in the medulla oblongata?
Hypoglossal nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Vagus nerve
Accessory nerve
At which level of the medulla oblongata does the decussation of the pyramids occur?
Level of the olives
Level just inferior to the pons
Level of the lemnisci decussation
Level of the inferior cerebellar peduncles
A patient presents with difficulty swallowing and hoarseness of voice. Which nuclei in the medulla oblongata are likely affected?
Vestibular nuclei
Cochlear nuclei
Nucleus ambiguus
Inferior olivary nuclei
A patient experiences vertigo and loss of balance. Which structure in the medulla oblongata is likely implicated?
Olive
Pyramids
Vestibular nuclei
Arcuate nuclei
Where does decussation occur in the corticospinal tract?
Pons
Medulla Oblongata
Midbrain
Spinal Cord
What is the main function of the middle cerebellar peduncle on the pons?
Sensory root emergence
Motor root convergence
Connection with the medulla oblongata
Linking the cerebral cortex to the cerebellum
Which nerve emerges on the anterolateral surface of the pons?
Abducens nerve
Facial nerve
Vestibulocochlear nerve
Trigeminal nerve
A patient presents with difficulty in coordinating voluntary movements and shows signs of contralateral motor impairment. Which part of the brainstem is likely affected?
Pons
Medulla Oblongata
Midbrain
Spinal Cord
A lesion is observed in the area of the pons responsible for connecting the cerebral cortex to the cerebellum. What specific motor functions might be affected in the patient?
Fine motor control
Vision
Auditory processing
Proprioception
What structures are found on the posterior surface of the midbrain?
Cerebral peduncles
Trochlear nerves
Corpora quadrigemina
Cerebral aqueduct
Which nucleus lies beneath the corresponding surface elevation of the inferior colliculus and forms part of the auditory pathway?
Substantia nigra
Trochlear nucleus
Inferior brachium
Medial geniculate body
A patient presents with headache, neck stiffness, and paralysis of the glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory, and hypoglossal nerves. What condition is likely causing these symptoms?
Arnold-Chiari Phenomenon
Raised Pressure in the Posterior Cranial Fossa
Medullary Hemorrhage
Weber Syndrome
A sudden lateral movement of the head results in impingement of the cerebral peduncles against the tentorium cerebelli, leading to ocular movement impairments. What region is most likely affected?
Pons
Medulla Oblongata
Midbrain
Cerebellum
A patient exhibits ipsilateral paralysis of the levator palpebrae superioris, the superior, inferior, and medial rectus muscles, and the inferior oblique muscle. What structure is likely affected?
Trochlear nucleus
Oculomotor nucleus
Medial lemniscus
Corticospinal fibers in the pons
A 65-year-old male presents with difficulty swallowing, hoarseness, and loss of gag reflex. On examination, there is deviation of the uvula to the right side. Which cranial nerve is most likely affected?
CN IX
CN X
CN XI
CN XII
A 45-year-old female presents with double vision and difficulty moving her left eye medially. She also has ptosis and a dilated pupil on the left side. Which cranial nerve is most likely affected?
CN III
CN IV
CN VI
CN VII
A 50-year-old male presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side of his face and the left side of his body. He also has difficulty swallowing and hoarseness. Which part of the brainstem is most likely affected?
Midbrain
Pons
Medulla
Cerebellum
A 60-year-old female presents with vertigo, nausea, and vomiting. She also has nystagmus and ataxia. Which part of the brainstem is most likely affected?
Midbrain
Pons
Medulla
Cerebellum
A 55-year-old male presents with weakness in his right arm and leg, as well as loss of fine touch and proprioception on the right side of his body. He also has difficulty speaking and swallowing. Which part of the brainstem is most likely affected?
Midbrain
Pons
Medulla
Cerebellum
Regarding development of central nervous system, fusion of neural folds begins in which region?
