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PRACTICE TEST 1 — CompTIA A+ (Core 1)

Total questions: 141

Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which memory form factor is most common in modern laptops?

a)

DIMM

b)

SO-DIMM

c)

RIMM

d)

SIMM

2.

A laptop screen shows ghosting and slow response times. Which panel type is most likely installed?

a)

OLED

b)

IPS

c)

TN

d)

VA

3.

Which slot is typically used for NVMe SSDs in laptops?

a)

mSATA

b)

M.2 (PCIe)

c)

Mini-PCIe

d)

SATA Express

4.

A user needs to connect two external 4K displays and multiple peripherals with a single cable. Which port best fits?

a)

USB 2.0 Type-A

b)

Thunderbolt 3/4 (USB-C)

c)

Micro-USB

d)

VGA

5.

A cracked smartphone has touch input that no longer registers, but the image looks fine. Which part needs replacing?

a)

Battery

b)

Digitizer

c)

System board

d)

Backlight inverter

6.

Which wireless technology is best for short-range tap-to-pay?

a)

Bluetooth

b)

NFC

c)

Infrared

d)

Wi‑Fi Direct

7.

Tethering a laptop to a phone to share internet is called:

a)

Hotspot

b)

PoE

c)

AirDrop

d)

Sidecar

8.

A user wants higher-capacity removable storage for a phone that supports it. Which option is appropriate?

a)

SIM

b)

microSD

c)

eSIM

d)

Mini-USB

9.

A tablet screen automatically rotates. Which sensor enables this?

a)

Gyroscope/accelerometer

b)

Proximity sensor

c)

Magnetometer only

d)

Ambient light sensor

10.

Which laptop component is commonly user-replaceable to extend device life?

a)

CPU (soldered BGA)

b)

GPU (on-die)

c)

SO-DIMM RAM (when socketed)

d)

Embedded storage on all ultrabooks

11.

A user’s laptop trackpad stops clicking after a battery swells. What’s the safest action?

a)

Puncture the battery to release gas

b)

Continue using until drained

c)

Power down and replace the battery safely

d)

Bend the trackpad back into place

12.

A stylus with pressure sensitivity requires what feature?

a)

Passive capacitive input

b)

Active digitizer

c)

Infrared emitter

d)

Only a resistive touch layer

13.

Which connection is most appropriate for docking a laptop to legacy VGA/USB-A-only monitors/peripherals?

a)

USB‑C dock with appropriate outputs

b)

Lightning cable

c)

S/PDIF

d)

RS‑232 null modem

14.

eSIM primarily replaces which component?

a)

microSD card

b)

Physical SIM card

c)

NFC chip

d)

IMEI

15.

Which is not a likely benefit of a laptop docking station over a port replicator?

a)

Additional dedicated GPU

b)

More ports and power delivery

c)

Better cable management

d)

One‑cable connection

16.

On iOS/Android, which feature separates work and personal data on BYOD?

a)

Guest account

b)

Work Profile / User Enrollment

c)

Developer mode

d)

Jailbreak/root

17.

Which wireless standard operates only in 5 GHz (legacy spec)?

a)

802.11n

b)

802.11ac

c)

802.11ax

d)

802.11b

18.

Laptop RAM is upgraded but the system reports the old capacity. First step?

a)

Replace motherboard

b)

Reseat modules and check slot population rules

c)

Reinstall the OS

d)

Clear CMOS by shorting random pins

19.

Which device forwards traffic between networks based on IP?

a)

Hub

b)

Switch

c)

Router

d)

Repeater

20.

Which IP address indicates APIPA on Windows?

a)

10.0.0.5

b)

169.254.22.8

c)

172.16.1.10

d)

192.168.50.20

21.

Which cable type is required for 10GBASE‑T up to 100 meters?

a)

Cat 5e

b)

Cat 6

c)

Cat 6a

d)

Cat 3

22.

Which fiber connector uses a small form factor, push‑pull design with a latch?

a)

ST

b)

SC

c)

LC

d)

BNC

23.

In 2.4 GHz Wi‑Fi, which non‑overlapping channels should you select (20 MHz)?

a)

1, 6, 11

b)

2, 5, 8

c)

3, 6, 9

d)

4, 7, 10

24.

