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DIAGNOSTIC EXAMINATION IN CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The BUCOR is a decentralization of personnel functions, and the organizational structure shall have ________.

a)

Line and Staff

b)

Dynamic staffing design

c)

Line

d)

Staff

2.

Which is NOT the ground for the release of PDL?

a)

Maximum expiration of his/her sentence

b)

Order of the court or competent authority

c)

After the granting of parole, probation, pardon, amnesty

d)

Registered Criminologists

3.

Which terms are NOT considered the “Immediate family”?

a)

Fiancé

b)

Spouse

c)

Parent

d)

Cousin

4.

Which is NOT subject to separation or retirement from service in relation to educational requirements?

a)

Below fifty (50) years of age and have served in the government for less than twenty (20) years

b)

Fifty (50) years and above, and have served in the government for at least twenty (20) years

c)

Conviction of a heinous crime

5.

When interviewing PDL in the BUCOR by the Media, the written request must address the Director General through the Public Affairs Service, and the request must be filed at least how many working days before the proposed interview?

a)

The superintendent shall act within 24 hours on the approved request upon receipt.

b)

In the case of HR/HP, VCE, and the like, shall be for approval of the Secretary of Justice

c)

Superintendent, through the Chief Overseer, shall notify the PDL of written consent for an interview if refused, then denied

d)

No Frontal shots of PDL during an interview

e)

5 days

6.

Which of the following is considered PDL with special needs?

a)

Politician

b)

Mentally stable person

c)

Habitual Delinquent

d)

Woman Prisoner

7.

What is the rank of the 2nd in command in BJMP?

a)

Jail Director

b)

Brigadier General

c)

Jail Chief Superintendent

d)

CHAPS Reviewees

8.

The Chief BJMP will retire by 2022. When the position becomes vacant, his successor will assume office. In this instance, who will endorse the jail director as the next Chief BJMP?

a)

Secretary of the DILG

b)

Chairman of the Civil Service Commission

c)

President

d)

Secretary DOJ

9.

Under the 2017 Comprehensive Administrative Disciplinary Mechanism of the BJMP, the President has jurisdiction over cases filed against personnel holding the rank of ________.

a)

Jail Superintendent and up

b)

Jail Senior Superintendent

c)

Jail Senior Inspector

d)

Jail Chief Superintendent and up

10.

10. Jail Officer 3 CHAPS was qualified for the Lateral Entry of Officers in the BJMP. His new rank shall commence as

a)

Senior Jail Officer 4

b)

Jail Superintendent

c)

Senior Jail Officer 1

d)

Jail Inspector

11.

The prison system introduced individual housing in cellblocks, and congregate work in shops during the day is called?

a)

Modern clinical school

b)

Pennsylvania System

c)

Auburn system

d)

Elmira Reformatory

12.

Which of the following is not included in the inmate’s body strip search?

a)

Examination of cases of splints or bandages for contraband

b)

Discovery and treatment of lice, if any

c)

Removal of jewelry

d)

Discovery of injuries and physical inabilities

13.

What is the privilege of the visiting husband or wife that the jail will allow for sexual intercourse?

a)

Conjugal visitation

b)

Furlough

c)

E-Dalaw

d)

E-Burul

14.

This is the seed of the Auburn prison system of the United States, wherein the rehabilitative concept pioneered the segregation of prisoners and forced silence to make prisoners contemplate their wrongdoings.

a)

Pennsylvania prison

b)

St. Michael, prisons

c)

New York House of Refuge

d)

Registered Criminologist

15.

CHAPS is a Dentist inside the penitentiary. Based on RA 10575, what type of corrections officer does he belong to?

a)

Jail Officer

b)

Reformation Officer (CTO)

c)

Custodial Officer (CO)

d)

Corrections Officer

16.

The BJMP is conducting this operation, during which a prisoner may be checked at any time. His bedding, lockers, and personal belongings may also be opened at any time, in his presence, whenever possible.

a)

Check and balance

b)

Shakedown

c)

Searching

d)

Operation Greyhound

17.

CHAPS convicted to serve 6 years imprisonment would be classified as what kind of prisoner?

a)

Insular prisoner

b)

Municipal prisoner

c)

Detention prisoner

d)

Provincial prisoner

18.