Cervical
Thoracic
Lumbar
Sacral
Closure of cranial neurophores occurs at what somite stage?
15 to 18
18 to 20
20 to 25
25 to 28
Rhombencephalic isthmus separates?
Metencephalon from myelencephalon
Metencephalon from rhombencephalon
Mesencephalon from rhombencephalon
Myelencephalon from rhombencephalon
The boundary between metencephalon and myelencephalon is marked by?
Cervical flexure
Pontine flexure
Cephalic flexure
Rhombencephalic isthmus
Embryological origin of gray matter of spinal cord?
Mantle layer
Marginal layer
Basal plate
Alar plate
Regarding development of spinal cord, which component doesn’t contain neuroblasts?
Basal plate
Alar plate
Marginal layer
Floor plate
All of the following glial cells have neuroepithelial cell origin except?
Ependymal cells
Oligodendrocytes
Microglial cells
Fibrillar astrocytes
One among the following is a derivative of neural crest cell?
Schwann cells
Ependymal cells
Fibrillar astrocytes
Protoplasmic astrocytes
Myelination of nerve fibers in spinal cord occurs in which month of intrauterine life?
4th
5th
7th
6th
At birth, spinal cord lies at which level?
L1 to L2
S2
L3
L4 to L5
Spina bifida occulta is a defect in the vertebral arches that is covered by skin. Most often it occurs in?
Sacral region
Lumbar region
Thoracic region
Both a and b
A newborn presented with hydrocephalus. His CT scan revealed herniation of a part of cerebellum into foramen magnum. This defect is termed as?
Exencephaly
Craniorachischisis
Arnold chiari malformation
Meningomyelocele
A woman who has a family history of neural tube defect. The recommended dose of folic acid will be?
400 micro gram daily
40 micro gram daily
40 milli gram daily
4000 milligrams daily
Which of the following doesn’t contribute to brainstem?
Mesencephalon
Metencephalon
Prosencephalon
Myelencephalon
Which lobe of cerebellum is phylogenetically the most primitive one?
Anterior lobe
Posterior lobe
Flocculonodular lobe
Spinocerebellum
The part of hypophysis which in humans seems to have little significance develops from?
Anterior wall of Rathke’s pouch
Posterior wall of Rathke’s pouch
Infundibulum
Diencephalon
Which of the following arise from remnants of Rathke’s pouch?
Craniopharyngioma
Rachischisis
Meningomyelocele
Holoprosencephaly
During the course of development of cerebral hemispheres, the area between frontal and temporal lobes becomes depressed and is known as?
Hippocampus
Insula
Corpus striatum
Choroid fissure
The first commissure to develop is?
Corpus callosum
Hippocampal commissure
Anterior commissure
Posterior commissure
The most important commissure is the corpus callosum, which connects the nonolfactory areas of the right and the left cerebral cortices. By which week of development does it appear?
7th
8th
9th
10th
A 29-year-old woman delivered a stillborn baby characterized by a cranial defect caused by failure of the cephalic part of the neural tube to close. Most probably he suffered from?
Holoprosencephaly
Exencephaly
Schizencephaly
Telencephalic vesicle
Most common cause of hydrocephalus is?
Tumor of choroid plexus
Defect in the absorption of CSF
Aqueductal stenosis
All of the above
A microcephalic child has some intellectual disability. The leading cause of intellectual disability in children is?
Down syndrome
Infection with rubella
Toxoplasmosis
Maternal alcohol abuse
In a lecture on development of adrenal gland, the professor asked the students that the outermost layer of fetal cortex differentiates into?