Which security protocol is preferred for SOHO Wi‑Fi today (if supported)?

a)

WEP

b)

WPA

c)

WPA2‑AES

d)

WPA3‑Personal

25.

You can ping 1.1.1.1 but can’t resolve example.com. What’s likely broken?

a)

NIC

b)

DNS

c)

Default gateway

d)

Switch port

26.

Which port is used for RDP?

a)

22

b)

23

c)

3389

d)

443

27.

A SOHO router with guest network should use which best practice?

a)

Same VLAN as main LAN

b)

Open authentication

c)

Client isolation and separate VLAN

d)

Disable DHCP

28.

A user needs to reach internal hosts by name. Which server/service is required?

a)

DHCP

b)

DNS

c)

NAT

d)

NTP

29.

Which WAN technology uses phone lines with a DSL modem?

a)

Cable

b)

Fiber GPON

c)

xDSL

d)

Satellite

30.

Which IPv6 address type is link-local?

a)

2001:db8::/32

b)

fe80::/10

c)

ff00::/8

d)

fc00::/7

31.

Which term describes translating private IPs to a public IP at the edge?

a)

PAT/NAT

b)

VLAN

c)

STP

d)

QoS

32.

What does PoE allow?

a)

VLAN tagging

b)

Power over Ethernet to endpoints

c)

Higher Wi‑Fi throughput

d)

VPN tunneling

33.

Which tool verifies cable continuity and pair mapping?

a)

Loopback plug

b)

Tone generator and probe

c)

Cable tester

d)

OTDR only

34.

A user on Wi‑Fi has weak signal in a far room. Which is the best fix?

a)

Change SSID name

b)

Add a properly placed AP/mesh node

c)

Disable WPA3

d)

Lower the transmit power

35.

Which DNS record type maps a name to an IPv4 address?

a)

AAAA

b)

CNAME

c)

MX

d)

A

36.

Your DHCP scope is exhausted. What symptom will clients show?

a)

APIPA addresses and no network access

b)

Duplicate IPs

c)

Full internet but no local resources

d)

IPv6 only with internet

37.

Which motherboard form factor is largest among the options?

a)

Mini‑ITX

b)

Micro‑ATX

c)

ATX

d)

Pico‑ITX

38.

Which PSU rating indicates efficiency under various loads?

a)

12 V rail

b)

80 PLUS (Bronze/Gold/etc.)

c)

Wattage sticker only

d)

PCIe power connector count

39.

Which storage gives the lowest latency?

a)

5400 RPM HDD

b)

SATA SSD

c)

NVMe SSD (PCIe)

d)

Tape

40.

Which RAID level offers mirroring and striping?

a)

RAID 0

b)

RAID 1

c)

RAID 5

d)

RAID 10

41.

A user needs high IOPS for a database. Which storage plus slot combo is best?

a)

SATA SSD on SATA II

b)

NVMe SSD on M.2 (PCIe x4)

c)

HDD on USB 2.0

d)

SD card on reader

42.

Which printer type uses a fuser, drum, and toner?

a)

Inkjet

b)

Laser

c)

Impact

d)

Thermal

43.

Which connector is used for SATA data?

a)

7‑pin L‑shaped connector

b)

15‑pin power connector

c)

Molex 4‑pin

d)

8‑pin EPS

44.

Dual‑channel memory requires:

a)

Identical capacity/speed in the correct slots

b)

ECC modules only

c)

Registered DIMMs only

d)

Mixing different capacities in any slot

45.

A monitor supports 2560×1440 at 165 Hz. Which cable/standard is most appropriate?

a)

VGA

b)

HDMI 1.2

c)

DisplayPort 1.4 or HDMI 2.1

d)

DVI‑D single‑link

46.

Which interface is hot‑swappable and common for external drives?

a)

PATA

b)

SATA (internal)

c)

USB 3.x

d)

SCSI narrow internal

47.

Which slot type do most modern discrete GPUs use?

a)

PCI

b)

AGP

c)

PCIe x16

d)

ISA

48.

A thermal printer produces faded output. What’s the most likely fix?

a)

Replace toner

b)

Replace ribbon

c)

Replace the paper roll with thermal paper

d)

Clean the printhead and replace fuser

49.

Which feature allows a CPU to run multiple threads per core?

a)

Virtualization extensions

b)

Hyper‑threading/SMT

c)

Turbo Boost/Precision Boost

d)

ECC

50.

