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bjikl

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the most common manifestation of Alport’s syndrome?

a)

A. Hematuria

b)

B. Oliguria

c)

C. Deafness

d)

D. Proteinuria

2.

A 67-year-old man presents with sudden onset flank pain and hematuria. Ultrasound reveals enlargement of both kidneys. He is a known case of membranous nephropathy. What is the likely pathophysiology for his current presentation?

a)

A. Loss of antithrombin III

b)

B. Increased fibrinogen

c)

C. Factor V Leiden mutation

d)

D. Increase in protein C

3.

A 10-year-old boy is brought for a follow-up visit. He was diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome 3 months ago and had been started on a course of oral prednisolone. During the current visit, no improvement is noted with regards to facial puffiness and urine analysis reveals grade 3 proteinuria. Mutations in all of the following are associated with this condition except:

a)

A. Nephrin

b)

B. Megalin

c)

C. Alpha-actinin 4

d)

D. Podocin

4.

An 18-year-old otherwise healthy boy presents with complaints of hematuria. His father has also had similar complaints since childhood. Light microscopy of the renal biopsy specimen showed no abnormalities. Diffuse thinning of the glomerular basement membrane was seen on electron microscopy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

A. Benign familial hematuria

b)

B. Goodpasture syndrome

c)

C. Alport syndrome

d)

D. Berger’s disease

5.

A 7-year-old girl is brought with complaints of generalized swelling of the body and frothy urine. Urinary examination revealed grade 3 proteinuria and the presence of hyaline and fatty casts. There were no red blood cells in the urine. Which of the following statements about her condition is true?

a)

A. IgA nephropathy is the likely diagnosis

b)

B. It is associated with low C3 levels

c)

C. No IgG or C3 deposition is seen on renal biopsy

d)

D. Alport syndrome is the likely diagnosis

6.

Urinary albumin excretion of how much is considered as microalbuminuria?

a)

A. 100–150 mg/24 hours

b)

B. 151–200 mg/24 hours

c)

C. 30–300 mg/24 hours

d)

D. 3–30 mg/24 hours

7.

In a patient with nephrotic syndrome, all of the following are decreased except:

a)

A. Thyroid-binding globulin

b)

B. Transferrin

c)

C. Fibrinogen

d)

D. Ferritin

8.

19-year-old male presents with swelling of the legs and periorbital puffiness. He also complains of frothy urine. His 24-hour urinary protein is 3.8 g/day. All of the following could be the etiology of his kidney disease except:

a)

A. Minimal change disease

b)

B. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

c)

C. Membranous nephropathy

d)

D. IgA nephropathy

9.

A 45-year-old man presents with swelling of the legs and hands, along with breathlessness on exertion. On examination, his jugular venous pressure is elevated, there is pedal edema, and an S3 gallop is audible. Urine routine shows 1+ proteinuria, and 24-hour urinary protein is 1.5 g/day. What is the most likely explanation for his proteinuria?

a)

A. It is functional proteinuria

b)

B. Requires renal biopsy

c)

C. Treatment is steroids

d)

D. Blood pressure will be high

10.

Gold standard investigation for diagnosis of adynamic bone disease is:

a)

Bone mineral density (BMD) measurement

b)

Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA)

c)

Iliac crest bone biopsy with tetracycline double-labeling

d)

Bone marrow biopsy

11.

Which of the following is a recently approved NHE3 inhibitor used in the management of hyperphosphatemia in CKD with high bone turnover disease?

a)

Ritonavir

b)

Tenapanor

c)

Deferoxamine

d)

Istradefylline

12.

Which of the following is least likely to be seen in a patient with untreated chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Hyperparathyroidism

c)

Hypophosphatemia

d)

Hypercalcemia

13.

A 55-year-old lady with chronic kidney disease – stage 3 comes for routine evaluation. What is the finding in urine routine that is most appropriate for this diagnosis?

a)

Broad waxy cast

b)

Hyaline cast

c)

Renal tubular epithelial cast

d)

RBC cast

14.

