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UNIT-III: LEVELS OF TESTING (50 MCQs)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Levels of testing are required to:

a)

Reduce cost

b)

Identify defects at different stages

c)

Improve UI only

d)

Delay development

2.

Unit testing is performed on:

a)

Complete system

b)

Individual components

c)

Database only

d)

End users

3.

Unit testing is mainly done by:

a)

End user

b)

Developer

c)

Customer

d)

Tester only

4.

A class is treated as a testable unit in:

a)

Java / OOP applications

b)

Web development only

c)

Hardware testing

d)

Beta testing

5.

Unit test planning is done during:

a)

Integration phase

b)

Coding phase

6.

A test harness is:

a)

Data storage

b)

A collection of tools to support unit testing

c)

A compiler

d)

Customer environment

7.

Unit testing helps detect:

a)

System failures

b)

Logic and coding errors

c)

UI design issues

d)

Security threats only

8.

Integration testing verifies:

a)

Individual components

b)

Interaction between integrated modules

c)

Application performance

d)

Database design

9.

Top-down integration testing uses:

a)

Drivers

b)

Stubs

c)

Compilers

d)

Automated scripts only

10.

Bottom-up integration testing uses:

a)

Stubs

b)

Drivers

11.

System testing is done to test:

a)

Small units

b)

Entire software system

c)

A single class

d)

Only GUI

12.

Regression testing ensures:

a)

Unchanged modules still work after modifications

b)

Only new features work

c)

System shuts down properly

d)

Installation success

13.

Alpha testing is done at:

a)

Customer site

b)

Developer site

c)

Live production

d)

Remote testing

14.

Beta testing is performed at:

a)

Developer site

b)

User environment

c)

Testing lab

d)

Server room

15.

Acceptance testing ensures:

a)

Code quality

b)

Software meets user requirements

16.

Unit tests should be:

a)

Complex

b)

Repeatable and simple

c)

Manual only

d)

Unpredictable

17.

Smoke testing is also known as:

a)

Sanity testing

b)

Build verification testing

c)

Load testing

d)

Debug testing

18.

Sanity testing is performed after:

a)

Major release

b)

Minor changes or fixes

c)

Documentation

d)

UI completion

19.

Functional testing belongs to:

a)

System testing

b)

Integration testing

c)

Acceptance testing

d)

All of the above

20.

Non-functional testing includes:

a)

Performance testing

b)

Boundary testing

21.

Load testing is done to check:

a)

Structural design

b)

System performance under expected load

c)

UI screens

d)

Security

22.

Stress testing verifies:

a)

Stability under extreme conditions

b)

Minor functional errors

c)

Documentation

d)

Hardware parts

23.

Compatibility testing ensures:

a)

System runs on different environments

b)

Only functional accuracy

c)

Database backup

d)

Hardware stability

24.

Usability testing focuses on:

a)

Code structure

b)

User experience

c)

Database performance

d)

Network reliability

25.

Security testing ensures:

a)

UI looks good

b)

System protects data and prevents unauthorized access

26.

A test report for unit testing includes:

a)

Execution status

b)

Code screenshot

c)

Login credentials

d)

Marketing plan

27.

Test data preparation is part of:

a)

Debugging

b)

Test execution

c)

Test planning

d)

System deployment

28.

Regression testing is triggered by:

a)

Code changes

b)

New feature development

c)

Bug fix

d)

All of the above

29.

Integration test planning must consider:

a)

Testing sequence

b)

Module dependency

c)

Stubs and drivers

d)

All of the above

30.

Record and replay tools are useful in:

a)

Unit testing

b)

Regression testing

31.

Testing begins with:

a)

Unit testing

b)

System testing

c)

Beta testing

d)

Acceptance testing

32.

Black-box techniques are mainly used in:

a)

Unit testing

b)

System testing

c)

Acceptance testing

d)

Both b and c

33.

White-box techniques are mainly used in:

a)

Unit testing

b)

Integration testing

c)

System testing

d)

Beta testing

34.