A small office needs a shared storage device with RAID and SMB sharing. Choose:

a)

DAS

b)

NAS

c)

Tape library

d)

KVM switch

51.

Which port is commonly used for audio + video from a PC to a monitor with HDCP?

a)

DVI‑A

b)

HDMI

c)

PS/2

d)

S/Video

52.

What does ECC RAM primarily provide?

a)

Higher speed

b)

Error detection and correction for memory faults

c)

Lower power use

d)

More capacity per module

53.

Which cable type is safest for in‑ceiling air‑handling spaces?

a)

PVC

b)

Plenum‑rated

c)

Riser‑rated only

d)

Unshielded PVC anywhere

54.

A user needs to import photos directly from a camera with the fastest practical link. Choose:

a)

USB 2.0

b)

USB 3.2 Gen 2 (10 Gbps)

c)

RS‑232

d)

FireWire 400

55.

A Type 1 hypervisor runs:

a)

On top of a host OS as an app

b)

Directly on bare metal

c)

Only inside containers

d)

Only on mobile devices

56.

Which VM network mode provides a private network between host and guests only?

a)

Bridged

b)

NAT

c)

Host‑only

d)

VLAN trunk

57.

Which cloud model provides full applications managed by the provider?

a)

IaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

SaaS

d)

FaaS

58.

A benefit of cloud computing where resources rapidly scale up/down is called:

a)

Metered billing

b)

Rapid elasticity

c)

Vertical coupling

d)

Thick provisioning

59.

Spinning up many VMs without documentation or lifecycle control is known as:

a)

VM sprawl

b)

Cloud bursting

c)

Shadow IT

d)

Vertical scaling

60.

Which is the best way to preserve a VM state before patching?

a)

Export a CSV of settings

b)

Take a snapshot

c)

Change to host‑only mode

d)

Pause the VM

61.

In IaaS, which layer is the customer primarily responsible for?

a)

Physical data center

b)

Hypervisor firmware

c)

Guest OS and applications

d)

Power and cooling

62.

Which term describes distributing workloads across multiple servers/regions for availability?

a)

RAID

b)

Load balancing

c)

VLAN trunking

63.

Which is not a typical cloud characteristic?

a)

On-demand self-service

b)

Broad network access

c)

Resource pooling

d)

Fixed capacity with manual tickets

64.

A dev team needs a managed runtime and database, without managing servers. Choose:

a)

PaaS

b)

IaaS

c)

SaaS

d)

Bare metal

65.

Which VM resource is most likely to cause contention first on a small host?

a)

USB ports

b)

RAM

c)

NIC MAC addresses

d)

Optical drive

66.

Which storage concept allows thin provisioning and fast clones?

a)

Tape library

b)

Block storage with snapshots

c)

Direct attached only

d)

Optical jukebox

67.

A hybrid cloud is best described as:

a)

All workloads in public cloud

b)

On-prem + public cloud working together

c)

Multi-public-cloud only

d)

Only community cloud tenants

68.

Containers differ from VMs primarily because containers:

a)

Include full guest OS kernels

b)

Share the host OS kernel

c)

Require Type 1 hypervisors

d)

Can’t be orchestrated

69.

Which virtual NIC mode lets a VM get an IP from the same DHCP server as the host network?

a)

NAT

b)

Host-only

c)

Bridged

d)

Loopback

70.

A small business wants email hosting without managing any servers. Choose:

a)

IaaS with self-installed mail server

b)

PaaS

c)

SaaS email

d)

Bare-metal colocated server

71.

To reduce cost in the cloud when demand drops at night, you should:

a)

Overprovision

b)

Scale to zero / downsize instances on schedule

c)

Use static size always

d)

Disable autoscaling

72.

A developer wants to test multi-OS environments on a laptop. Best tool?

a)

Type 1 hypervisor only

b)

Type 2 hypervisor (Workstation/VirtualBox)

c)

NAS storage

d)

Bare-metal restore utility

73.

A PC powers on; fans spin; no POST beeps; no video. First step?

a)

Replace CPU

b)

Reseat RAM and GPU; check monitor input/cable

c)

Reinstall Windows

d)

Format the drive

74.