A 55-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease – stage 5 presents with palpitations. ECG reveals atrial fibrillation and she is started on warfarin. A week later, she develops a painful nodule over the abdomen followed by skin blackening and ulceration. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the underlying condition?

a)

A. There is vascular occlusion of skin and subcutaneous tissue

b)

B. Precipitated by warfarin

c)

C. Livedo reticularis is the first manifestation

d)

D. It can be seen in earlier stages of CKD

15.

A 25-year-old lady presents to the OPD with swelling of the legs and frothy urine for 6 months. She also complains of joint pain and rashes. Urine routine examination shows 4+ protein. 24-hour urinary protein is 7.5 g/day. Renal biopsy reveals uniform thickening of the basement membrane, and electron microscopy demonstrates subepithelial deposits. According to the ISN/RPS lupus nephritis classification, which class does this biopsy represent?

a)

Class II

b)

Class III

c)

Class IV

d)

Class V

16.

A 40-year-old patient presents with swelling of legs, periorbital puffiness, frothy urine, and 24-hour urinary protein of 5.5 g/day. Renal biopsy is suggestive of membranous nephropathy. Which of the following antibodies is responsible for primary membranous nephropathy?

a)

PLA2R antibody

b)

Antinuclear antibody

c)

Anti-Scl antibody

d)

Anti-MPO antibody

17.

A 45-year-old gentleman presented as nephrotic syndrome, undergoes biopsy and is diagnosed as membranous nephropathy. His blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg. What is the drug of choice in this condition?

a)

Telmisartan

b)

Diltiazem

c)

Clonidine

d)

Amlodipine

18.

22-year-old lady has been recently diagnosed as Systemic Lupus Erythematosus. Which of the following investigations correlates best with kidney disease activity?

a)

ANA

b)

Anti-dsDNA

c)

Anti-Sm

d)

Anti-RNP

19.

A 10-year-old child has bloody diarrhea. One week later, he developed swelling of legs and reduced urine output. On evaluation, his renal function tests were deranged with elevated creatinine and peripheral smear showed microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. What is the expected complement level in this patient?

a)

Low C3, Low C4

b)

Low C3, Normal C4

c)

Normal C3, Normal C4

d)

Normal C3, Low C4

20.

A 20-year-old primigravida undergoes normal vaginal delivery at full term. On day 2 after delivery, she develops reduced urine output and swelling of her legs. Her serum creatinine was elevated, serum C3 was reduced, and serum C4 was normal. She had anemia and elevated LDH. Peripheral smear revealed hemolytic anemia. What is the most common cause of this condition?

a)

Factor H deficiency

b)

Factor B deficiency

c)

C3 mutation

d)

C4 mutation

21.

A 20-year-old gentleman has sudden onset swelling of his legs and reduced urine output. On evaluation, the patient has microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, elevated creatinine, and low complement C3 level. Which of the following treatments is appropriate for the patient?

a)

Plasma exchange

b)

Prednisolone

c)

Eculizumab

d)

All of the above

22.

5-year-old child with swelling of legs and reduced urine output was brought to OPD. Investigation was suggestive of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia and low complement C3. Eculizumab was used in the treatment of this condition. What does this drug inhibit to bring about remission of the disease?

a)

c3

b)

c4

c)

c5

d)

c9

23.

A 46-year-old lady, known case of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus with bilateral diabetic retinopathy. The patient has proteinuria in urine examination and serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dL. All of the following lesions are expected in the renal biopsy of this patient except:

a)

Kimmelstiel–Wilson lesion

b)

Spike and hole configuration of GBM

c)

Hyaline arteriolosclerosis

d)

Mesangial expansion

24.

A 15-year-old boy presents with swelling of his legs and reduced urine output for two months. He also complains of dizziness since childhood and reduced vision. On evaluation, he has anterior lenticonus and bilateral sensorineural hearing loss. His serum creatinine is 9 mg/dL. What is the inheritance of this disease?

a)

X-linked

b)

Autosomal dominant

c)

Autosomal recessive

d)

none

25.