One sentenced to a prison term of six months and one day to three years.

a)

City prisoner

b)

Provincial prisoner

c)

Insular prisoner

d)

Municipal prisoner

19.

CHAPS who are sentenced to serve a prison term of over three years are also known as ________.

a)

National or insular prisoner

b)

Municipal prisoner

c)

City prisoner

d)

Detention prisoner

20.

One sentenced to a prison term of 3 years and 1 day to reclusion Perpetua or life imprisonment.

a)

Insular prisoner

b)

Provincial prisoner

c)

Municipal prisoner

d)

City prisoner

21.

CHAPS was convicted of the crime of murder and was committed to San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm (BUCOR). If you classify CHAPS, what classification of prisoner would he be?

a)

Provincial prisoner

b)

Municipal prisoner

c)

Insular prisoner (National prisoner)

d)

City/District prisoner

22.

What is this process for determining the needs and requirements of prisoners for assigning them to programs according to their existing resources?

a)

Diversification

b)

Quarantine

c)

Classification

d)

Social case study

23.

This refers to the administration in BUCOR, which is responsible for proper nutrition, hygiene, sanitation, cleanliness, and promoting good health among inmates.

a)

Education and training program

b)

Sports and recreation program

c)

Behavior modification program

d)

Health and welfare program

e)

Work and livelihood program

24.

The punishment should be provided by the state whose sanction is violated to allow society or individuals to impose suitable punishment upon the offender as might be enforced.

a)

Deterrence

b)

Retribution

c)

Incapacitation

d)

Atonement

25.

What is this self-help social learning treatment model used in the rehabilitation of drug offenders and other clients with behavioral problems (stealing and alcohol)?

a)

Reintegration

b)

Restorative justice

c)

Reformation

d)

Therapeutic Community

26.

CHAPS was convicted of multiple crimes, and his conviction involves imprisonment/incarceration/total encapsulation so that he can be prevented from committing similar crimes. The purpose of his imprisonment is known ________.

a)

Reformation

b)

Incapacitation

c)

Prevention

d)

Retribution

27.

Which of these teams has the duties and responsibilities of escorting high-ranking/key officers and other dignitaries of the state?

a)

Quick response team

b)

Crisis management group

c)

Special tactics and response team

d)

Anti-riot group

28.

These are inmates who are likely and have the tendency to escape from the jail facility.

a)

Escape-prone inmates

b)

High-risk inmates in BJMP

c)

Jail aide

d)

High-profile inmates in BJMP

29.

CHAPS is an ACTOR convicted of rape. In the classification of security, he belongs to _____

a)

High profile

b)

Chapoopy

c)

High-risk

d)

High-Value Target

30.

While on duty, the Corrections Officer must ensure that they bring with them the correct number of rounds.

a)

25

b)

30

c)

40

d)

50

31.

This process involves determining the needs and requirements of prisoners before assigning them to a program based on existing resources, a process known as ________.

a)

Quarantine

b)

Quality control

c)

Diversification

d)

Classification

32.

How long is the duration of stay in the viewing of the deceased relative of an inmate?

a)

3 hours

b)

12 hours

c)

6 hours

d)

2 hours

33.

When a prisoner evades sentencing or escapes during a calamity and returns within 48 hours after the passing away of the catastrophe, the prisoner shall be entitled to a deduction

a)

4/5 of the period of his sentence

b)

1/5 of the period of his sentence

c)

2/5 of the period of sentence

d)

3/5 of the period of his sentence

34.

These prisoners cannot be trusted in open conditions and pose less danger to society if they escape.

a)

Minimum security camp

b)

Medium security prisoners

c)

Minimum security prisoners

d)

Maximum security prisoners

35.

This unit examines the completeness and authenticity of the commitment requirements (commitment order, booking sheet, arrest report, and information) before it refers the inmate for physical examination by the health unit.

a)

Property custodian

b)

Health unit

c)

Desk officer

d)

Records unit

36.

After the Gater checks the documentation, the PDL shall proceed to what unit?

a)

Record

b)

Medical

c)

Health

d)

Escort

37.

Who will be responsible for taking measures to abate (to neutralize) the tension in the tail in the event of a crisis until the intervention of crisis response authorities?

a)

Quick response team (QRT)

b)

Crisis management group

c)

Special Tactics and Response (STAR) team

d)

Anti-riot group

38.