Integration strategies include:

a)

Big-bang

b)

Top-down

c)

Bottom-up

d)

All of the above

35.

Big-bang integration testing disadvantage:

a)

Easier to test

b)

Difficult to isolate defects

36.

Test automation is more useful in:

a)

One-time tests

b)

Regression testing

c)

Beta testing

d)

Documentation

37.

End-to-end testing verifies:

a)

Small modules

b)

Complete workflow

c)

Debug logs

d)

Sample outputs

38.

Recovery testing checks:

a)

Restart capability after failure

b)

Speed

c)

UI color

d)

Installation

39.

Volume testing examines performance with:

a)

Low data

b)

Very large data

c)

No data

d)

Sample data

40.

Keyword-driven testing belongs to:

a)

Manual testing

b)

Automation framework

41.

Unit tests must include:

a)

Test data

b)

Expected output

c)

Inputs and execution steps

d)

All of the above

42.

System test types include:

a)

Functional

b)

Non-functional

c)

Regression

d)

All of the above

43.

Acceptance testing is usually conducted by:

a)

Developers

b)

Customers or end users

c)

Security professionals

d)

Maintenance team

44.

Alpha testing comes before:

a)

Unit testing

b)

Beta testing

c)

Integration

d)

Requirements

45.

A build that fails smoke testing is:

a)

Accepted

b)

Rejected

46.

Sanity testing checks:

a)

Minor fixes

b)

Full functionality

c)

Production environment only

d)

Documentation

47.

System testing environment should be:

a)

Very different from user environment

b)

Similar to production environment

c)

Local laptop only

d)

No environment required

48.

Pilot testing is similar to:

a)

Load testing

b)

Beta testing

c)

Unit testing

d)

Boundary testing

49.

Smoke testing is done:

a)

Before detailed functional testing

b)

After deployment

c)

During beta stage

d)

After acceptance

50.

Goal of levels of testing is:

a)

Reduce testing

b)

Improve defect detection using multiple stages

51.

Choose the correct option:

a)

Add new feature

b)

Fix critical bug

c)

Delay release

d)

Remove documentation

52.

Test management primarily focuses on

a)

Coding

b)

Planning and controlling testing activities

c)

Writing documentation

d)

Designing UI

53.

Testing and debugging goals must be defined during

a)

Deployment

b)

Test Planning

c)

Maintenance

d)

Coding

54.

Which document defines how testing will be carried out?

a)

SRS

b)

Test Plan

c)

Vision Document

d)

Test Strategy

55.

A test plan is usually prepared by the

a)

Developer

b)

Client

c)

Test Manager

d)

End user

56.

Which of the following is NOT a test plan component?

(a)  

57.

Test objectives describe:

a)

What testing will achieve

b)

Who will use the software

c)

Cost of testing

d)

Design patterns

58.

A Test Plan Attachment usually contains:

a)

Test Data

b)

Source Code

c)

User Manuals

d)

Sales Forecast

59.

Locating test items refers to identifying:

a)

Stakeholders

b)

Requirements

c)

The components to be tested

d)

Hardware setup

60.

The final outcome of testing is documented in the:

a)

Bug log

b)

Test report

c)

Risk matrix

d)

Review form

61.

A test result report should be:

a)

Complex

b)

Understandable

62.

Which group creates test policies and procedures?

a)

End users

b)

Management

c)

Operation staff

d)

Customers

63.

The testing specialist group mainly deals with:

a)

Designing UI

b)

Executing tests

c)

Writing business proposals

d)

Marketing strategies

64.

A policy document defines:

a)

Test cases

b)

Rules and guidelines for testing

c)

Coding style

d)

Regression timelines

65.

Testing and debugging are:

a)

Same

b)

Opposites

c)

Complementary

d)

Not related

66.

Debugging is performed by:

a)

Tester

b)

Developer

67.

The role of testing group in planning includes:

a)

Estimating resources

b)

Creating UI mockups

c)

Deployment activities

d)

Database setup

68.

