Free Printable ECG Interpretation Quiz

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ECG Interpretation Quiz

Total questions: 28

Worksheet time: 14mins

Name

Class

Date

1.

What does the P wave represent?

a)

Ventricular depolarization

b)

Atrial depolarization

c)

Atrial repolarization

d)

Ventricular repolarization

2.

A tall, peaked P wave (>2.5 mm) in lead II suggests:

a)

Left atrial enlargement

b)

Right atrial enlargement

c)

Ventricular hypertrophy

d)

Hyperkalemia

3.

Normal PR interval duration is:

a)

60-100 ms

b)

120-200 ms

c)

200-240 ms

d)

>240 ms

4.

A prolonged PR interval indicates:

a)

Bundle branch block

b)

First-degree AV block

c)

Ventricular tachycardia

d)

Sinus arrest

5.

What does the QRS complex represent?

a)

Atrial depolarization

b)

Ventricular depolarization

c)

Ventricular repolarization

d)

Atrial repolarization

6.

A QRS duration >120 ms suggests:

a)

Normal conduction

b)

Atrial flutter

c)

Ventricular origin or bundle branch block

d)

Hypercalcemia

7.

ST elevation in contiguous leads most commonly indicates:

a)

Pericarditis only

b)

Electrolyte imbalance

c)

Acute myocardial injury

d)

Atrial ischemia

8.

ST depression is classically associated with:

a)

Acute STEMI

b)

Subendocardial ischemia

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Early repolarization

9.

Peaked T waves are most characteristic of:

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Digoxin toxicity

10.

T-wave inversion can be seen in all EXCEPT:

a)

Ischemia

b)

Ventricular hypertrophy

c)

Bundle branch block

d)

Hypercalcemia

11.

Which ECG wave is usually NOT visible?

a)

P wave

b)

T wave

c)

U wave

d)

R wave

12.

Prominent U waves are seen in:

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hypercalcemia

d)

Acute MI

13.

Prolonged PR interval with all P waves conducted suggests:

a)

Mobitz I block

b)

Mobitz II block

c)

First-degree AV block

d)

Complete heart block

14.

A QRS duration >120 ms most commonly indicates:

a)

Left atrial enlargement

b)

Bundle branch block

c)

Sinus tachycardia

d)

Early repolarization

15.

ST elevation with PR depression suggests:

a)

Acute MI

b)

Pericarditis

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

LVH

16.

QT interval prolongation is seen in all EXCEPT:

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hypercalcemia

d)

Congenital long QT

17.

Hallmark ECG feature of atrial fibrillation is:

a)

Saw-tooth flutter waves

b)

Regularly irregular rhythm

c)

Irregularly irregular rhythm

d)

Absence of QRS complexes

18.

Ventricular rate in untreated AF is usually:

a)

<60/min

b)

60-80/min

c)

100-160/min

d)

>200/min

19.

AF is associated with increased risk of:

a)

Ventricular tachycardia

b)

Pulmonary embolism

c)

Ischemic stroke

d)

Aortic dissection

20.

Which ECG finding excludes atrial fibrillation?

a)

Absence of P waves

b)

Irregular RR interval

c)

Saw-tooth flutter waves

d)

Fibrillatory baseline

21.

ECG finding in first-degree AV block:

a)

Dropped QRS

b)

Progressive PR prolongation

c)

Prolonged PR with 1:1 conduction

d)

AV dissociation

22.

Wenckebach phenomenon refers to:

a)

Fixed PR with dropped beat

b)

Progressive PR prolongation then dropped QRS

c)

Complete AV dissociation

d)

Narrow QRS tachycardia

23.

Mobitz II block is characterized by:

a)

Narrow QRS

b)

Progressive PR prolongation

c)

Fixed PR with sudden dropped QRS

d)

Benign prognosis

24.

Most common site of block in Mobitz I:

a)

His-Purkinje system

b)

AV node

c)

Bundle branches

d)

Ventricles

25.

Complete heart block shows:

a)

P waves faster than QRS with no relation

b)

Irregular RR interval

c)

Narrow complex tachycardia

d)

Progressive PR prolongation

26.

Most common mechanism of paroxysmal SVT:

a)

Automaticity

b)

Reentry

c)

Triggered activity

d)

Enhanced vagal tone

27.

ECG feature favoring SVT over VT:

a)

AV dissociation

b)

Capture beats

c)

Fusion beats

d)

Narrow QRS

28.

Atrial flutter differs from AF by:

a)

Irregular rhythm

b)

Saw-tooth flutter waves

c)

Absence of P waves

d)

Variable ventricular response

100 %

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