wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Mobile Devices and Networking - Part 1

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which memory form factor is most common in modern laptops?

a)

DIMM

b)

SO-DIMM

c)

RIMM

d)

SIMM

2.

A laptop screen shows ghosting and slow response times. Which panel type is most likely installed?

a)

OLED

b)

IPS

c)

TN

d)

VA

3.

Which slot is typically used for NVMe SSDs in laptops?

a)

mSATA

b)

M.2 (PCIe)

c)

Mini-PCIe

d)

SATA Express

4.

A user needs to connect two external 4K displays and multiple peripherals with a single cable. Which port best fits?

a)

USB 2.0 Type-A

b)

Thunderbolt 3/4 (USB-C)

c)

Micro-USB

d)

VGA

5.

A cracked smartphone has touch input that no longer registers, but the image looks fine. Which part needs replacing?

a)

Battery

b)

Digitizer

c)

System board

d)

Backlight inverter

6.

Which wireless technology is best for short-range tap-to-pay?

a)

Bluetooth

b)

NFC

c)

Infrared

d)

Wi-Fi Direct

7.

Tethering a laptop to a phone to share internet is called:

a)

Hotspot

b)

PoE

c)

AirDrop

d)

Sidecar

8.

A user wants higher-capacity removable storage for a phone that supports it. Which option is appropriate?

a)

SIM

b)

microSD

c)

eSIM

d)

Mini-USB

9.

A tablet screen automatically rotates. Which sensor enables this?

a)

Gyroscope/accelerometer

b)

Proximity sensor

c)

Magnetometer only

d)

Ambient light sensor

10.

Which laptop component is commonly user-replaceable to extend device life?

a)

CPU (soldered BGA)

b)

GPU (on-die)

c)

SO-DIMM RAM (when socketed)

d)

Embedded storage on all ultrabooks

11.

A user’s laptop trackpad stops clicking after a battery swells. What’s the safest action?

a)

Puncture the battery to release gas

b)

Continue using until drained

c)

Power down and replace the battery safely

d)

Bend the trackpad back into place

12.

A stylus with pressure sensitivity requires what feature?

a)

Passive capacitive input

b)

Active digitizer

c)

Infrared emitter

d)

Only a resistive touch layer

13.

Which connection is most appropriate for docking a laptop to legacy VGA/USB-A-only monitors/peripherals?

a)

USB-C dock with appropriate outputs

b)

Lightning cable

c)

S/PDIF

d)

RS-232 null modem

14.

eSIM primarily replaces which component?

a)

microSD card

b)

Physical SIM card

c)

NFC chip

d)

IMEI

15.

Which is not a likely benefit of a laptop docking station over a port replicator?

a)

Additional dedicated GPU

b)

More ports and power delivery

c)

Better cable management

d)

One-cable connection

16.

On iOS/Android, which feature separates work and personal data on BYOD?

a)

Guest account

b)

Work Profile / User Enrollment

c)

Developer mode

d)

Jailbreak/root

17.

Which wireless standard operates only in 5 GHz (legacy spec)?

a)

802.11n

b)

802.11ac

c)

802.11ax

d)

802.11b

18.

Laptop RAM is upgraded but the system reports the old capacity. First step?

a)

Replace motherboard

b)

Reseat modules and check slot population rules

c)

Reinstall the OS

d)

Clear CMOS by shorting random pins

19.

Which device forwards traffic between networks based on IP?

a)

Hub

b)

Switch

c)

Router

d)

Repeater

20.

Which IP address indicates APIPA on Windows?

a)

10.0.0.5

b)

169.254.22.8

c)

172.16.1.10

d)

192.168.50.20

21.

Which cable type is required for 10GBASE-T up to 100 meters?

a)

Cat 5e

b)

Cat 6

c)

Cat 6a

d)

Cat 3

22.

