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CSF20303_Chap5: Process Scheduling

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A system has 70% CPU utilization. After increasing multiprogramming, utilization becomes 90%. What principle is being applied?

a)

Reducing context switches

b)

Increasing CPU–I/O overlap

c)

Reducing response time

d)

Increasing dispatch latency

2.

If a process frequently alternates between CPU and I/O bursts, it is best classified as:

a)

CPU-bound

b)

I/O-bound

c)

Real-time

d)

Batch

3.

Given three processes with completion rates of 5, 7, and 8 per second, what is the system throughput?

a)

5

b)

6.7

c)

20

d)

8

4.

A process enters the ready queue at time 4 ms and starts execution at 12 ms. What is its waiting time?

a)

4 ms

b)

6 ms

c)

8 ms

d)

12 ms

5.

If response time must be minimized, which environment is most affected?

a)

Batch systems

b)

Embedded systems

c)

Time-sharing systems

d)

Single-user systems

6.

Turnaround time is calculated as:

a)

Completion time minus arrival time

b)

Start time minus arrival time

c)

Waiting time plus response time

d)

CPU burst minus I/O burst

7.

A scheduler prioritizing maximum CPU utilization may negatively affect:

a)

Throughput

b)

Waiting time

c)

Context switching

d)

CPU burst prediction

8.

If a process completes faster than others, which metric improves most directly?

a)

Turnaround time

b)

Throughput

c)

CPU utilization

d)

Dispatch latency

9.

Which criterion directly measures user-perceived delay?

a)

Turnaround time

b)

Waiting time

c)

Response time

d)

CPU utilization

10.

If average waiting time increases, which scheduling goal is violated?

a)

Maximize throughput

b)

Minimize waiting time

c)

Minimize CPU usage

d)

Maximize response

11.

Which metric is most important in real-time systems?

a)

Throughput

b)

CPU utilization

c)

Deadline satisfaction

d)

Waiting time

12.

A scheduler that improves fairness may reduce:

a)

Starvation

b)

Response time

c)

Throughput

d)

Context switch overhead

13.

If CPU is idle despite processes waiting for I/O, the system lacks:

a)

Preemption

b)

Multiprogramming

c)

Priority scheduling

d)

Aging

14.

Which scheduling criterion is best to optimize interactive systems?

a)

Turnaround time

b)

Response time

c)

CPU utilization

d)

Waiting time

15.

Minimizing turnaround time generally benefits:

a)

Batch jobs

b)

Interrupt handlers

c)

Kernel threads

d)

Idle tasks

16.

In FCFS, a long CPU-bound process delays shorter jobs. This is called:

a)

Starvation

b)

Aging

c)

Convoy effect

d)

Deadlock

17.

Processes arrive in order P1(10), P2(2), P3(1). What is the FCFS average waiting time?

a)

3

b)

7

c)

8

d)

10

18.

Which scheduling algorithm guarantees minimum average waiting time?

a)

FCFS

b)

Round Robin

c)

Priority

d)

SJF

19.

SJF scheduling requires knowing:

a)

Arrival time

b)

Priority value

c)

Next CPU burst length

d)

Waiting time

20.

CPU burst prediction using exponential averaging depends on:

a)

Only current burst

b)

Only first burst

c)

History of previous bursts

d)

Arrival time

21.

If α = 1 in burst prediction, the estimate equals:

a)

Average of all bursts

b)

Previous estimate

c)

Last actual burst

d)

Zero

22.

Which scheduling algorithm is used when the shortest remaining time is selected?

a)

A. FCFS

b)

B. Round Robin

c)

C. Shortest Remaining Time First

d)

D. Priority scheduling

23.

A new shorter job arriving during execution will preempt the current job in:

a)

FCFS

b)

Non-preemptive SJF

c)

Preemptive SJF

d)

Priority (non-preemptive)

24.

SJF is difficult to implement mainly because:

a)

It causes starvation

b)

Burst times are unknown

c)

It is non-preemptive

d)

It increases turnaround time

25.

If predicted CPU burst times are inaccurate, SJF performance will:

a)

Improve

b)

Remain same

c)

Degrade

d)

Become FCFS

26.

Which workload benefits most from SJF scheduling?

a)

Real-time

b)

Interactive

c)

Batch with short jobs

d)

Kernel scheduling

27.

In FCFS scheduling, average waiting time depends mainly on:

a)

Order of arrival

b)

Priority value

c)

Time quantum

d)

Context switch

28.

Which scheduling algorithm is non-preemptive by default?

a)

SRTF

b)

Round Robin

c)

FCFS

d)

EDF

29.

A long CPU burst arriving first in FCFS causes:

a)

Reduced turnaround time

b)

Improved response time

c)

Increased waiting time

30.

Which scheduling algorithm may starve long jobs?

a)

FCFS

b)

Round Robin

c)

SJF

d)

Multilevel queue

31.

SJF prioritizes processes based on:

a)

Arrival time

b)

CPU burst length

c)

Priority number

d)

Deadline

32.

