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KMU Block D E F MCQs Practice Book (Front Matter)

Total questions: 111

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which joint is an exception in the union of bones in the skull anatomy?

a)

Coronal joint

b)

Sagittal joint

c)

Temporomandibular joint

d)

Sphenoid joint

2.

What is the composition of the skull bones in terms of external and internal tables?

a)

Both tables are thick and equally strong

b)

The internal table is thicker and more robust

c)

The external table is thinner and more brittle

d)

Both tables are spongy and flexible

3.

Which bone is perforated by the infraorbital foramen below the orbit?

a)

Frontal bone

b)

Maxillae

c)

Zygomatic bone

d)

Mandible

4.

A patient presents with a head injury, and imaging reveals a fracture at the pterion. What is the significance of this finding?

a)

It is a common area for cosmetic surgery.

b)

It overlies the anterior division of the middle meningeal artery and vein.

c)

It indicates a fracture in the occipital bone.

d)

It is associated with maxillary sinusitis.

5.

A person experiences difficulty in voice resonance, and examination shows abnormalities in the frontal air sinuses. Which bone is likely affected?

a)

Temporal bone

b)

Sphenoid bone

c)

Frontal bone

d)

Occipital bone

6.

Which part of the skull contains the cerebellum, pons, and medulla oblongata?

a)

Anterior cranial fossa

b)

Middle cranial fossa

c)

Posterior cranial fossa

d)

Superior cranial vault

7.

Which bone forms the majority of the middle cranial fossa?

a)

Frontal bone

b)

Temporal bone

c)

Occipital bone

d)

Sphenoid bone

8.

What structure passes through the foramen magnum?

a)

Optic nerve

b)

Facial nerve

c)

Medulla oblongata

d)

Olfactory nerve

9.

A patient presents with symptoms of hearing loss and imbalance. Which structure might be affected based on the symptoms?

a)

Optic chiasm

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Internal acoustic meatus

d)

Foramen lacerum

10.

A patient sustains a head injury, resulting in a fracture at the pterion. What potential complications should be considered due to this fracture location?

a)

Damage to the optic nerve

b)

Injury to the middle meningeal artery

c)

Impaired olfactory function

d)

Decreased blood flow to the cerebellum

11.

Which structure forms the majority of the floor of the fourth ventricle in the medulla oblongata?

a)

Pyramids

b)

Olive

c)

Inferior cerebellar peduncles

d)

Central gray matter

12.

Which structure emerges from the groove between the pyramid and the olive in the medulla oblongata?

a)

Hypoglossal nerve

b)

Glossopharyngeal nerve

c)

Vagus nerve

d)

Accessory nerve

13.

At which level of the medulla oblongata does the decussation of the pyramids occur?

a)

Level of the olives

b)

Level just inferior to the pons

c)

Level of the lemnisci decussation

d)

Level of the inferior cerebellar peduncles

14.

A patient presents with difficulty swallowing and hoarseness of voice. Which nuclei in the medulla oblongata are likely affected?

a)

Vestibular nuclei

b)

Cochlear nuclei

c)

Nucleus ambiguus

d)

Inferior olivary nuclei

15.

A patient experiences vertigo and loss of balance. Which structure in the medulla oblongata is likely implicated?

a)

Olive

b)

Pyramids

c)

Vestibular nuclei

d)

Arcuate nuclei

16.

Where does decussation occur in the corticospinal tract?

a)

Pons

b)

Medulla Oblongata

c)

Midbrain

d)

Spinal Cord

17.

What is the main function of the middle cerebellar peduncle on the pons?

a)

Sensory root emergence

b)

Motor root convergence

c)

Connection with the medulla oblongata

d)

Linking the cerebral cortex to the cerebellum

18.

Which nerve emerges on the anterolateral surface of the pons?

a)

Abducens nerve

b)

Facial nerve

c)

Vestibulocochlear nerve

d)

Trigeminal nerve

19.

A patient presents with difficulty in coordinating voluntary movements and shows signs of contralateral motor impairment. Which part of the brainstem is likely affected?

a)

Pons

b)

Medulla Oblongata

c)

Midbrain

d)

Spinal Cord

20.

A lesion is observed in the area of the pons responsible for connecting the cerebral cortex to the cerebellum. What specific motor functions might be affected in the patient?

a)

Fine motor control

b)

Vision

c)

Auditory processing

d)

Proprioception

21.