Which fiber connector uses a small form factor, push-pull design with a latch?

a)

ST

b)

SC

c)

LC

d)

BNC

23.

In 2.4 GHz Wi-Fi, which non-overlapping channels should you select (20 MHz)?

a)

1, 6, 11

b)

2, 5, 8

c)

3, 6, 9

d)

4, 7, 10

24.

Which security protocol is preferred for SOHO Wi‑Fi today (if supported)?

a)

WEP

b)

WPA

c)

WPA2‑AES

d)

WPA3‑Personal

25.

You can ping 1.1.1.1 but can’t resolve example.com. What’s likely broken?

a)

NIC

b)

DNS

c)

Default gateway

d)

Switch port

26.

Which port is used for RDP?

a)

22

b)

23

c)

3389

d)

443

27.

A SOHO router with guest network should use which best practice?

a)

Same VLAN as main LAN

b)

Open authentication

c)

Client isolation and separate VLAN

d)

Disable DHCP

28.

A user needs to reach internal hosts by name. Which server/service is required?

a)

DHCP

b)

DNS

c)

NTP

d)

Syslog

29.

Which WAN technology uses phone lines with a DSL modem?

a)

Cable

b)

Fiber GPON

c)

xDSL

d)

Satellite

30.

Which IPv6 address type is link‑local?

a)

2001:db8::/32

b)

fe80::/10

c)

ff00::/8

d)

fc00::/7

31.

Which term describes translating private IPs to a public IP at the edge?

a)

PAT/NAT

b)

VLAN

c)

STP

d)

QoS

32.

What does PoE allow?

a)

VLAN tagging

b)

Power over Ethernet to endpoints

c)

Higher Wi‑Fi throughput

d)

VPN tunneling

33.

Which tool verifies cable continuity and pair mapping?

a)

Loopback plug

b)

Tone generator and probe

c)

Cable tester

d)

OTDR only

34.

A user on Wi‑Fi has weak signal in a far room. Which is the best fix?

a)

Change SSID name

b)

Add a properly placed AP/mesh node

c)

Disable WPA3

d)

Lower the transmit power

35.

Which DNS record type maps a name to an IPv4 address?

a)

AAAA

b)

CNAME

c)

MX

d)

A

36.

Your DHCP scope is exhausted. What symptom will clients show?

a)

APIPA addresses and no network access

b)

Duplicate IPs

c)

Full internet but no local resources

d)

IPv6 only with internet

37.

Which motherboard form factor is largest among the options?

a)

Mini‑ITX

b)

Micro‑ATX

c)

ATX

d)

Pico‑ITX

38.

Which PSU rating indicates efficiency under various loads?

a)

12 V rail

b)

80 PLUS (Bronze/Gold/etc.)

c)

Wattage sticker only

d)

PCIe power connector count

39.

Which storage gives the lowest latency?

a)

5400 RPM HDD

b)

SATA SSD

c)

NVMe SSD (PCIe)

d)

Tape

40.

Which RAID level offers mirroring with improved read performance?

a)

RAID 0

b)

RAID 1

c)

RAID 5

d)

RAID 10

41.

A user needs high IOPS for a database. Which storage plus slot combo is best?

a)

SATA SSD on SATA II

b)

NVMe SSD on M.2 (PCIe x4)

c)

HDD on USB 2.0

d)

SD card on reader

42.

Which printer type uses a fuser, drum, and toner?

a)

Inkjet

b)

Laser

c)

Impact

d)

Thermal

43.

Which connector is used for SATA data?

a)

7-pin L-shaped connector

b)

15-pin power connector

c)

Molex 4-pin

d)

8-pin EPS

44.

Dual-channel memory requires:

a)

Identical capacity/speed in the correct slots

b)

ECC modules only

c)

Registered DIMMs only

d)

Mixing different capacities in any slot

45.