In non-preemptive SJF, once a process starts execution, it:

a)

Can be interrupted

b)

Must finish its CPU burst

c)

Is demoted

d)

Is aged

33.

SJF scheduling mainly optimizes:

a)

Throughput

b)

Turnaround time

c)

Response time

d)

CPU utilization

34.

Priority scheduling behaves like SJF when priority is:

a)

Arrival time

b)

Inverse burst time

c)

Waiting time

d)

Deadline

35.

If all processes have equal CPU burst times, SJF behaves like:

a)

Priority scheduling

b)

Round Robin

c)

FCFS

d)

Multilevel queue

36.

In Round Robin, a very large time quantum makes it similar to:

a)

SJF

b)

Priority

c)

FCFS

d)

EDF

37.

If the time quantum is too small, system performance degrades due to:

a)

Increased context switching

b)

Reduced CPU utilization

c)

Longer waiting time for I/O

d)

Decreased process priority

38.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of Round Robin scheduling?

a)

Starvation

b)

Aging

c)

Excessive context switches

d)

Low CPU utilization

39.

Round Robin scheduling is best suited for:

a)

Batch systems

b)

Real-time systems

c)

Interactive systems

d)

Embedded systems

40.

If there are n processes, the maximum waiting time in RR is:

a)

nq

b)

q

c)

(n-1)q

d)

nq-1

41.

Which scheduling algorithm ensures fairness among processes?

a)

SJF

b)

FCFS

c)

Round Robin

d)

Priority

42.

Priority scheduling selects the process with:

a)

Largest CPU burst

b)

Smallest CPU burst

c)

Highest priority

d)

Earliest arrival

43.

Starvation occurs in priority scheduling when:

a)

Priorities are equal

b)

Low-priority processes never execute

c)

Time quantum is small

d)

Context switch is long

44.

Aging prevents starvation by:

a)

Increasing CPU burst

b)

Increasing waiting time

c)

Increasing priority over time

d)

Resetting quantum

45.

Priority scheduling can be implemented as:

a)

Only preemptive

b)

Only non-preemptive

c)

Both preemptive and non-preemptive

d)

Neither

46.

SJF is equivalent to priority scheduling when priority equals:

a)

Arrival time

b)

Inverse CPU burst

c)

Waiting time

d)

Deadline

47.

Which scheduling method can combine priority with Round Robin?

a)

FCFS

b)

Multilevel queue

c)

EDF

d)

CFS

48.

In Round Robin, response time improves because:

a)

Short jobs run first

b)

Jobs are preempted regularly

c)

CPU burst is known

d)

Priorities are static

49.

Which scheduling algorithm is most predictable?

a)

FCFS

b)

Round Robin

c)

Priority

d)

SJF

50.

Using RR with very small quantum wastes CPU mainly due to:

a)

Idle time

b)

Aging

c)

Overhead

d)

Starvation

51.

Priority scheduling is most suitable for:

a)

Interactive systems

b)

Real-time tasks

c)

Batch processing

d)

Background jobs

52.

Which scheduling approach uses different algorithms per queue?

a)

FCFS

b)

Multilevel queue

c)

RR

d)

EDF

53.

Scheduling system processes before user processes is based on:

a)

Burst length

b)

Process type

c)

Arrival time

54.

Priority inversion can be reduced using:

a)

Aging

b)

FCFS

c)

Large quantum

d)

SJF

55.

Which scheduling provides low response time but higher turnaround time?

a)

FCFS

b)

SJF

c)

Round Robin

d)

EDF

56.

In preemptive priority scheduling, a higher-priority arriving process will:

a)

Wait

b)

Be ignored

c)

Preempt the current process

d)

Demote itself

57.

Which scheduling algorithm risks indefinite postponement?

a)

FCFS

b)

Round Robin

c)

Priority

d)

EDF

58.

Priority scheduling requires maintaining:

a)

Burst history

b)

Multiple queues

c)

Priority values

d)

Deadlines

59.

Priority scheduling is commonly used in:

a)

Desktop OS

b)

Embedded systems

c)

Real-time OS

d)

Batch OS

60.

Combining priority with RR mainly improves:

a)

Fairness among same-priority tasks

b)

Burst prediction

c)

CPU utilization

d)

Cache affinity

61.

Which scheduling algorithm is simplest to implement?

a)

SJF

b)

Priority

c)

FCFS

d)

EDF

62.

Multilevel feedback queue improves flexibility by allowing processes to:

a)

Change arrival time

b)

Move between queues

c)

Fix priority

d)

Ignore aging

63.

Load balancing in SMP systems aims to:

a)

Reduce cache misses

b)

Keep CPUs equally busy

c)

Reduce priority inversion

d)

Increase response time

64.

Pull migration occurs when:

a)

Busy CPU pushes tasks

b)

Idle CPU pulls tasks

c)

OS forces migration

d)

Tasks expire

65.

Processor affinity improves performance by:

a)

Reducing waiting time

b)

Preserving cache contents

c)

Reducing deadlines

d)

Increasing priority

66.

Hard real-time systems must:

a)

Optimize throughput

b)

Guarantee deadlines

c)

Minimize response

d)

Avoid starvation

67.

