wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Neurology Part 2 – Post Test Exam (Worksheet Extraction)

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Situation: Pedro, 65-year-old male admitted in the hospital with a diagnosis of stroke. Which of the following best describes ischemic stroke?

a)

It is caused by a blood clot blocking a brain artery.

b)

It occurs when a weakened blood vessels ruptures and bleeds into the brain.

c)

Transient loss of memory, transient loss of speech occurs within 24 hours.

d)

It occurs when a detached clot travels to the pulmonary artery.

2.

Situation: Pedro, 65-year-old male admitted in the hospital with a diagnosis of stroke. The pathophysiology of an ischemic stroke involves the ischemic cascade, which includes the following steps: 1. Change in pH 2. Blood flow decreases 3. A switch to anaerobic respiration 4. Membrane pumps fail 5. Cells cease to function 6. Lactic acid is generated. Put these steps in order in which they occur.

a)

635241

b)

352416

c)

236145

d)

162534

3.

Situation: Pedro, 65-year-old male admitted in the hospital with a diagnosis of stroke. Student nurse Elizarde was asked by the clinical instructor about the rationale of transient ischemic stroke—why it occurs within 24 hours and symptoms subside. This is because of?

a)

The Internal carotid artery stopping the signs and symptoms.

b)

The middle cerebral artery providing alternative route of blood flow.

c)

The carotid artery providing alternative route of blood flow.

d)

The Circle of Willis providing alternative route of blood flow or collateral circulation.

4.

Which of the following is the most common risk factor in stroke?

a)

family history

b)

Prolonged contraceptive use

c)

Smoking

d)

DM and HPN

5.

Most common initial assessment use to determine stroke.

a)

PEERLA

b)

GCS

c)

Cranial nerve assessment

d)

BEFAST

6.

Pedro with stroke is unable to communicate verbally but understands what is said. This is interpreted by the nurse as:

a)

Expressive aphasia

b)

Receptive aphasia

c)

agnosia

d)

Alexia

7.

Nurse Sara is correct that the area and lobe affected in the item above (inability to speak but understanding is intact) is:

a)

brocas area, frontal lobe

b)

brocas area, temporal lobe

c)

wernickes area, temporal lobe

d)

wernickes area, frontal lobe

8.

Pedro develops blindness in the same visual field of both eyes. This is known as:

a)

hemianopsia

b)

dysarthria

c)

Cheyne stoke

d)

apraxia

e)

homonymous hemianopsia

9.

Pedro develops a cyclic breathing pattern that gradually increases then decreases followed by a period of apnea. This is known as:

a)

hemianopsia

b)

dysarthria

c)

Cheyne stoke

d)

apraxia

e)

homonymous hemianopsia

10.

The doctor ordered thrombolytic. Which of the following medications would the nurse administer?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Heparin

c)

Warfarin

d)

Streptokinase

11.

Clinical instructor Geri will question which of the following student actions?

a)

Sophia, administering heparin via IV.

b)

Justine, monitoring the aPTT after administering Heparin.

c)

Rafael, administering Aspirin to a patient diagnosed with hemorrhagic stroke.

d)

Mariel, monitoring the blood pressure of the patient before administering Mannitol.

12.

When heparin toxicity occurs, the nurse should prepare which of the following antidotes?

a)

Dexamethasone

b)

Vitamin K

c)

Protamine sulphate

d)

phylloquinone

13.

The patient has been diagnosed with aphasia after suffering a stroke. What can the nurse do to best make the patient’s atmosphere more conducive to communication?

a)

Provide a board of commonly used needs and phrases.

b)

Have the patient speak to loved ones on the phone daily.

c)

Help the patient complete his or her sentences.

d)

Speak in a loud and deliberate voice to the patient.

14.

A patient diagnosed with a cerebral aneurysm reports a severe headache to the nurse. What action is a priority for the nurse?

a)

Sit with the patient for a few minutes.

b)

Administer an analgesic.

c)

Inform the nurse-manager.

d)

Call the physician immediately.

15.

Nurse Russell will collaborate to refer Pedro to the ______ to assist him in performing activities of daily living like dressing.

a)

Speech and language therapist

b)

Audiologists

c)

Physical therapist

d)

Occupational therapist

16.

Situation: Boss D sustained a head injury after a motor vehicular accident during the holidays. Nurse Katrina identifies the normal ICP is:

a)

0-15 km/hr

b)

120-250 cc

c)

0-15 mmHg

d)

60-150 mmHg

17.