A monitor supports 2560×1440 at 165 Hz. Which cable/standard is most appropriate?

a)

VGA

b)

HDMI 1.2

c)

DisplayPort 1.4 or HDMI 2.1

d)

DVI-D single-link

46.

Which interface is hot-swappable and common for external drives?

a)

PATA

b)

SATA (internal)

c)

USB 3.x

d)

SCSI narrow internal

47.

Which slot type do most modern discrete GPUs use?

a)

PCI

b)

AGP

c)

PCIe x16

d)

ISA

48.

A thermal printer produces faded output. What’s the most likely fix?

a)

Replace toner

b)

Replace ribbon

c)

Replace the paper roll with thermal paper

d)

Clean the printhead and replace fuser

49.

Which feature allows a CPU to run multiple threads per core?

a)

Virtualization extensions

b)

Hyper-threading/SMT

c)

Turbo Boost/Precision Boost

d)

ECC

50.

A small office needs a shared storage device with RAID and SMB sharing. Choose:

a)

DAS

b)

NAS

c)

Tape library

d)

KVM switch

51.

Which port is commonly used for audio + video from a PC to a monitor with HDCP?

a)

DVI-A

b)

HDMI

c)

PS/2

d)

S/Video

52.

What does ECC RAM primarily provide?

a)

Higher speed

b)

Error detection and correction for memory faults

c)

Lower power use

d)

More capacity per module

53.

Which cable type is safest for in-ceiling air-handling spaces?

a)

PVC

b)

Plenum-rated

c)

Riser-rated only

d)

Unshielded PVC anywhere

54.

A user needs to import photos directly from a camera with the fastest practical link. Choose:

a)

USB 2.0

b)

USB 3.2 Gen 2 (10 Gbps)

c)

RS-232

d)

FireWire 400

55.

A Type 1 hypervisor runs:

a)

On top of a host OS as an app

b)

Directly on bare metal

c)

Only inside containers

d)

Only on mobile devices

56.

Which VM network mode provides a private network between host and guests only?

a)

Bridged

b)

NAT

c)

Host-only

d)

VLAN trunk

57.

Which cloud model provides full applications managed by the provider?

a)

IaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

SaaS

d)

FaaS

58.

A benefit of cloud computing where resources rapidly scale up/down is called:

a)

Metered billing

b)

Rapid elasticity

c)

Vertical coupling

d)

Thick provisioning

59.

Spinning up many VMs without documentation or lifecycle control is known as:

a)

VM sprawl

b)

Cloud bursting

c)

Shadow IT

d)

Vertical scaling

60.

Which is the best way to preserve a VM state before patching?

a)

Export a CSV of settings

b)

Take a snapshot

c)

Change to host-only mode

d)

Pause the VM

61.

In IaaS, which layer is the customer primarily responsible for?

a)

Physical data center

b)

Hypervisor firmware

c)

Guest OS and applications

d)

Power and cooling

62.

Which term describes distributing workloads across multiple servers/regions for availability?

a)

RAID

b)

Load balancing

c)

VLAN trunking

63.

Which is not a typical cloud characteristic?

a)

On-demand self-service

b)

Broad network access

c)

Resource pooling

d)

Fixed capacity with manual tickets

64.

A dev team needs a managed runtime and database, without managing servers. Choose:

a)

PaaS

b)

IaaS

c)

SaaS

d)

Bare metal

65.

Which VM resource is most likely to cause contention first on a small host?

a)

USB ports

b)

RAM

c)

NIC MAC addresses

d)

Optical drive

66.

Which storage concept allows thin provisioning and fast clones?

a)

Tape library

b)

Block storage with snapshots

c)

Direct attached only

d)

Optical jukebox

67.

A hybrid cloud is best described as:

a)

All workloads in public cloud

b)

On-prem + public cloud working together

c)

Multi-public-cloud only

d)

Only community cloud tenants

68.

Containers differ from VMs primarily because containers:

a)

Include full guest OS kernels

b)

Share the host OS kernel

c)

Require Type 1 hypervisors

d)

Can't be orchestrated

69.