What structures are found on the posterior surface of the midbrain?

a)

Cerebral peduncles

b)

Trochlear nerves

c)

Corpora quadrigemina

d)

Cerebral aqueduct

22.

Which nucleus lies beneath the corresponding surface elevation of the inferior colliculus and forms part of the auditory pathway?

a)

Substantia nigra

b)

Trochlear nucleus

c)

Inferior brachium

d)

Medial geniculate body

23.

A patient presents with headache, neck stiffness, and paralysis of the glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory, and hypoglossal nerves. What condition is likely causing these symptoms?

a)

Arnold-Chiari Phenomenon

b)

Raised Pressure in the Posterior Cranial Fossa

c)

Medullary Hemorrhage

d)

Weber Syndrome

24.

A sudden lateral movement of the head results in impingement of the cerebral peduncles against the tentorium cerebelli, leading to ocular movement impairments. What region is most likely affected?

a)

Pons

b)

Medulla Oblongata

c)

Midbrain

d)

Cerebellum

25.

A patient exhibits ipsilateral paralysis of the levator palpebrae superioris, the superior, inferior, and medial rectus muscles, and the inferior oblique muscle. What structure is likely affected?

a)

Trochlear nucleus

b)

Oculomotor nucleus

c)

Medial lemniscus

d)

Corticospinal fibers in the pons

26.

A 65-year-old male presents with difficulty swallowing, hoarseness, and loss of gag reflex. On examination, there is deviation of the uvula to the right side. Which cranial nerve is most likely affected?

a)

CN IX

b)

CN X

c)

CN XI

d)

CN XII

27.

A 45-year-old female presents with double vision and difficulty moving her left eye medially. She also has ptosis and a dilated pupil on the left side. Which cranial nerve is most likely affected?

a)

CN III

b)

CN IV

c)

CN VI

d)

CN VII

28.

A 50-year-old male presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side of his face and the left side of his body. He also has difficulty swallowing and hoarseness. Which part of the brainstem is most likely affected?

a)

Midbrain

b)

Pons

c)

Medulla

d)

Cerebellum

29.

A 60-year-old female presents with vertigo, nausea, and vomiting. She also has nystagmus and ataxia. Which part of the brainstem is most likely affected?

a)

Midbrain

b)

Pons

c)

Medulla

d)

Cerebellum

30.

A 55-year-old male presents with weakness in his right arm and leg, as well as loss of fine touch and proprioception on the right side of his body. He also has difficulty speaking and swallowing. Which part of the brainstem is most likely affected?

a)

Midbrain

b)

Pons

c)

Medulla

d)

Cerebellum

31.

Regarding development of central nervous system, fusion of neural folds begins in which region?

a)

Cervical

b)

Thoracic

c)

Lumbar

d)

Sacral

32.

Closure of cranial neurophores occurs at what somite stage?

a)

15 to 18

b)

18 to 20

c)

20 to 25

d)

25 to 28

33.

Rhombencephalic isthmus separates?

a)

Metencephalon from myelencephalon

b)

Metencephalon from rhombencephalon

c)

Mesencephalon from rhombencephalon

d)

Myelencephalon from rhombencephalon

34.

The boundary between metencephalon and myelencephalon is marked by?

a)

Cervical flexure

b)

Pontine flexure

c)

Cephalic flexure

d)

Rhombencephalic isthmus

35.

Embryological origin of gray matter of spinal cord?

a)

Mantle layer

b)

Marginal layer

c)

Basal plate

d)

Alar plate

36.

Regarding development of spinal cord, which component doesn’t contain neuroblasts?

a)

Basal plate

b)

Alar plate

c)

Marginal layer

d)

Floor plate

37.

All of the following glial cells have neuroepithelial cell origin except?

a)

Ependymal cells

b)

Oligodendrocytes

c)

Microglial cells

d)

Fibrillar astrocytes

38.

One among the following is a derivative of neural crest cell?

a)

Schwann cells

b)

Ependymal cells

c)

Fibrillar astrocytes

d)

Protoplasmic astrocytes

39.

Myelination of nerve fibers in spinal cord occurs in which month of intrauterine life?

a)

4th

b)

5th

c)

7th

d)

6th

40.

At birth, spinal cord lies at which level?

a)

L1 to L2

b)

S2

c)

L3

d)

L4 to L5

41.

Spina bifida occulta is a defect in the vertebral arches that is covered by skin. Most often it occurs in?

a)

Sacral region

b)

Lumbar region

c)

Thoracic region

d)

Both a and b

42.