According to Monroe Kelly hypothesis, the skull is a closed vault. Any increase to the intracranial components leads to:

a)

increase intracranial pressure.

b)

decrease intracranial pressure.

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Balance of the components

18.

Nurse Aliyah asks Nurse Sonya about the most sensitive and earliest indication of increased intracranial pressure. Nurse Sonya answers:

a)

headache

b)

projectile vomiting

c)

unilateral dilation of pupil

d)

widening pulse pressure

e)

altered level of consciousness

19.

Widening pulse pressure, irregular respiration, and bradycardia is known as:

a)

Beck’s triad

b)

virchow’s triad

c)

cushing’s triad

d)

bulbar sign

20.

The patient is manifesting decorticate posturing or flexion. The nurse identifies that the damage is:

a)

spinal cord only

b)

brain stem

c)

pons

d)

spinal cord and cerebral cortex

21.

Situation: Kim suffered a viral infection a few weeks ago and was diagnosed with Guillain Barre Syndrome. Guillain Barre syndrome is an autoimmune disorder characterized by:

a)

Ascending paralysis

b)

Descending paralysis

c)

Irritability

d)

Petechiae

22.

A patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome has experienced a sharp decline in vital capacity. What is the nurse’s most appropriate action?

a)

Administer bronchodilators as ordered.

b)

Remind the patient of the importance of deep breathing and coughing exercises.

c)

Prepare to assist with intubation.

d)

Administer supplementary oxygen by nasal cannula.

23.

Kim, 53-year-old patient, underwent lumbar puncture. Laboratory findings reveal which typical result for Guillain-Barré syndrome?

a)

CSF protein increase, normal cell count, normal glucose

b)

CSF protein decrease, normal cell count, normal glucose

c)

CSF protein increase, abnormal cell count, normal glucose

d)

CSF protein decrease, abnormal cell count, abnormal glucose

24.

Doctor Ong ordered IV immunoglobulin. The nurse understands the action of this medication is:

a)

IV immunoglobulin blocks the damaging antibodies.

b)

IV immunoglobulin removes antibodies.

c)

IV immunoglobulin prevents blood clot.

d)

IV immunoglobulin makes blood viscous.

25.

Guillain-Barré syndrome prognosis is about:

a)

80%

b)

15%

c)

25%

d)

5%

e)

55%

26.

Situation: Myasthenia Gravis affects women in the population. Siryah, 52 years old, was diagnosed with Myasthenia Gravis. Which of the following best describes Myasthenia Gravis?

a)

It is an autoimmune disorder characterized by descending paralysis.

b)

It is a disorder involving the upper and lower neural junction.

c)

It is an autoimmune disorder characterized by ascending paralysis.

d)

It is a life threatening complication of spinal cord injuries above T6.

27.

The neurotransmitter involved in myasthenia gravis is:

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Dopamine

c)

Serotonin

d)

Glutamate

28.

The number 1 sign of myasthenia gravis is?

a)

Ptosis

b)

Diplopia

c)

Strabismus

d)

Severe weakness

29.

Edrophonium (Tensilon) test is used to diagnose myasthenia gravis and to differentiate crises. Nurse Rosanov should be alert and prepare which equipment at the bedside?

a)

Scissors

b)

Gloves

c)

Emergency equipment

d)

Basin

30.

The result of the Tensilon test after 5 minutes shows an improvement in muscle strength. Nurse Clara should interpret this as?

a)

Myasthenic crisis and the patient needs more medication like Neostigmine

b)

Cholinergic crisis and the patient needs more medication like Neostigmine

c)

Cholinergic crisis and the patient is overmedicated with cholinesterase inhibitor

d)

Cholinergic crisis and the patient is overmedicated with Atropine Sulphate

31.

Which of the following best describes Bell’s palsy?

a)

It is a lower motor neuron lesion of cranial nerve VII.

b)

It is a defect in cranial nerve V.

c)

It is a life-threatening complication of spinal cord injuries above T6.

d)

It is the decrease or loss of sensorimotor function if the injury of spinal cord.

32.

Bell’s palsy is characterized by?

a)

Paralysis of both sides of the face, inability to raise eyebrows, frown, smile, close the eyelids and puff the cheeks.

b)

Paralysis of both sides of the face, ability to raise eyebrows, frown, smile, close the eyelids and puff the cheeks.

c)

Paralysis of one side of the face, inability to raise eyebrows, frown, smile, close the eyelids and puff the cheeks.

d)

Paralysis of one side of the face, ability to raise eyebrows, frown, smile, close the eyelids and puff the cheeks.

33.