Which virtual NIC mode lets a VM get an IP from the same DHCP server as the host network?

a)

NAT

b)

Host-only

c)

Bridged

d)

Loopback

70.

A small business wants email hosting without managing any servers. Choose:

a)

IaaS with self-installed mail server

b)

PaaS

c)

SaaS email

d)

Bare-metal colocated server

71.

To reduce cost in the cloud when demand drops at night, you should:

a)

Overprovision

b)

Scale to zero / downsize instances on schedule

c)

Use static size always

d)

Disable autoscaling

72.

A developer wants to test multi-OS environments on a laptop. Best tool?

a)

Type 1 hypervisor only

b)

Type 2 hypervisor (Workstation/VirtualBox)

c)

NAS storage

d)

Bare-metal restore utility

73.

A PC powers on; fans spin; no POST beeps; no video. First step?

a)

Replace CPU

b)

Reseat RAM and GPU; check monitor input/cable

c)

Reinstall Windows

d)

Format the drive

74.

Desktop randomly reboots under load. Most likely cause?

a)

DNS issue

b)

Underpowered/failing PSU

c)

Bad HDMI cable

d)

Wrong wallpaper

75.

After replacing a motherboard, the system powers but shuts down after 10 seconds. Likely cause?

a)

SSD firmware

b)

CPU cooler not seated/plugged

c)

Printer driver

d)

Wrong desktop theme

76.

Laser prints show smearing that rubs off. Likely fix?

a)

Replace fuser

b)

Replace toner only

c)

Calibrate colors

d)

Clean print head nozzles

77.

Inkjet prints have streaks/missing colors. First action?

a)

Replace fuser

b)

Run printhead cleaning/alignment

c)

Replace duplexer

d)

Vacuum paper path

78.

Users on one floor get 169.254.x.x addresses. First check?

a)

DNS zone

b)

DHCP scope/relay for that VLAN

c)

Web proxy

d)

Default gateway’s ARP table

79.

A user can reach internal hosts by IP but not by name. Where do you look?

a)

DHCP lease time

b)

DNS server settings on the client

c)

VLAN tagging

d)

Power plan

80.

Wi-Fi signal is strong but throughput is poor at 2.4 GHz in a dense office. Best change?

a)

Channels 1/6/11 and/or move to 5 GHz

b)

Disable WPA2

c)

Lower AP transmit power drastically

d)

Use WEP for speed

81.

A new M.2 NVMe SSD is installed, but a SATA port disappears. Why?

a)

PSU wattage

b)

Shared chipset lanes—using that M.2 slot disables a SATA port

c)

BIOS password

d)

GPU driver

82.

A user’s monitor shows “Input Not Supported” after changing resolution. Quick fix?

a)

Replace GPU

b)

Boot to low-res mode/safe mode and set a supported resolution

c)

Reinstall all apps

d)

Change DHCP server

83.

Network printer shows Offline, but it responds to ping. Next step?

a)

Replace toner

b)

Check the Windows print queue port/IP and restart the spooler

c)

Change VLANs

d)

Reboot the DNS server

84.

Laptop shuts down during gaming; chassis is hot. First remedy?

a)

Disable fans

b)

Clean vents; check fans; reapply thermal compound if needed

c)

Lower screen brightness

d)

Uninstall antivirus

85.

A user reports no audio after connecting HDMI to a monitor. What changed?

a)

NIC config

b)

Default audio output switched to the monitor

c)

BIOS reset

d)

DHCP lease renewed

86.

A patch panel port is unlabeled; you need to find its wall jack. Best tool combo?

a)

Loopback plug only

b)

Tone generator and probe

c)

OTDR

d)

Cable crimper

87.

Intermittent fiber link errors after moving a switch. Most likely?

a)

IPv6 misconfig

b)

Dirty fiber connectors/poor bend radius

c)

Wrong SSID

d)

DHCP exhaustion

88.