What form of executive clemency was given when it reduced the sentence of a convicted person to a shorter term?

a)

Commutation of sentence

b)

Reprieve

c)

Amnesty

d)

Pardon

39.

This is an investigation conducted by the parole and probation officer that is outside the jurisdiction of the trial court.

a)

Post-sentence investigation

b)

Courtesy investigation report

c)

Pre-parole investigation report

40.

A disposition under which a defendant, after a conviction and sentence, is released subject to a condition imposed by a court and supervision by a probation officer.

a)

Executive clemency

b)

Parole

c)

Probation

d)

Recognizance

41.

The conditional pardon for a petitioner must have served at least _____ of the minimum of his indeterminate sentence.

a)

¼

b)

½

c)

1/5

d)

2/5

42.

This refers to the method of correcting sentenced offenders without having to go to prison.

a)

Institutional corrections

b)

Non-institutional corrections

c)

Therapeutic community modality program

d)

Corrections

43.

Pardon is given only after conviction, while _____ may be exercised even before investigation, trial, or conviction.

a)

Amnesty

b)

Probation

c)

Pardon

d)

Parole

44.

An alien parolee turned over for disposition, documentation, and appropriate order, which agency shall accept him for this matter?

a)

Board of pardons and parole

b)

Bureau of Corrections

c)

National bureau of investigation

d)

Bureau of immigration and deportation

45.

This refers to an act of grace, and the recipient is not entitled to it as a matter of right.

a)

Pardon

b)

Reprieve

c)

Parole

d)

Commutation of sentence

46.

All but one are major rehabilitation programs of probation.

a)

Volunteer probation aide program

b)

Retributive justice

c)

Therapeutic Community

d)

Restorative justice

47.

The investigation report (PSIR) of the probation officer shall be submitted to the court not later than —

a)

30 days from the receipt of the order

b)

15 days from the receipt of the application

c)

10 days from the receipt of the application

d)

60 days from the receipt of the order

48.

What refers to the deferment of the implementation of the sentence to an interval time?

a)

Amnesty

b)

Probation

c)

Pardon

d)

Reprieve

49.

Chuppai is a convicted felon whose application for probation has been granted but who fails to report to the proper probation officer within 72 hours upon receipt of notice, or a probationer whose whereabouts cannot be determined for more than a month.

a)

Fugitive from justice

b)

Absconding probationer

c)

Petitioner

d)

Absconding petitioner

50.

Parole and probation administration is under the direction of the _____

a)

Department of the Interior and Local Government

b)

BJMP

c)

Department of Justice

d)

Bucor

51.

Person placed on probation.

a)

Parolee

b)

Pardonee

c)

Client

d)

Probationer

52.

After release from prison, when does a parolee present himself (report) to the parole and probation officer?

a)

At least three weeks from release

b)

Within the period prescribed in the release document (within 15 days)

c)

At least one month from release

d)

Within three weeks of release

53.

Probation is only granted _____

a)

Many times

b)

Twice

c)

Once

d)

Unlimited

54.

For amnesty to be granted, there should be _____

a)

Recommendation from the commission on human rights

b)

Application for amnesty

c)

Concurrence of the majority of the Congress

d)

Recommendation from the United Nations

55.

Under the indeterminate sentence law (Act 4103), who acts as the chairman of the board of pardons and parole?

a)

PNP Chief

b)

DOJ Secretary

c)

CHIEF Executive

d)

DILG Secretary

56.

It is the authority of the president of the Philippines to suspend the execution of the penalty reduce sentence and extinguish criminal liability.

a)

Clemency

b)

Commutation of sentence

c)

Executive clemency

d)

Amnesty

57.

When the prisoner is pardoned, there are specific administrative requirements, such as reporting monthly to a judge for a certain number of years.

a)

Situational pardon

b)

Absolute pardon

c)

Pardon

d)

Conditional pardon

58.

Under the rules, a parolee who violates a provision of parole should be recommitted to the prison to serve the –

a)

The remaining unexpired portion of his maximum sentence

b)

The remaining unexpired portion of his minimum sentence

c)

Quarter or 1/4 of the unserved portion of his sentence

d)

All of these

59.

The application for probation shall be filed with the court that has jurisdiction over the matter.

a)

Probation office

b)

Trial court

c)

Warden's office

d)

Prosecution office

60.