A testing group must possess skills such as:

a)

UX design

b)

Analytical and technical skill

c)

Sales negotiation

d)

Photography

69.

Building a testing group involves:

a)

Hiring and skill development

b)

Removing automation

c)

Stopping training

d)

Changing product features

70.

Which of the following is a part of test policy development?

a)

Test coverage rules

b)

Marketing strategy

c)

UI design guideline

d)

None

71.

Test scheduling includes:

a)

Debug steps

b)

Timeline for activities

72.

A good test plan must be:

a)

Ambiguous

b)

Flexible and clear

c)

Confidential

d)

Very lengthy

73.

Entry and exit criteria define:

a)

Who writes code

b)

When testing starts and stops

c)

Cost of project

d)

Business risks

74.

Risk analysis in test planning helps in:

a)

Increasing product defects

b)

Mitigating issues before testing

c)

Reducing coverage

d)

Removing manual testing

75.

Scope of testing identifies:

a)

What will be tested

b)

What will NOT be tested

c)

Both a and b

d)

Only test schedule

76.

A good test report must include:

a)

Test results and defect statistics

b)

Source code

77.

Traceability matrix is used for:

a)

Linking requirements to test cases

b)

Designing UI

c)

Managing budget

d)

Database mapping

78.

The primary audience for a test report is:

a)

Testers only

b)

Developers and managers

c)

End users

d)

Public

79.

Test metrics help in:

a)

Measuring effectiveness

b)

Debugging

c)

Changing UI

d)

Deployment

80.

Resource planning determines:

a)

Code architecture

b)

Hardware, software, manpower required

c)

User feedback

d)

UI color

81.

Communication in testing must be:

a)

Delayed

b)

Clear and continuous

82.

Test environment setup includes:

a)

Hardware setup

b)

Software installation

c)

Database setup

d)

All of the above

83.

Which group approves the final test strategy?

a)

Test Engineer

b)

Management

c)

Customer

d)

Developer

84.

Test execution is guided by:

a)

Test strategy

b)

Test plan

c)

Both a and b

d)

None

85.

A bug triage meeting is held to:

a)

Write test cases

b)

Prioritize defects

c)

Train new users

d)

Perform acceptance testing

86.

A stable testing team improves:

a)

Defect count

b)

Test consistency and accuracy

87.

Test planning begins during:

a)

Requirement phase

b)

Deployment phase

c)

Maintenance phase

d)

After coding

88.

Test execution schedule defines:

a)

Who will run tests and when

b)

User interface details

c)

Network setup

d)

Business strategy

89.

Test deliverables include:

a)

Test plan

b)

Test scripts

c)

Test report

d)

All of the above

90.

Pilot testing is mainly done during:

a)

Planning

b)

Final acceptance testing

c)

Deployment

d)

Debugging

91.

A skilled testing group reduces:

a)

Test accuracy

b)

Risk of product failure

92.

A review of the test plan ensures:

a)

Proper test coverage

b)

UI consistency

c)

Code formatting

d)

Packaging

93.

Test management tools help in:

a)

Writing code

b)

Tracking test cases and results

c)

Marketing

d)

Billing

94.

Which skill is most important for testers?

a)

Analytical thinking

b)

Drawing

c)

Singing

d)

Cooking

95.

Test policy defines:

a)

High-level test guidelines

b)

Individual test steps

c)

Debug instructions

d)

Code comments

96.

A defect reporting system must track:

a)

Status

b)

Priority

97.

Test control ensures:

a)

Testing stays on schedule

b)

Testers stop reporting bugs

c)

UI is updated

d)

Database is clean

98.

Stakeholders use test reports to:

a)

Approve release decisions

b)

Change UI theme

c)

Write test cases

d)

Debug code

99.

A well-defined testing policy helps in:

a)

Standardizing testing process

b)

Increasing software size

c)

Reducing quality

d)

Avoiding automation

100.

Testing maturity improves when:

a)

Policies and procedures evolve

b)

Tester skill decreases

c)

Communication stops

d)

No documentation exists

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