A PoE phone won’t power on at a desk but works in another port. Likely cause?

a)

DNS down

b)

Non-PoE switch port or disabled PoE on that interface

c)

Wrong default gateway

d)

Duplex mismatch

89.

After a power outage, multiple PCs show incorrect time and can’t log in to a domain service. What’s the fix?

a)

Change to static IPs

b)

Restore NTP reachability and sync clocks

c)

Disable DNSSEC

d)

Replace all NICs

90.

A tablet screen automatically rotates. Which sensor enables this?

a)

Gyroscope/accelerometer

b)

Proximity sensor

c)

Ambient light sensor

d)

Magnetometer

91.

Which laptop component is commonly user-replaceable to extend device life?

a)

CPU

b)

Battery

c)

SO-DIMM RAM

d)

Dedicated GPU module

92.

A user’s laptop trackpad stops clicking after a battery swells. What’s the safest action?

a)

Continue using the laptop until the battery drains

b)

Puncture the battery to release pressure

c)

Power down and replace the battery safely

d)

Tape over the trackpad and keep working

93.

A stylus with pressure sensitivity requires what feature?

a)

Passive capacitive touchscreen

b)

Active digitizer

c)

Resistive touch layer

d)

NFC antenna

94.

Which connection is most appropriate for docking a laptop to legacy VGA and USB-A-only monitors and peripherals?

a)

USB-C dock with the appropriate outputs

b)

Thunderbolt-to-SATA adapter

c)

Micro-USB OTG cable

d)

HDMI splitter

95.

eSIM primarily replaces which component?

a)

MicroSD card

b)

Physical SIM card

c)

Wi‑Fi card

d)

NFC tag

96.

Which is not a likely benefit of a laptop docking station over a port replicator?

a)

Additional dedicated GPU

b)

More I/O ports and power delivery

c)

Single-cable connectivity

d)

Ethernet and audio breakout

97.

On iOS/Android, which feature separates work and personal data on BYOD?

a)

Jailbreaking

b)

Work Profile / User Enrollment

c)

Developer options

d)

Bluetooth pairing

98.

Which wireless standard operates only in 5 GHz (legacy spec)?

a)

802.11n

b)

802.11ac

c)

802.11ax

d)

802.11g

99.

Laptop RAM is upgraded but the system reports the old capacity. What is the first step?

a)

Update the BIOS/UEFI

b)

Reseat modules and check slot population rules

c)

Replace the motherboard

d)

Disable XMP or memory overclocking

100.

Which device forwards traffic between networks based on IP?

a)

Switch

b)

Hub

c)

Router

d)

Repeater

101.

Which IP address indicates APIPA on Windows?

a)

192.168.1.10

b)

169.254.22.8

c)

10.0.0.25

d)

172.16.5.5

102.

Which cable type is required for 10GBASE‑T up to 100 meters?

a)

Cat 5e

b)

Cat 6

c)

Cat 6a

d)

Cat 7

103.

Which fiber connector uses a small form factor, push‑pull design with a latch?

a)

ST

b)

SC

c)

LC

d)

MTRJ

104.

In 2.4 GHz Wi‑Fi, which non‑overlapping channels should you select for 20 MHz channels?

a)

1, 6, 11

b)

2, 7, 12

c)

3, 8, 13

d)

4, 9, 14

105.

Which security protocol is preferred for SOHO Wi‑Fi today (if supported)?

a)

WEP

b)

WPA with TKIP

c)

WPA2‑Personal

d)

WPA3‑Personal

106.

You can ping 1.1.1.1 but can’t resolve example.com. What’s likely broken?

a)

DHCP

b)

DNS

c)

Default gateway

d)

NAT

107.

Which port is used for RDP?

a)

22

b)

80

c)

3389

d)

5900

108.