Glomerular zone
Fascicular zone
Reticular zone
Medullary zone
A newborn presented with episodes of vomiting to an emergency. Ultrasonic studies revealed an enlarged colon and the diagnosis of Hirschsprung disease was made. The most common site for Hirschsprung disease is
Cecum
Ascending colon
Descending colon
Rectum
Dendrites and axons are types of:
Neuroglia
Schwan cells
Neurites
Microglia
Smallest soma present in:
Basket cells of cerebellar cortex
Granule cells of cerebellar cortex
Posterior horn cells of spinal cord
Anterior horn cells of spinal cord
Euchromatin in nuclei of neuron is indicative of:
Less active protein synthesis in cytoplasm
More active protein synthesis in cytoplasm
More active lipid protein synthesis in cytoplasm
More active carbohydrates protein synthesis in cytoplasm
Not correct about Lipofuscin:
Amount increase with age
Lysosomal activity remnants
Greenish yellow pigments
Yellowish brown pigments
Which of following is multipolar neuron:
Posterior horn cells of spinal cord
Vestibular ganglia
Dorsal root ganglia
Pyramidal cells of cerebral cortex
T shaped manner is seen in:
Dosral root ganglia neurons
Anterior horn cells of spinal cord
Cochlear ganglia
Retinal neurons
Which neurons do not produce action potential:
Bipolar
Andendritic
Pyramidal cells of cerebral cortex
Anaxonic neurons
How much in CNS constitutes interneurons:
88%
99%
40%
10%
As compared to dendrites,axons are:
Smooth, thinner,long, curved
Smooth, thinner,long, straight
Rough, thicker,long, curved
Rough, thinner,long, straight
Axoplasm contains:
SER
Microtubules and neurofilaments
Nissl substance
Both A and B
Impulse transmission is much faster in:
Chemical synapse
Mechanical synapse
Electrical synapse
Both A and C
Thin covering formed by cytoplasm of schwan cells is called:
Sheath of schwann
Neurilemma
Myelin sheath
Btoh A and B
Supporting cells of PNS are
Neurolemmocytes
Microglia
Oligodendrocytes
Bipolar neurons
Trophic support to unmyelinated nerve fibers is supplied by:
Oligodendrocytes
Microglia
Schwan cells
Both A and C
Which neurotransmitter is released at termination of somatic efferent fibers:
Noradrenaline
Acetylcholine
Adrenaline
Norepinephrine
Astrocytomas are:
Benign
Malignant
Common type of peripheral nervous system tumor
Derived from schwan cells
Directional flow of CSF is due to:
Respiratory movements
Arterial pulsations
Gravity
Ciliary beating of ependymal cells
Pial layer contains:
Collagen and elastic fibers
Mast cells and macrophages
Modified fibroblasts mainly
Only blood vessels
Blood brain barrier contains:
Gap junctions
Pericytes
Tight junctions
Both B and C
CSF is first absorbed in:
Veins
Cavernous sinus
Superior sagittal sinus
Pulmonary vein
Dural lymphatics open in subarachnoid space by:
Stomata
Large openings
Very small openings
Both A and B
Cranial dura matter is composed of how many layers:
2
4
7
8
Layers of cranial dura matter continuous with spinal dura matter at:
Foramen spinosum
Foramen rotundum
Foramen magnum
Suprior nuchal lines
Dura matter:
Thick
Dense and irregular connective tissue
Fibroblasts and type 1 collagen fibres
All
Neuropil:
Meshwork of dendrites and axons
Meshwork of dendrites,axons and neuroglial cells in white matter
Meshwork of dendrites,axons and neuroglial cells in gray matter
both B and C
Which of the following statements about neurotransmitters is true
all neurotransmitters are derived from amino acids
large molecule transmitters include ATP and NO
Dopamine and histamine are small molecule neurotransmitters
norepinephrine can act as neurotransmitter in periphery and neuromodulator in CNS
All sensory information is discarded by brain
1%
44%
66%
99%
0%
Corelease of which of the following regulates sleep-wake cycles
glutamate and dopamine
GABA and glutamate
melatonin and glycin
dopamine and serotonin
serotonin and glutamate
a patient with an epileptic episode is presented in the ER , a small molecule rapidly acting neurotransmitter which enhances the effect of medicine is
GABA
glutamate
ATP
seretonin
dopamine
A 65 year old woman underwent surgery has suffered brain damage, she cannot wake up due to damage to wakeful center of brain