Desktop randomly reboots under load. Most likely cause?

a)

DNS issue

b)

Underpowered/failing PSU

c)

Bad HDMI cable

d)

Wrong wallpaper

75.

After replacing a motherboard, the system powers but shuts down after 10 seconds. Likely cause?

a)

SSD firmware

b)

CPU cooler not seated/plugged

c)

Printer driver

d)

Wrong desktop theme

76.

Laser prints show smearing that rubs off. Likely fix?

a)

Replace fuser

b)

Replace toner only

c)

Calibrate colors

d)

Clean print head nozzles

77.

Inkjet prints have streaks/missing colors. First action?

a)

Replace fuser

b)

Run printhead cleaning/alignment

c)

Replace duplexer

d)

Vacuum paper path

78.

Users on one floor get 169.254.x.x addresses. First check?

a)

DNS zone

b)

DHCP scope/relay for that VLAN

c)

Web proxy

d)

Default gateway’s ARP table

79.

A user can reach internal hosts by IP but not by name. Where do you look?

a)

DHCP lease time

b)

DNS server settings on the client

c)

VLAN tagging

d)

Power plan

80.

Wi-Fi signal is strong but throughput is poor at 2.4 GHz in a dense office. Best change?

a)

Channels 1/6/11 and/or move to 5 GHz

b)

Disable WPA2

c)

Lower AP transmit power drastically

d)

Use WEP for speed

81.

A new M.2 NVMe SSD is installed, but a SATA port disappears. Why?

a)

PSU wattage

b)

Shared chipset lanes—using that M.2 slot disables a SATA port

c)

BIOS password

d)

GPU driver

82.

A user’s monitor shows “Input Not Supported” after changing resolution. Quick fix?

a)

Replace GPU

b)

Boot to low-res mode/safe mode and set a supported resolution

c)

Reinstall all apps

d)

Change DHCP server

83.

A RAID 1 set shows degraded. What should you do first?

a)

Ignore—it's fine

b)

Replace the failed drive and rebuild

c)

Convert to JBOD

d)

Low-level format both drives

84.

Network printer shows Offline, but it responds to ping. Next step?

a)

Replace toner

b)

Check the Windows print queue port/IP and restart the spooler

c)

Change VLANs

d)

Reboot the DNS server

85.

Laptop shuts down during gaming; chassis is hot. First remedy?

a)

Disable fans

b)

Clean vents; check fans; reapply thermal compound if needed

c)

Lower screen brightness

d)

Uninstall antivirus

86.

A user reports no audio after connecting HDMI to a monitor. What changed?

a)

NIC config

b)

Default audio output switched to the monitor

c)

BIOS reset

d)

DHCP lease renewed

87.

A patch panel port is unlabeled; you need to find its wall jack. Best tool combo?

a)

Loopback plug only

b)

Tone generator and probe

c)

OTDR

d)

Cable crimper

88.

Intermittent fiber link errors after moving a switch. Most likely?

a)

IPv6 misconfig

b)

Dirty fiber connectors/poor bend radius

c)

Wrong SSID

d)

DHCP exhaustion

89.

A PoE phone won’t power on at a desk but works in another port. Likely cause?

a)

DNS down

b)

Non-PoE switch port or disabled PoE on that interface

c)

Wrong default gateway

d)

Duplex mismatch

90.

After a power outage, multiple PCs show incorrect time and can’t log in to a domain service. What’s the fix?

a)

Change to static IPs

b)

Restore NTP reachability and sync clocks

c)

Disable DNSSEC

d)

Replace all NICs

91.

Which memory form factor is most common in modern laptops?

a)

DIMM

b)

SO-DIMM

c)

MicroDIMM

d)

RIMM

92.

A laptop screen shows ghosting and slow response times. Which panel type is most likely installed?

a)

IPS

b)

VA

c)

TN

d)

OLED

93.

Which slot is typically used for NVMe SSDs in laptops?

a)

2.5-inch SATA bay

b)

mSATA

c)

M.2 (PCIe)

d)

PCIe x16

94.

A user needs to connect two external 4K displays and multiple peripherals with a single cable. Which port best fits?

a)

USB 3.2 Gen 1 (Type-A)

b)

Thunderbolt 3/4 (USB-C)

c)

HDMI 2.0

d)

Mini DisplayPort 1.2

95.