A newborn presented with hydrocephalus. His CT scan revealed herniation of a part of cerebellum into foramen magnum. This defect is termed as?

a)

Exencephaly

b)

Craniorachischisis

c)

Arnold chiari malformation

d)

Meningomyelocele

43.

A woman who has a family history of neural tube defect. The recommended dose of folic acid will be?

a)

400 micro gram daily

b)

40 micro gram daily

c)

40 milli gram daily

d)

4000 milligrams daily

44.

Which of the following doesn’t contribute to brainstem?

a)

Mesencephalon

b)

Metencephalon

c)

Prosencephalon

d)

Myelencephalon

45.

Which lobe of cerebellum is phylogenetically the most primitive one?

a)

Anterior lobe

b)

Posterior lobe

c)

Flocculonodular lobe

d)

Spinocerebellum

46.

The part of hypophysis which in humans seems to have little significance develops from?

a)

Anterior wall of Rathke’s pouch

b)

Posterior wall of Rathke’s pouch

c)

Infundibulum

d)

Diencephalon

47.

Which of the following arise from remnants of Rathke’s pouch?

a)

Craniopharyngioma

b)

Rachischisis

c)

Meningomyelocele

d)

Holoprosencephaly

48.

During the course of development of cerebral hemispheres, the area between frontal and temporal lobes becomes depressed and is known as?

a)

Hippocampus

b)

Insula

c)

Corpus striatum

d)

Choroid fissure

49.

The first commissure to develop is?

a)

Corpus callosum

b)

Hippocampal commissure

c)

Anterior commissure

d)

Posterior commissure

50.

The most important commissure is the corpus callosum, which connects the nonolfactory areas of the right and the left cerebral cortices. By which week of development does it appear?

a)

7th

b)

8th

c)

9th

d)

10th

51.

A 29-year-old woman delivered a stillborn baby characterized by a cranial defect caused by failure of the cephalic part of the neural tube to close. Most probably he suffered from?

a)

Holoprosencephaly

b)

Exencephaly

c)

Schizencephaly

d)

Telencephalic vesicle

52.

Most common cause of hydrocephalus is?

a)

Tumor of choroid plexus

b)

Defect in the absorption of CSF

c)

Aqueductal stenosis

d)

All of the above

53.

A microcephalic child has some intellectual disability. The leading cause of intellectual disability in children is?

a)

Down syndrome

b)

Infection with rubella

c)

Toxoplasmosis

d)

Maternal alcohol abuse

54.

In a lecture on development of adrenal gland, the professor asked the students that the outermost layer of fetal cortex differentiates into?

a)

Glomerular zone

b)

Fascicular zone

c)

Reticular zone

d)

Medullary zone

55.

A newborn presented with episodes of vomiting to an emergency. Ultrasonic studies revealed an enlarged colon and the diagnosis of Hirschsprung disease was made. The most common site for Hirschsprung disease is

a)

Cecum

b)

Ascending colon

c)

Descending colon

d)

Rectum

56.

Dendrites and axons are types of:

a)

Neuroglia

b)

Schwan cells

c)

Neurites

d)

Microglia

57.

Smallest soma present in:

a)

Basket cells of cerebellar cortex

b)

Granule cells of cerebellar cortex

c)

Posterior horn cells of spinal cord

d)

Anterior horn cells of spinal cord

58.

Euchromatin in nuclei of neuron is indicative of:

a)

Less active protein synthesis in cytoplasm

b)

More active protein synthesis in cytoplasm

c)

More active lipid protein synthesis in cytoplasm

d)

More active carbohydrates protein synthesis in cytoplasm

59.

Not correct about Lipofuscin:

a)

Amount increase with age

b)

Lysosomal activity remnants

c)

Greenish yellow pigments

d)

Yellowish brown pigments

60.

Which of following is multipolar neuron:

a)

Posterior horn cells of spinal cord

b)

Vestibular ganglia

c)

Dorsal root ganglia

d)

Pyramidal cells of cerebral cortex

61.

T shaped manner is seen in:

a)

Dosral root ganglia neurons

b)

Anterior horn cells of spinal cord

c)

Cochlear ganglia

d)

Retinal neurons

62.

Which neurons do not produce action potential:

a)

Bipolar

b)

Andendritic

c)

Pyramidal cells of cerebral cortex

d)

Anaxonic neurons

63.