A 20-year-old gentleman with chronic kidney disease stage two and a family history of kidney disease, along with sensorineural hearing loss and blindness, presents to OPD for further management. His BP is 160/110 mmHg. Renal biopsy reveals thinning and splitting of the basement membrane. What is the most appropriate management for him?

a)

ACE inhibitors

b)

Steroids

c)

Cyclophosphamide

d)

Mycophenolate mofetil

26.

A 30-year-old lady comes with complaints of episodes of flank pain since 15 years. Her BP is normal and on evaluation, the ultrasound abdomen is normal, and renal function tests are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis in this patient?

a)

Thin basement membrane disease

b)

Alport’s syndrome

c)

IgA nephropathy

d)

ADPKD

27.

A 50-year-old gentleman comes with complaints of abdominal swelling and flank pain. On evaluation with ultrasound, he has bilateral large kidneys with multiple cysts. He also gives a family history of kidney disease in his father and brother. All of the following statements are true about this condition except:

a)

Seen because of PKD gene mutation

b)

Seen because of PKHD gene mutation

c)

Can cause ESRD

d)

Hypertension is common

28.

A 45-year-old lady comes with complaints of early satiety, abdominal distension, and abdominal pain. On evaluation, she has hypertension. Investigation shows creatinine of 1.5 mg/dL. Ultrasound reveals bilaterally enlarged kidneys with multiple cysts. All of the following are treatment options in this condition except:

a)

Reduce water intake

b)

Reduce salt intake

c)

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor

d)

Tolvaptan

29.

A 60-year-old gentleman presents with complaints of swelling of legs and abdominal distension for three years. There is a history of cystic kidney disease in his family, and his father and cousin brother had undergone dialysis. All of the following are extra-renal manifestations of this disease except:

a)

Liver cyst

b)

Intracranial aneurysm

c)

HOCM

d)

Mitral valve prolapse

30.

A 15-year-old child presents with seizures. On examination, the child has ungual fibroma, ash-leaf spots, and shagreen patches. What is the most common renal manifestation of this disease?

a)

Kidney cysts

b)

Angiomyolipoma

c)

Renal stones

d)

Renal cell carcinoma

31.

50-year-old patient, with a known case of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus and chronic kidney disease with diabetic nephropathy, comes to the OPD for surgical fitness for the amputation of a diabetic foot. His arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis is as follows: pH 7.22, HCO₃⁻ 18 mEq/L, sodium 135 mEq/L, chloride 108 mEq/L, and potassium 6 mEq/L. What is the diagnosis?

a)

RTA TYPE 1

b)

RTA TYPE 3

c)

RTA TYPE 4

d)

None

32.

A 56-year-old gentleman in the ICU received multiple blood transfusions, and citrate overload led to metabolic alkalosis. Hence, he was started on acetazolamide to reverse the metabolic abnormality. Two days later, his arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis shows pH 7.23, bicarbonate 18 mEq/L, sodium 136 mEq/L, chloride 110 mEq/L, and potassium 2.4 mEq/L. What are the coexistent abnormalities seen in this condition?

a)

glycosuria

b)

aminoaciduria

c)

phosphaturia

d)

all

33.

A 65-year-old gentleman with a known case of coronary artery disease underwent coronary angiography. His baseline creatinine was 0.8 mg/dl. Two weeks later, he developed an increase in serum creatinine to 2.3 mg/dl and livedo reticularis. His urine routine showed eosinophils without any active sediments. What is the diagnosis?

a)

Contrast-induced nephropathy

b)

Atheroembolic renal disease

c)

Ischemic nephropathy

d)

Hemolytic uremic syndrome

34.