A SOHO router with a guest network should use which best practice?

a)

Enable UPnP for guests

b)

Share the admin password for quick access

c)

Client isolation and a separate VLAN

d)

Place all guest devices in the DMZ

109.

A user needs to reach internal hosts by name. Which server or service is required?

a)

DHCP

b)

DNS

c)

LDAP

d)

NTP

110.

Which WAN technology uses phone lines with a DSL modem?

a)

Cable (DOCSIS)

b)

Fiber (GPON)

c)

xDSL

d)

Microwave

111.

Which IPv6 address type is link-local?

a)

fe80::/10

b)

fc00::/7

c)

2001::/16

d)

ff00::/8

112.

Which term describes translating private IPs to a public IP at the edge?

a)

PAT/NAT

b)

DNS

c)

DHCP

d)

ARP

113.

What does PoE allow?

a)

Video over Ethernet to displays

b)

Power over Ethernet to endpoints

c)

Only data over Ethernet to endpoints

d)

Power over coaxial cable

114.

Which tool verifies cable continuity and pair mapping?

a)

Tone generator and probe

b)

Loopback plug

c)

Cable tester

d)

Time-domain reflectometer

115.

A user on Wi‑Fi has weak signal in a far room. Which is the best fix?

a)

Increase the client transmit power in software

b)

Add a properly placed AP or mesh node

c)

Lower the SSID security level

d)

Disable WPA3 and use open access

116.

Which DNS record type maps a name to an IPv4 address?

a)

A

b)

AAAA

c)

CNAME

d)

MX

117.

Your DHCP scope is exhausted. What symptom will clients show?

a)

Static addresses with full network access

b)

APIPA addresses and no network access

c)

Duplicate addresses but normal access

d)

IPv6-only addresses with full access

118.

Which motherboard form factor is largest among the options?

a)

Mini‑ITX

b)

Micro‑ATX

c)

ATX

d)

Nano‑ITX

119.

Which PSU rating indicates efficiency under various loads?

a)

SATA III

b)

80 PLUS (Bronze/Gold/etc.)

c)

PCIe Gen 4

d)

ATX12VO

120.

Which storage gives the lowest latency?

a)

HDD (SATA)

b)

SATA SSD

c)

NVMe SSD (PCIe)

d)

External USB SSD

121.

Which RAID level offers mirroring with improved read performance?

a)

RAID 0

b)

RAID 1

c)

RAID 5

d)

RAID 10

122.

A user needs high IOPS for a database. Which storage plus slot combo is best?

a)

SATA SSD on 6 Gbps port

b)

NVMe SSD on M.2 (PCIe x4)

c)

HDD on SATA

d)

NVMe SSD via USB 3.0 enclosure

123.

Which printer type uses a fuser, drum, and toner?

a)

Inkjet

b)

Laser

c)

Dot‑matrix

d)

Thermal transfer

124.

Which connector is used for SATA data?

a)

7‑pin L‑shaped connector

b)

15‑pin power connector

c)

Molex 4‑pin

d)

RJ‑45

125.

Dual‑channel memory requires:

a)

Different capacities in any slots

b)

Identical capacity and speed in the correct paired slots

c)

ECC modules only

d)

Filling all DIMM slots

126.

A monitor supports 2560×1440 at 165 Hz. Which cable/standard is most appropriate?

a)

DVI‑D Single‑Link

b)

VGA

c)

DisplayPort 1.4 or HDMI 2.1

d)

USB 2.0

127.

Which interface is hot‑swappable and common for external drives?

a)

SATA III internal

b)

Thunderbolt 1 only

c)

USB 3.x

d)

PS/2

128.

Which slot type do most modern discrete GPUs use?

a)

PCIe x1

b)

PCIe x4

c)

PCIe x16

d)

AGP 8x

129.