Lower brain centers
Upper brain centers
CEREBRAL CORTEX
cerebellum
all
Transduction describes
transmission of signals across synapses by neurotransmitters
the transmission of nerve impulses from receptors to cortex
the translation of the stimulus into a code of action potentials
the generation of conscious mental states from nerve impulses
the channeling and processing of information is called
integrative function of cns
destructive function of cns
progressive function of cns
excitatory function of cns
inhibitory function of cns
A woman is facing memory loss problems due to an accident , most of the storage occurs in
cerebellum
limbic system
cerebral cortex
pons
medulla
chemical synapses are
independent of direction
unidirectional
bidirectional
tridirectional
in electrical synapses the cytoplasm of adjacent cells are directly connected by cluster of ion channels called
gap junctions
na channels
cl channels
inhibitory channels
excitatory channels
presynaptic terminals are also called
synaptic knobs
terminal knobs
end feet
all
none
norepinephrine secreting neurons are located in
locus ceruleus
substantia nigra
caudate nucleus
all
none
an inhibitory neurotransmitter which originates in substantia nigra and lack of which causes parkinsons is
dopamine
serotonin
glutamate
gaba
glycine
neurotransmitter that originates in median raphe , causes inhibition of pain and is believed to help control mood of the person and perhaps even sleep is
dopamine
serotonin
glutamate
gaba
glycine
it is produced by nerve terminals in areas of brain responsible for long term behavior and memory
nitric oxide
serotonin
glutamate
co2
glycine
which of the following is false
fatigue causes to lose excess excitability
fatigue is beneficial in epileptic seizure
fatigue may result from abnormal concentration of ions inside neuron
progressive activation of many postsynaptic membrane receptors
none
alkolosis greatly increases neuronal activity
excitability
inhibitory function
doesn’t effect neuron
all
none
acidosis greatly depresses neuronal activity , a fall of pH from 7.4 to 7.0 causes
excitability
comatose state
hyperactivity
increase in temperature
none
A 60 year old man went to k2 and started suffering from hypoxia. Effect of hypoxia on synaptic transmission is
inexcitibility
excitibility
hyperactivity
increase in temperature
none
this neurotransmitter is best known to increase excitability of neurons by inhibiting the action of inhibitory neurotransmitter substance
anesthetics
caffeine
strychnine
theobromine
theophylline
synaptic delay can be used to
estimate the number of series neurons in the cell
cause repetitive excitation
cause repetitive inhibition
all
none
excessive discharge from a single presynaptic terminal can add to one another is called
temporal summation
spatial summation
temporary summation
permenant summation
none
summing postsynaptic potentials by activating multiple terminals on widely spaced area of neuronal membrane is called
temporal summation
spatial summation
temporary summation
permenant summation
none
neurotransmitter that opens cation channels is
excitatory
inhibitory
neutral
cl ion
none
inhibitory neurotransmittors open
leaky channels
cation channels
anion channels
gated channels
all
receptors activation controls opening of ion channels by activating second messenger is called
metabotropic receptors
inotropic receptors
excitatory receptors
inhibitory receptors
none
the second messenger G-protein consists of
GDP
alpha component
beta component
gamma component
all
receptor activation in postsynaptic membrane controlled by gating ion channels is called
metabotropic receptors
inotropic receptors
excitatory receptors
inhibitory receptors
none
which of the following is not a rapidly acting neurotransmitter
atp
aspartate
carbon monoxide
substance p
melatonin
which of the following does not belong to class 3 of rapidly acting neurotransmittors
acetylcholine
glycine
glutamate
gaba
aspartate
which of the following is not a slow acting neurotransmitter
hypothalamic releasing harmones
pituitary peptides
insulin
bradykinin
epinephrine