A 50-year-old lady with a history of recurrent urinary tract infection develops loin pain and fever with pus in the urine. She is started on intravenous amikacin based on urine culture sensitivity reports. Which of the following statements is true about the drug being used by her?

a)

Acute kidney injury because amikacin is non-oliguric

b)

Acute kidney injury occurs immediately upon starting the drug

c)

The drug does not require dose modification in patients with kidney disease

d)

Amikacin belongs to the penicillin group of antibiotics

35.

A 25-year-old gentleman with a history of consumption of antifreeze comes with a history of reduced urine output, haematuria. On evaluation, he has a high osmolar gap. Which of these crystals can be found in the urine examination of this patient?

a)

Uric acid

b)

Cystine

c)

Oxalic acid

d)

Phosphate

36.

A 52-year-old gentleman presents to OPD with following investigations. His serum urea is 100 mg/dl and serum creatinine is 1.2 mg/dl. This disproportionate increase of urea when compared to creatinine can be seen in all the below-mentioned conditions except:

a)

Aminoglycoside usage

b)

Hyperalimentation

c)

Increased tissue catabolism

d)

Glucocorticoid use

37.

A 35-year-old gentleman has had 20 episodes of running diarrhea per day for past two days. Upon examination, he had a pulse of 110 beats/min and a blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg. He has reduced urine output, and it is highly colored. His urine routine is regular. What could be his Fractional excretion of sodium (FeNa)?

a)

<1%

b)

1–2%

c)

2–5%

d)

>5%

38.

A 75-year-old patient undergoes Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) and in post-operative period was noticed to have reduced urine output for 2 hrs. What is the best biomarker to diagnose AKI in this patient?

a)

Blood urea nitrogen

b)

Serum urea

c)

Serum creatinine

d)

NGAL

39.

25-year-old patient with road traffic accident was brought to ER. He was found to have multiple fractures and injury to muscles. On Foley’s catheterization, his urine was reddish brown in color, urea was 200 mmol/L, creatinine was 7.8 mg/dl, and potassium was 6.7 mEq/L. What is the cause of acute kidney injury in this patient?

a)

rhabdomyolysis

b)

glomerulonephritis

c)

interstitial nephritis

d)

fat embolism

40.

Fanconi Syndrome affects

a)

ascending limb of loop of Henle

b)

PCT

c)

DCT

d)

Collecting Duct

41.

Which of the following is the cardiac sound that is better appreciated with a bell than the diaphragm of the stethoscope?

a)

Murmur of aortic stenosis

b)

Murmur of Mitral regurgitation

c)

S1

d)

Murmur of mitral stenosis

42.

Which of the following murmur does not increase on passive leg raising?

a)

Mitral stenosis

b)

Mitral regurgitation

c)

Aortic stenosis

d)

Mitral valve prolapse

43.

A 5-year-old child was examined by a pediatrician. He heard a grade 3/6 ejection systolic murmur along the left sternal border. S2 is widely split and does not vary with respiration. Lungs are clear and abdomen is soft and non-tender. Most likely diagnosis in this case?

a)

TOF

b)

ASD

c)

VSD

d)

PDA

44.

A patient is diagnosed with aortic stenosis. A 2nd medico is trying to listen to the murmur. Which of the following maneuvers may make it difficult for him to appreciate the murmur?

a)

Squatting

b)

Passive leg raising

c)

Expiration

d)

Sustained hand grip

45.

A 25-year-old athlete being evaluated for the possibility of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy since initial examination revealed a systolic murmur in the aortic area. Which of the following can help to consider HOCM over aortic stenosis clinically?

a)

Decrease in murmur intensity on Valsalva

b)

Increase in murmur intensity on squatting

c)

Increase in heart rate on Valsalva

d)

Increase in murmur intensity on standing

46.

Which of the following is not a diastolic murmur?

a)

Gallaverdin’s phenomenon

b)

Austin Flint murmur

c)

Carey Coomb’s murmur

d)

Docke’s murmur

47.

Best location to auscultate for a murmur originating from aortic valve is:

a)

Left 2nd ICS

b)

Right 2nd ICS

c)

Left lower sternal border

d)

Right lower sternal border

48.