Which of the following best describes autonomic dysreflexia?

a)

It is a lower motor neuron lesion of cranial nerve VII.

b)

It is a defect in cranial nerve V.

c)

It is a life-threatening complication of spinal cord injuries above T6.

d)

It is the decrease or loss of sensorimotor function if the injury of spinal cord.

34.

Which of the following is the correct manifestation of autonomic dysreflexia?

a)

Increased blood pressure in the upper extremities, throbbing headache and bradycardia.

b)

Increased blood pressure in the lower extremities, throbbing headache and bradycardia.

c)

Decrease blood pressure in the upper extremities, throbbing headache and tachycardia.

d)

Normal blood pressure in both extremities, throbbing headache and bradycardia.

35.

Which antihypertensive drug is best given to a patient with autonomic dysreflexia?

a)

Propanonol

b)

Nifedipine

c)

Losartan

d)

Hydralazine

36.

At the scene of spinal cord injury, the initial step is to:

a)

Assess the presence of injury

b)

Apply backboard

c)

Secure cervical collar

d)

Do not try to reduce fracture

37.

Ilya sustained a spinal cord injury due to sports hockey. He was rushed to the hospital and the C1–C4 was damaged. Nurse Rosanov should expect which of the following?

a)

Bowel and urinary incontinence

b)

Impotence

c)

Paraplegia with good back support

d)

Respiratory decline

38.

Most common cause of spinal cord injuries is due to?

a)

falls

b)

sports

c)

hockey

d)

motor vehicular accident

39.

Ilya suddenly loses all functions (sensory, motor and reflex). This is interpreted as?

a)

Hypovolemic shock

b)

Spinal shock

c)

Neurogenic shock

d)

Autonomic dysreflexia

40.

Ilya’s condition progressively declines; specific sympathetic tone occurs like hypotension, bradycardia and bradypnea. He is experiencing?

a)

Hypovolemic shock

b)

Spinal shock

c)

Neurogenic shock

d)

Autonomic dysreflexia

41.

Type of headache without causations. This is?

a)

Primary headache

b)

Secondary headache

c)

Tertiary headache

d)

Quarternary headache

42.

Seizure is a disorder of the CNS due to excessive electrical impulses or discharges with the action potential that changes the motor, sensory and conscious functions. The universal excitatory is ______.

a)

GABA

b)

serotonin

c)

dopamine

d)

glutamate

43.

Boligawagaw was diagnosed with a seizure disorder. One day, he experienced tingling and jerky movement of the index finger and thumb and it spreads to the shoulders. He is experiencing?

a)

Generalized seizure

b)

Tonic-clonic seizure

c)

Jackson March

d)

Status Epilepticus

44.

Which of the following is not correct in the management of seizure?

a)

Clear the site of sharps and harmful objects.

b)

Loosen constrictive clothing.

c)

Observe duration and characteristics.

d)

Restrain the patient.

45.

Which of the following best describes trigeminal neuralgia?

a)

It is a lower motor neuron lesion of cranial nerve VII.

b)

It is a defect in cranial nerve V.

c)

It is a life-threatening complication of spinal cord injuries above T6.

d)

It is the decrease or loss of sensorimotor function if the injury of spinal cord.

46.

Princess, a 3-year-old patient, was rushed to the hospital due to fever, chills, anorexia, projectile vomiting and nuchal rigidity. Diagnosis is meningitis. Which of the following is the etiologic agent among pediatric patients?

a)

Streptococcus

b)

Hemophilus influenzae

c)

Meningococcus

d)

Pneumococcus

47.

Patient with meningitis lies on their back. Nurse Toby flexes the hip and knee to 90 degrees; pain or resistance occurs when extending the knee. This is:

a)

Opisthotonus

b)

Kernig’s sign

c)

Brudzinski’s sign

d)

Neck sign

48.

The patient is for lumbar tap. Which of the following finding is expected in meningitis?

a)

Increase CHON and WBC, decrease glucose and cloudy CSF

b)

Decrease CHON and WBC, decrease glucose and cloudy CSF

c)

Increase CHON and WBC, decrease glucose and cloudy CSF

d)

Increase CHON, normal glucose and normal cell counts

49.

It is the inflammation of the brain parenchyma and meninges following a viral infection or arbovirus.

a)

Meningitis

b)

Encephalitis

c)

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

d)

Cerebral palsy

50.

A patient with suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) is being admitted to the unit. The nurse would expect what diagnostic test to be ordered for this patient?

a)

Cerebral angiography

b)

ABG analysis

c)

X-ray

d)

EEG