A thermal printer produces faded output. What’s the most likely fix?

a)

Replace the fuser

b)

Refill toner

c)

Replace the paper roll with thermal paper

d)

Update the printer driver

130.

Which feature allows a CPU to run multiple threads per core?

a)

Turbo Boost

b)

Hyper‑threading/SMT

c)

Overclocking

d)

Branch prediction

131.

A small office needs a shared storage device with RAID and SMB sharing. Choose:

a)

SAN

b)

NAS

c)

Direct‑attached USB drive

d)

Cloud cold archive

132.

Which port is commonly used for audio + video from a PC to a monitor with HDCP?

a)

DisplayPort mini only

b)

HDMI

c)

D‑sub (VGA)

d)

Composite video

133.

What does ECC RAM primarily provide?

a)

Higher clock speeds for gaming

b)

Error detection and correction for memory faults

c)

Lower power draw than standard RAM

d)

Integrated graphics acceleration

134.

Which cable type is safest for in‑ceiling air‑handling spaces?

a)

PVC‑jacketed

b)

Plenum‑rated

c)

Riser‑rated

d)

Unshielded patch cord

135.

A user needs to import photos directly from a camera with the fastest practical link. Choose:

a)

USB 2.0 (480 Mbps)

b)

USB 3.2 Gen 2 (10 Gbps)

c)

Bluetooth 5

d)

802.11n Wi‑Fi

136.

A Type 1 hypervisor runs:

a)

Inside a host OS only

b)

Directly on bare metal

c)

Only in the cloud

d)

As a browser plug‑in

137.

Which VM network mode provides a private network between host and guests only?

a)

NAT (to external LAN)

b)

Bridged (to physical LAN)

c)

Host‑only

d)

Bonded NIC team

138.

Which cloud model provides full applications managed by the provider?

a)

IaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

SaaS

d)

On‑premises

139.

A benefit of cloud computing where resources rapidly scale up/down is called:

a)

Fixed capacity

b)

Rapid elasticity

c)

Manual provisioning

d)

Cold standby

140.

Spinning up many VMs without documentation or lifecycle control is known as:

a)

VM sprawl

b)

Greenfield deployment

c)

High availability

d)

Blue/green release

141.

Which is the best way to preserve a VM state before patching?

a)

Export logs

b)

Take a snapshot

c)

Delete and recreate the VM

d)

Pause the VM

142.

In IaaS, which layer is the customer primarily responsible for?

a)

Physical data center facilities only

b)

Hypervisor and storage fabric

c)

Guest OS and applications

d)

Global backbone routing

143.

Which term describes distributing workloads across multiple servers/regions for availability?

a)

Anycast DNS

b)

Load balancing

c)

Port aggregation

d)

Content filtering

144.

Which is not a typical cloud characteristic?

a)

On‑demand self‑service

b)

Resource pooling

c)

Rapid elasticity

d)

Fixed capacity with manual tickets

145.

A dev team needs a managed runtime and database, without managing servers. Choose:

a)

PaaS

b)

IaaS

c)

Bare‑metal hosting

d)

Colocation

146.

Which VM resource is most likely to cause contention first on a small host?

a)

vCPU count

b)

RAM

c)

SSD capacity

d)

GPU cores

147.

Which storage concept allows thin provisioning and fast clones?

a)

Tape libraries

b)

Block storage with snapshots

c)

Optical media

d)

Direct‑attached HDD only

148.

A hybrid cloud is best described as:

a)

Multiple public clouds with no on‑prem

b)

On‑prem plus public cloud working together

c)

Only private cloud resources

d)

Only SaaS subscriptions

149.

Containers differ from VMs primarily because containers:

a)

Emulate full hardware

b)

Share the host OS kernel

c)

Require a guest kernel per app

d)

Cannot run on Linux

150.

Which virtual NIC mode lets a VM get an IP from the same DHCP server as the host network?

a)

Host‑only

b)

NAT

c)

Bridged

d)

Isolated test network