A cracked smartphone has touch input that no longer registers, but the image looks fine. Which part needs replacing?

a)

LCD/OLED panel

b)

Digitizer

c)

Proximity sensor

d)

Speaker

96.

Which wireless technology is best for short-range tap-to-pay?

a)

NFC

b)

Bluetooth

c)

Wi‑Fi

d)

Zigbee

97.

Tethering a laptop to a phone to share internet is called:

a)

Hotspot

b)

AirDrop

c)

Miracast

d)

Ad‑hoc Wi‑Fi bridge

98.

A user wants higher‑capacity removable storage for a phone that supports it. Which option is appropriate?

a)

microUSB drive

b)

microSD

c)

SIM

d)

Lightning flash drive

99.

A tablet screen automatically rotates. Which sensor enables this?

a)

Proximity sensor

b)

Gyroscope/accelerometer

c)

Ambient light sensor

d)

Magnetometer

100.

Which laptop component is commonly user‑replaceable to extend device life?

a)

CPU

b)

Battery

c)

SO‑DIMM RAM

d)

Discrete GPU module

101.

A user’s laptop trackpad stops clicking after a battery swells. What’s the safest action?

a)

Continue using it until the battery discharges

b)

Power down and replace the battery safely

c)

Puncture the battery to release gas

d)

Disable the trackpad in firmware

102.

A stylus with pressure sensitivity requires what feature?

a)

Passive capacitive stylus

b)

Active digitizer

c)

Resistive touch only

d)

EMI shielding

103.

Which connection is most appropriate for docking a laptop to legacy VGA/USB‑A‑only monitors/peripherals?

a)

Mini DisplayPort dock

b)

USB‑C dock with appropriate outputs

c)

VGA‑to‑HDMI cable only

d)

Bluetooth peripheral hub

104.

eSIM primarily replaces which component?

a)

MicroSD card

b)

Physical SIM card

c)

NFC antenna

d)

IMEI label

105.

Which is not a likely benefit of a laptop docking station over a port replicator?

a)

Additional dedicated GPU

b)

More I/O ports

c)

Power delivery/charging

d)

Single‑cable peripheral connectivity

106.

On iOS/Android, which feature separates work and personal data on BYOD?

a)

Jailbreak/Root

b)

Work Profile / User Enrollment

c)

Developer Mode

d)

Guest account

107.

Which wireless standard operates only in 5 GHz (legacy spec)?

a)

802.11n

b)

802.11ac

c)

802.11ax

d)

802.11b

108.

Laptop RAM is upgraded but the system reports the old capacity. First step?

a)

Update the BIOS/UEFI

b)

Reseat modules and check slot population rules

c)

Replace the motherboard

d)

Run a memory test for errors

109.

Which device forwards traffic between networks based on IP?

a)

Switch

b)

Hub

c)

Router

d)

Bridge

110.

Which IP address indicates APIPA on Windows?

a)

10.0.0.5

b)

169.254.22.8

c)

192.168.0.200

d)

172.16.1.10

111.

Which cable type is required for 10GBASE‑T up to 100 meters?

a)

Cat 5e

b)

Cat 6

c)

Cat 6a

d)

Cat 7

112.

Which fiber connector uses a small form factor, push‑pull design with a latch?

a)

SC

b)

LC

c)

ST

d)

MTRJ

113.

In 2.4 GHz Wi‑Fi, which non‑overlapping channels should you select (20 MHz)?

a)

1, 6, 11

b)

2, 7, 12

c)

3, 8, 13

d)

4, 9, 14

114.

Which security protocol is preferred for SOHO Wi‑Fi today (if supported)?

a)

WEP

b)

WPA (TKIP)

c)

WPA2‑Personal

d)

WPA3‑Personal

115.

You can ping 1.1.1.1 but can’t resolve example.com. What’s likely broken?

a)

DHCP

b)

DNS

c)

Default gateway

d)

Firewall ACL

116.

Which port is used for RDP?

a)

22

b)

80

c)

3389

d)

1433

117.

A SOHO router with a guest network should use which best practice?

a)

Single SSID with a shared passphrase

b)

Client isolation and a separate VLAN

c)

Port forwarding to guest devices

d)

Disable DHCP on the guest SSID

118.