Which of the following systolic murmur does not increase on squatting?

a)

ESM of aortic stenosis

b)

ESM of HOCM

c)

Pansystolic murmur of tricuspid regurgitation

d)

Pansystolic murmur of MR

49.

A 65-year-old is diagnosed with aortic stenosis. An ESM murmur was heard in aortic area. Which of the following is unlikely to be seen in this patient?

a)

Ejection click

b)

Conduction of the murmur to mitral area

c)

Increase in murmur intensity on Valsalva

d)

Increase in murmur intensity during expiration

50.

Which of the following sound does not increase on inspiration?

a)

Early diastolic murmur of pulmonic regurgitation

b)

Ejection systolic murmur of pulmonic stenosis

c)

Pansystolic murmur of tricuspid regurgitation

d)

Pulmonary ejection click

51.

A 62-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents for a routine checkup. The physician wants to assess the character of the patient’s arterial pulse to evaluate for potential valvular disease. Which of the following sites is most appropriate for this assessment?

a)

Carotid pulse

b)

Radial pulse

c)

Brachial pulse

d)

none

52.

Which of the following statements about arterial pulse is false?

a)

Percussion wave represents expansion of aorta on entry of blood from LV during LV ejection

b)

Tidal wave is due to elastic recoil of the aorta

c)

Dicrotic notch corresponds to S2

d)

Velocity of blood column through vasculature is higher than the pressure wave created by LV ejection

53.

A 70-year-old man presents with progressive exertional dyspnea and episodes of chest discomfort. On carotid palpation, pulsus parvus et tardus is seen. Which valvular abnormality most likely explains these findings?

a)

AS + AR

b)

Aortic stenosis

c)

Mitral stenosis

d)

HOCM

54.

Pulsus bisferiens is characterised by:

a)

Prominent anacrotic and dicrotic notch

b)

Two systolic peaks

c)

Delayed systolic peak

d)

All of the above

55.

In which of the following conditions increased pulse deficit is seen?

a)

Atrial fibrillation

b)

Aortic stenosis

c)

Aortic regurgitation

d)

First degree heart block

56.

Which of the following conditions is not associated with wide pulse pressure?

a)

Hyperthyroidism

b)

Hyperdynamic states

c)

Aortic regurgitation

d)

Mitral stenosis

57.

A wave in JVP corresponds to which phase of the ventricular cardiac cycle?

a)

Isovolumetric contraction

b)

Isovolumetric relaxation

c)

Active filling

d)

Rapid ejection

58.

Lancisi sign on JVP and pulsatile liver are features of:

a)

Aortic stenosis

b)

Tricuspid stenosis

c)

Tricuspid regurgitation

d)

Pulmonic stenosis

59.

In which of the following conditions y-descent is inconspicuous?

a)

pulmonary embolism

b)

constrictive pericarditis

c)

restrictive cardiomyopathy

d)

cardiac tamponade

60.

12-year-old is suspected of having rheumatic fever. She had a throat infection 3 weeks ago and has high anti-SLO titres. Which of the following is most likely to be the presenting symptom?

a)

Carditis

b)

Mitral regurgitation

c)

Polyarthritis

d)

Chorea

61.

Drug of choice (DOC) for secondary prevention of rheumatic heart disease (RHD) in a patient with established diagnosis of rheumatic fever is:

a)

IV Clindamycin

b)

IV Vancomycin + Ampicillin

c)

IM Benzathine penicillin

d)

Oral erythromycin

62.

20 year old was diagnosed with RHD with severe MS and mild MR.Cardiologist has suggested balloon mitral valvotomy.Which of the following is the underlying mechanism of Valvular stenosis in RHD that allows ballon valvotomy

a)

calcification of valves

b)

rupture of chordae

c)

fusion of commisures

d)

vegetation on valves

63.

15 year old girl with a past episode of rheumatic fever and mild carditis is planned for secondary prophylaxis.She has a documented severe allergic reaction to penicillin .Which of the following is the most appropriate alternative

a)

roxithromycin

b)

cefalexin

c)

ofloxacin

d)

pentoxyphylline

64.