How much in CNS constitutes interneurons:

a)

88%

b)

99%

c)

40%

d)

10%

64.

As compared to dendrites,axons are:

a)

Smooth, thinner,long, curved

b)

Smooth, thinner,long, straight

c)

Rough, thicker,long, curved

d)

Rough, thinner,long, straight

65.

Axoplasm contains:

a)

SER

b)

Microtubules and neurofilaments

c)

Nissl substance

d)

Both A and B

66.

Impulse transmission is much faster in:

a)

Chemical synapse

b)

Mechanical synapse

c)

Electrical synapse

d)

Both A and C

67.

Thin covering formed by cytoplasm of schwan cells is called:

a)

Sheath of schwann

b)

Neurilemma

c)

Myelin sheath

d)

Btoh A and B

68.

Supporting cells of PNS are

a)

Neurolemmocytes

b)

Microglia

c)

Oligodendrocytes

d)

Bipolar neurons

69.

Trophic support to unmyelinated nerve fibers is supplied by:

a)

Oligodendrocytes

b)

Microglia

c)

Schwan cells

d)

Both A and C

70.

Which neurotransmitter is released at termination of somatic efferent fibers:

a)

Noradrenaline

b)

Acetylcholine

c)

Adrenaline

d)

Norepinephrine

71.

Astrocytomas are:

a)

Benign

b)

Malignant

c)

Common type of peripheral nervous system tumor

d)

Derived from schwan cells

72.

Directional flow of CSF is due to:

a)

Respiratory movements

b)

Arterial pulsations

c)

Gravity

d)

Ciliary beating of ependymal cells

73.

Pial layer contains:

a)

Collagen and elastic fibers

b)

Mast cells and macrophages

c)

Modified fibroblasts mainly

d)

Only blood vessels

74.

Blood brain barrier contains:

a)

Gap junctions

b)

Pericytes

c)

Tight junctions

d)

Both B and C

75.

CSF is first absorbed in:

a)

Veins

b)

Cavernous sinus

c)

Superior sagittal sinus

d)

Pulmonary vein

76.

Dural lymphatics open in subarachnoid space by:

a)

Stomata

b)

Large openings

c)

Very small openings

d)

Both A and B

77.

Cranial dura matter is composed of how many layers:

a)

2

b)

4

c)

7

d)

8

78.

Layers of cranial dura matter continuous with spinal dura matter at:

a)

Foramen spinosum

b)

Foramen rotundum

c)

Foramen magnum

d)

Suprior nuchal lines

79.

Dura matter:

a)

Thick

b)

Dense and irregular connective tissue

c)

Fibroblasts and type 1 collagen fibres

d)

All

80.

Neuropil:

a)

Meshwork of dendrites and axons

b)

Meshwork of dendrites,axons and neuroglial cells in white matter

c)

Meshwork of dendrites,axons and neuroglial cells in gray matter

d)

both B and C

81.

Which of the following statements about neurotransmitters is true

a)

all neurotransmitters are derived from amino acids

b)

large molecule transmitters include ATP and NO

c)

Dopamine and histamine are small molecule neurotransmitters

d)

norepinephrine can act as neurotransmitter in periphery and neuromodulator in CNS

82.

All sensory information is discarded by brain

a)

1%

b)

44%

c)

66%

d)

99%

e)

0%

83.

Corelease of which of the following regulates sleep-wake cycles

a)

glutamate and dopamine

b)

GABA and glutamate

c)

melatonin and glycin

d)

dopamine and serotonin

e)

serotonin and glutamate

84.

a patient with an epileptic episode is presented in the ER , a small molecule rapidly acting neurotransmitter which enhances the effect of medicine is

a)

GABA

b)

glutamate

c)

ATP

d)

seretonin

e)

dopamine

85.

A 65 year old woman underwent surgery has suffered brain damage, she cannot wake up due to damage to wakeful center of brain

a)

Lower brain centers

b)

Upper brain centers

c)

CEREBRAL CORTEX

d)

cerebellum

e)

all

86.

Transduction describes

a)

transmission of signals across synapses by neurotransmitters

b)

the transmission of nerve impulses from receptors to cortex

c)

the translation of the stimulus into a code of action potentials

d)

the generation of conscious mental states from nerve impulses

87.

the channeling and processing of information is called

a)

integrative function of cns

b)

destructive function of cns

c)

progressive function of cns

d)

excitatory function of cns

e)

inhibitory function of cns

88.