A user needs to reach internal hosts by name. Which server/service is required?

a)

DHCP

b)

DNS

c)

NTP

d)

LDAP

119.

Which WAN technology uses phone lines with a DSL modem?

a)

Cable

b)

xDSL

c)

Fiber PON

d)

Cellular LTE

120.

Which IPv6 address type is link‑local?

a)

fe80::/10

b)

fc00::/7

c)

2001::/16

d)

ff00::/8

121.

Which term describes translating private IPs to a public IP at the edge?

a)

PAT/NAT

b)

Port mirroring (SPAN)

c)

Proxy ARP

d)

VLAN tagging

122.

What does PoE allow?

a)

Power over Ethernet to endpoints

b)

Extra shielding for copper cables

c)

Faster Wi‑Fi speeds

d)

IPv6 addressing over Ethernet

123.

Which tool verifies cable continuity and pair mapping?

a)

Tone generator and probe

b)

Cable tester

c)

Crimper

d)

Loopback plug

124.

A user on Wi‑Fi has weak signal in a far room. Which is the best fix?

a)

Change the SSID

b)

Add a properly placed AP/mesh node

c)

Set a static IP

d)

Lower the channel width

125.

Which DNS record type maps a name to an IPv4 address?

a)

CNAME

b)

MX

c)

A

d)

AAAA

126.

Your DHCP scope is exhausted. What symptom will clients show?

a)

APIPA addresses and no network access

b)

Duplicate‑IP warnings on the server

c)

Slow DNS queries only

d)

High CPU on the router

127.

Which motherboard form factor is largest among the options?

a)

mini‑ITX

b)

micro‑ATX

c)

ATX

d)

Pico‑ITX

128.

Which PSU rating indicates efficiency under various loads?

a)

12 V rail amperage

b)

Modular cabling

c)

80 PLUS (Bronze/Gold/etc.)

d)

Fan diameter

129.

Which storage gives the lowest latency?

a)

7200‑rpm HDD

b)

SATA SSD

c)

NVMe SSD (PCIe)

d)

USB flash drive

130.

Which RAID configuration provides simple disk mirroring, stores identical data on two drives, and can tolerate the failure of one drive with no performance gain?

a)

RAID 0

b)

RAID 1

c)

RAID 5

d)

RAID 10

131.

A user needs high IOPS for a database. Which storage plus slot combo is best?

a)

SATA SSD on 2.5‑inch bay

b)

NVMe SSD on M.2 (PCIe x4)

c)

HDD on SATA

d)

NVMe SSD on PCIe x1

132.

Which printer type uses a fuser, drum, and toner?

a)

Laser

b)

Inkjet

c)

Thermal

d)

Impact (dot‑matrix)

133.

Which connector is used for SATA data?

a)

4‑pin Molex

b)

7‑pin L‑shaped connector

c)

15‑pin SATA power

d)

RJ45

134.

Dual‑channel memory requires:

a)

Any two modules in any slots

b)

Identical capacity/speed in the correct slots

c)

ECC modules only

d)

Mixing SO‑DIMM and DIMM

135.

A monitor supports 2560×1440 at 165 Hz. Which cable/standard is most appropriate?

a)

DisplayPort 1.4

b)

HDMI 1.4

c)

DVI‑D single‑link

d)

VGA

136.

Which interface is hot‑swappable and common for external drives?

a)

PS/2

b)

eSATAp

c)

USB 3.x

d)

Parallel

137.

Which slot type do most modern discrete GPUs use?

a)

PCI

b)

AGP

c)

PCIe x16

d)

M.2

138.

A thermal printer produces faded output. What’s the most likely fix?

a)

Clean the fuser assembly

b)

Replace the paper roll with thermal paper

c)

Replace the toner cartridge

d)

Align the printhead

139.

Which feature allows a CPU to run multiple threads per core?

a)

Turbo Boost

b)

Hyper‑threading/SMT

c)

Multi‑socket motherboard

d)

Wider memory bus

140.

A small office needs a shared storage device with RAID and SMB sharing. Choose:

a)

DAS

b)

NAS

c)

Tape library

d)

SAN (Fibre Channel)

141.

Which port is commonly used for audio + video from a PC to a monitor with HDCP?

a)

DisplayPort

b)

HDMI

c)

VGA

d)

DVI‑A