In rate-monotonic scheduling, higher priority is given to tasks with:

a)

Larger deadlines

b)

Longer bursts

c)

Shorter periods

d)

Earlier arrival

68.

EDF assigns priority based on:

a)

Arrival time

b)

CPU burst length

69.

Proportional-share scheduling allocates CPU based on:

a)

Burst time

b)

Shares owned

c)

Priority class

d)

Arrival order

70.

POSIX SCHED_FIFO differs from SCHED_RR because it:

a)

Uses time slicing

b)

Is non-preemptive

c)

Does not time-slice equal priorities

d)

Uses deadlines

71.

Linux CFS selects the next task based on:

a)

Shortest burst

b)

Highest priority

c)

Lowest virtual runtime

d)

Earliest deadline

72.

Virtual runtime in CFS represents:

a)

Actual runtime

b)

Weighted runtime based on priority

c)

Waiting time

d)

Response time

73.

Windows scheduling uses how many priority levels?

a)

16

b)

32

c)

64

d)

128

74.

Solaris time-sharing class is implemented using:

a)

FCFS

b)

RR

c)

Multilevel feedback queue

d)

EDF

75.

Deterministic modeling requires:

a)

Random inputs

b)

Exact workload data

c)

Simulation traces

d)

Real hardware

76.

75. Little’s Law relates:

a)

the average number of items in a system, the average arrival rate, and the average time an item spends in the system

b)

the total cost, the production rate, and the inventory turnover

c)

the lead time, the reorder point, and the safety stock

d)

the demand rate, the supply rate, and the backlog

77.

Which of the following is used to calculate Little's Law in queueing theory?

a)

CPU and I/O

b)

Throughput and burst

c)

Queue length, arrival rate, and waiting time

d)

Deadline and response

78.

If λ = 4 processes/sec and W = 2 sec, average queue length is:

a)

2

b)

6

c)

8

d)

10

79.

Simulation is preferred over queueing models because it:

a)

Is faster

b)

Requires fewer inputs

c)

Is more accurate

d)

Avoids programming

80.

Context switching overhead mainly affects:

a)

CPU utilization

b)

Throughput

c)

Waiting time

d)

All of the above

81.

Testing a scheduler in real systems provides:

a)

Low accuracy

b)

High risk but realistic results

c)

No cost

d)

Deterministic output

82.

NUMA-aware scheduling improves:

a)

Priority handling

b)

Cache locality

c)

Burst prediction

d)

Fairness

83.

Multithreaded multicore systems allow:

a)

One thread per core

b)

Context switching only

c)

Multiple hardware threads per core

d)

Single-level scheduling

84.

Two-level scheduling separates:

a)

Kernel and user threads

b)

Software and hardware threads

c)

CPU and I/O

d)

Batch and interactive

85.

Interrupt latency directly affects:

a)

Throughput

b)

Response to real-time events

c)

CPU utilization

d)

Turnaround time

86.

Dispatch latency includes:

a)

Interrupt handling only

b)

Context switch only

c)

Preemption and resource release

d)

CPU burst estimation

87.

Which scheduling algorithm is best for strict deadlines?

a)

FCFS

b)

SJF

c)

EDF

d)

RR

88.

Starvation is least likely in:

a)

Priority scheduling

b)

FCFS

c)

SJF

d)

EDF

89.

Which Linux scheduler balances fairness and efficiency?

a)

O(1) scheduler

b)

CFS

c)

EDF

d)

FCFS

90.

A scheduling domain in Linux is defined by shared:

a)

Priority

b)

Cache

c)

Burst history

d)

Deadline

91.

Which scheduling algorithm is easiest to analyze analytically?

a)

RR

b)

Priority

c)

FCFS

d)

EDF

92.

Which evaluation method uses trace tapes?

a)

Deterministic modeling

b)

Queueing model

c)

Simulation

93.

High context-switch rate mainly reduces:

a)

Response time

b)

CPU efficiency

c)

Throughput

d)

Fairness

94.

Which scheduler is most flexible for mixed workloads?

a)

FCFS

b)

SJF

c)

Multilevel feedback queue

d)

FIFO

95.

Which metric is least important for batch systems?

a)

Turnaround time

b)

Throughput

c)

Response time

d)

Waiting time

96.

Real-time tasks in Linux have:

a)

Dynamic priorities

b)

Static priorities

c)

No priorities

d)

Time-sliced priorities

97.

Which scheduling policy does NOT use time slicing?

a)

RR

b)

SCHED_RR

c)

SCHED_FIFO

d)

CFS

98.

Which factor mainly affects turnaround time in Round Robin?

a)

Arrival order

b)

Time quantum

c)

Priority

d)

Burst estimation

99.

Scheduler overhead increases when:

a)

A. Burst times are long

b)

B. Quantum is large

c)

C. Quantum is very small

d)

D. FCFS is used

100.

Which scheduling approach suits multimedia playback best?

a)

FCFS

b)

SJF

c)

Multilevel feedback queue

d)

FIFO