A woman is facing memory loss problems due to an accident , most of the storage occurs in

a)

cerebellum

b)

limbic system

c)

cerebral cortex

d)

pons

e)

medulla

89.

chemical synapses are

a)

independent of direction

b)

unidirectional

c)

bidirectional

d)

tridirectional

90.

in electrical synapses the cytoplasm of adjacent cells are directly connected by cluster of ion channels called

a)

gap junctions

b)

na channels

c)

cl channels

d)

inhibitory channels

e)

excitatory channels

91.

presynaptic terminals are also called

a)

synaptic knobs

b)

terminal knobs

c)

end feet

d)

all

e)

none

92.

norepinephrine secreting neurons are located in

a)

locus ceruleus

b)

substantia nigra

c)

caudate nucleus

d)

all

e)

none

93.

an inhibitory neurotransmitter which originates in substantia nigra and lack of which causes parkinsons is

a)

dopamine

b)

serotonin

c)

glutamate

d)

gaba

e)

glycine

94.

neurotransmitter that originates in median raphe , causes inhibition of pain and is believed to help control mood of the person and perhaps even sleep is

a)

dopamine

b)

serotonin

c)

glutamate

d)

gaba

e)

glycine

95.

it is produced by nerve terminals in areas of brain responsible for long term behavior and memory

a)

nitric oxide

b)

serotonin

c)

glutamate

d)

co2

e)

glycine

96.

which of the following is false

a)

fatigue causes to lose excess excitability

b)

fatigue is beneficial in epileptic seizure

c)

fatigue may result from abnormal concentration of ions inside neuron

d)

progressive activation of many postsynaptic membrane receptors

e)

none

97.

alkolosis greatly increases neuronal activity

a)

excitability

b)

inhibitory function

c)

doesn’t effect neuron

d)

all

e)

none

98.

acidosis greatly depresses neuronal activity , a fall of pH from 7.4 to 7.0 causes

a)

excitability

b)

comatose state

c)

hyperactivity

d)

increase in temperature

e)

none

99.

A 60 year old man went to k2 and started suffering from hypoxia. Effect of hypoxia on synaptic transmission is

a)

inexcitibility

b)

excitibility

c)

hyperactivity

d)

increase in temperature

e)

none

100.

this neurotransmitter is best known to increase excitability of neurons by inhibiting the action of inhibitory neurotransmitter substance

a)

anesthetics

b)

caffeine

c)

strychnine

d)

theobromine

e)

theophylline

101.

synaptic delay can be used to

a)

estimate the number of series neurons in the cell

b)

cause repetitive excitation

c)

cause repetitive inhibition

d)

all

e)

none

102.

excessive discharge from a single presynaptic terminal can add to one another is called

a)

temporal summation

b)

spatial summation

c)

temporary summation

d)

permenant summation

e)

none

103.

summing postsynaptic potentials by activating multiple terminals on widely spaced area of neuronal membrane is called

a)

temporal summation

b)

spatial summation

c)

temporary summation

d)

permenant summation

e)

none

104.

neurotransmitter that opens cation channels is

a)

excitatory

b)

inhibitory

c)

neutral

d)

cl ion

e)

none

105.

inhibitory neurotransmittors open

a)

leaky channels

b)

cation channels

c)

anion channels

d)

gated channels

e)

all

106.

receptors activation controls opening of ion channels by activating second messenger is called

a)

metabotropic receptors

b)

inotropic receptors

c)

excitatory receptors

d)

inhibitory receptors

e)

none

107.

the second messenger G-protein consists of

a)

GDP

b)

alpha component

c)

beta component

d)

gamma component

e)

all

108.

receptor activation in postsynaptic membrane controlled by gating ion channels is called

a)

metabotropic receptors

b)

inotropic receptors

c)

excitatory receptors

d)

inhibitory receptors

e)

none

109.

which of the following is not a rapidly acting neurotransmitter

a)

atp

b)

aspartate

c)

carbon monoxide

d)

substance p

e)

melatonin

110.

which of the following does not belong to class 3 of rapidly acting neurotransmittors

a)

acetylcholine

b)

glycine

c)

glutamate

d)

gaba

e)

aspartate

111.

which of the following is not a slow acting neurotransmitter

a)

hypothalamic releasing harmones

b)

pituitary peptides

c)

insulin

d)

bradykinin

e)

epinephrine