One advantage of probation is that it protects society by placing the offender under the probation supervision of the _____

a)

Probation officer

b)

Trial court

61.

What shall the applicant accomplish once he reports to the probation officer during the initial interview?

a)

A. Post-sentence investigation worksheet

b)

B. Interview worksheet

c)

C. Investigation worksheet

62.

The order of the court granting or denying probation shall be ___

a)

Temporary

b)

Appealable

c)

Not appealable

63.

An application for probation shall be filed with the trial court, which has ___ over the case.

a)

Authority

b)

Jurisdiction

c)

Responsibility

d)

Venue

64.

Probation is not right, but a mere privilege, and its grant or denial depends upon the trial court that grants it. It becomes a ___. And it shall only be canceled or revoked for cause after a hearing.

a)

Statutory right

b)

Political rights

c)

Constitutional rights

d)

Civil rights

65.

The conviction and sentence clause of the statutory definition of probation affects ___

a)

Both criminal and civil, including subsidiary penalty

b)

Both criminal and civil

c)

Only the civil aspect of the case

d)

Only the criminal aspect of the case

66.

What is the nature of the information obtained during the post-sentence investigation?

a)

Useful

b)

Confidential

c)

Important

d)

Overt

67.

Which is not a function of the board secretary of the board of pardons and parole?

a)

Authenticate and/or attest all minutes, resolutions, and recommendations of the board

b)

Prepare and serve all notices of board meetings or sessions to the members of the board

c)

Prepare and maintain the minutes of all board sessions in a dedicated book

d)

Prepare an annual report to be submitted to the president about the list of probationers

68.

Parole shall not be granted to the following inmates except ___

a)

Those convicted of offenses punished with the death penalty

b)

Those convicted of treason, conspiracy, or proposal to commit treason or espionage

c)

Those suffering from a mental disorder

d)

Those convicted of offenses punished with prisión correccional

69.

A mode of securing the release of any person in custody or detention for the commission of an offense who is unable to post bail due to abject poverty. A person accused will be released by a reputable person in the community, as ordered by the judge, known as a ___

a)

Bail

b)

Probation

c)

Parole

d)

Release on recognizance

70.

This is a temporary withholding of sentence before or after judgment; as when the judge is not satisfied with the verdict, or evidence is suspicious, or indictment is insufficient, or sometimes if it be a minor felony or any favorable circumstances appear in the criminal’s character.

a)

Reprieve

b)

Executive reprieve

c)

Judicial reprieve

d)

Legislative reprieve

71.

Which is NOT aimed at granting release on recognizance (ROR)?

a)

Guarantee the appearance of the accused before any court when so required.

b)

Prevent the undue incarceration of an accused who may be released after trial unless proven guilty.

c)

Protect the people and the peace of the community, which may be disturbed upon the temporary release of the accused.

d)

None of these

72.

What is the mandate of the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP)?

a)

Safekeeping and development of inmates

b)

Decongest the jail and prison

c)

To control the overall city and municipal jails

d)

All of these

73.

What is the Directorate of the BJMP’s task for the Therapeutic Community Modality Program (TCMP)?

a)

Directorate For Behavior and Modification

b)

Directorate For Welfare and Development

c)

Directorate For Reception and Diagnostic

d)

All Of These

74.

A self-help social learning treatment model that utilizes the community as the primary therapeutic vehicle to foster behavioral and attitudinal change.

a)

Therapeutic Community Modality

b)

Therapeutic Community

c)

Therapeutic Community Modality Program

d)

Inmate Classification and Counseling Unit

75.

In BJMP, the Therapeutic Community Modality Program (TCMP) was introduced in what year?

a)

2002

b)

2017

c)

5th century

d)

1998

76.

What is the Therapeutic Community Modality Program, and the Four Interconnected Development Aspects?

a)

All Of These

b)

Intellectual

c)

Behavior Management

d)

Emotional And Psychological

e)

SPIRITUAL

77.

What mandate of the BJMP focuses on the TCMP?

a)

Development of inmates

b)

Safekeeping

c)

Safekeeping of national PDL

d)

All of these

78.

What are the Cardinal rules in TC?

a)

No sex or sexual acting out

b)

No drugs/ alcohol

c)

No violence or threat of violence

d)

No stealing

e)

All of these

79.

The following are phases in TCMP Except.

a)

Phase IV- Re-Entry

b)

Phase III- Pre-Re-Entry

c)

Phase II- Primary Treatment

d)

Phase I- Entry/Orientation

e)

None Of These

80.

If a resident is placed on orientation, he should be placed in which area?

a)

Reception And Diagnostic Room/Orientation Room

b)

Directorate For Reception and Diagnostic

c)

Inmate Classification and Counseling Unit

d)

Rehabilitation Center

81.

If a resident is in Phase I, who will support them and guide them through the orientation phase?

a)

Senior Resident

b)

Big Brother

c)

Role Model

d)

Staff

82.

A resident becomes a part of the community, starting at the Housekeeping Department, and gradually ascends in the hierarchy. As what?

a)

Role Model

b)

Crew Member

c)

Department Head

d)

Peer

83.

In this Phase, the resident is expected to have internalized the TC values and concept to start life afresh.

a)

Phase I- Entry/Orientation Phase

b)

Phase II- Primary Treatment

c)

Phase III- Pre-Re-Entry

d)

Phase IV- Re-Entry

84.

The resident is expected to have proven his ability to take on more responsibility, hence needs less supervision, and he will now be ________.

a)

Role Model

b)

Staff

c)

Family

d)

Peer

85.

This stage is now ready to be released back to society as he has demonstrated adequate self-control and discipline.

a)

Phase I- Entry/Orientation Phase

b)

Phase II- Primary Treatment

c)

Phase III- Pre-Re-Entry

d)

Phase IV- Re-Entry

86.

An outpatient program that requires clients to report twice a week to an outreach center.

a)

Phase II- Primary Treatment

b)

Phase III- Pre-Re-Entry

c)

Phase IV- Re-Entry

d)

Phase V- Aftercare

87.

Clients released from jail are referred to which agency for follow-up and aftercare.

a)

DOJ-Parole and Probation Administration (FOR MONITORING)

b)

Local Government

c)

Department Of Justice

d)

Both A and B

88.

A resident shall observe their peers to correct erring members, which is referred to as ________.

a)

Watchdogs

b)

Peer

c)

Department Head

d)

Staff

89.

Fifteen minutes are allotted for the Pre-Morning Meeting, which is held early in the morning before the Morning Meeting. What is the purpose of the Pre-Morning Meeting?

a)

To discuss the attitude of the house on the previous day with senior members

b)

To formulate solutions to the concerns discussed and to be executed during the day

c)

Both a and b

d)

None of the above

90.

Morning meeting is a daily ritual that starts the day in a TC facility. How long is the prescribed period for the morning meeting?

a)

Fifteen minutes daily

b)

One hour daily

c)

Three hours daily

d)

Monday

91.

Morning meetings included the following, except.

a)

Opening prayer

b)

Singing of the Philippine national anthem

c)

The recitation of the TC philosophy

d)

None of these

92.

It is a review of how the community performed in the previous day and checks on the behavior of erring members through the conduct of "pull-ups".

a)

Enhancement of public image

b)

Public announcements and community concerns

c)

Reintegration

d)

Rehabilitation and reformation

93.

It is done as an expression of concern over the lapses of some members and encourages ownership of mistakes on the part of the violators.

a)

Pull-ups

b)

Haircut

c)

Bans

d)

General assembly

94.

A behavior-shaping tool consisting of a five-member panel that addresses a resident's infraction.

a)

Pull-ups

b)

Haircut

c)

Bans

d)

General assembly

95.

A member of the TC community holding a position such as static group leader and their assistant, and in charge of various special services groups.

a)

Senior resident

b)

Role model

c)

Crew member

d)

All of these

96.

A specialized group activity focused on discussing ways to manage anger.

a)

Anger management

b)

Behavior management

c)

Stress management

d)

Crisis management

97.

Information given to all residents.

a)

Notification

b)

Announcement

c)

Report

d)

Information

98.

The general condition of the TC family, including incidents, positive and negative.

a)

Attitudes

b)

Behavior

c)

Personality

d)

Character

99.

A behavior shaping tool to prohibit a resident from a specific area, activity, verbal, or another client.

a)

Pull-ups

b)

Haircut

c)

Bans

d)

General assembly

100.

An older member of the community was tasked to guide the newly committed residents.

a)

Senior member

b)

Big brother

c)

Older member

d)

Member