55-year-old male presents with severe hypertension (BP 210/120 mmHg), altered mental status, headache, and dyspnea. CT brain shows cerebral edema. Which of the following findings is not considered a marker of hypertension-mediated acute organ damage?

a)

Concentric LVH

b)

Posterior reversible encephalopathy

c)

Hypertensive encephalopathy

d)

Acute heart failure

65.

38-year-old patient presented with episodes of syncope. On auscultation, he has a systolic murmur best heard in the right 2nd intercostal space. Murmur intensity increased on standing and decreased on squatting. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Anterior MI

b)

HOCM

c)

Mitral stenosis

d)

Aortic stenosis

66.

60-year-old man with a history of chest pain and diabetes is admitted with hypotension and elevated jugular venous pressure. ECG reveals ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Echocardiography shows right ventricular dilation and impaired function. Additionally, his brother was diagnosed with restrictive cardiomyopathy. Which of the following conditions are both associated with the risk of right heart failure?

a)

A. HOCM

b)

Inferior wall MI

c)

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

d)

Both B and C

67.

35-year-old was diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. His echocardiography is likely to show all the following features except:

a)

Diastolic dysfunction

b)

Systolic anterior motion of anterior mitral leaflet

c)

Increased EF (>70%)

d)

Apical ballooning during systole

68.

A 60-year-old woman presents with increasing shortness of breath, fatigue, and noticeable swelling in her legs and abdomen. Physical examination reveals elevated jugular venous pressure, hepatomegaly, and ascites. Initial echocardiogram suggests possible constrictive pericarditis. Which of the following findings would be LEAST supportive of this diagnosis?

a)

Ascites

b)

Retractile apex

c)

Pericardial knock

d)

Acute pulmonary edema

69.

45-year-old woman presents with shortness of breath on exertion and fatigue. Cardiac evaluation, including echocardiography and cardiac catheterization, is performed. During the catheterization procedure, a characteristic “square root sign” pattern is observed in her ventricular pressure tracings. This finding is highly suggestive of which of the following conditions?

a)

Atrial septal defect (ASD)

b)

Mitral valve prolapse syndrome

c)

Dilated cardiomyopathy

d)

Constrictive pericarditis

70.

A 60-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents for follow-up. He reports experiencing chest discomfort during his evening walks, which is relieved by rest and sublingual nitroglycerin. Which of the following medications would be least useful in reducing his anginal symptoms?

a)

DHP-Calcium channel blockers

b)

Beta blockers

c)

Nitrates

d)

Digoxin

71.

A 62-year-old diabetic male with chronic stable angina is being managed for long-term cardiovascular risk reduction. Which of the following drugs are recommended to prevent major adverse cardiac events (MACE) in such patients?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Clopidogrel

c)

Statins

d)

All

72.

65-year-old man with stable angina experiences chest pain during his morning walk. Which of the following is the first-line drug of choice for immediate relief of symptoms?

a)

nitrates sublingual

b)

nitrates oral

c)

nitrates IV

d)

beta blockers

73.

What is the most common cause for aortic stenosis?

a)

Congenital bicuspid aortic valve

b)

Ochronosis

c)

Atherosclerosis

d)

Aortitis

74.

10-year-old patient has come with her parents for a follow-up after she had pharyngitis a fortnight ago. Her parents complain that she is still warm to touch, unable to eat, and complains of generalised body ache and joint pain. She reports breathlessness on exertion. On examination, she is febrile, visibly fatigued, and is tachycardic. Joints are red, swollen, and tender. What type of murmur would you find in this patient?

a)

Ejection systolic murmur

b)

Mid-diastolic murmur

c)

Pansystolic murmur

d)

Machinery murmur

75.

60-year-old patient has presented to the casualty with acute-onset chest pain and shortness of breath. He has a history of familial hypercholesterolemia and has had hypertension since 7 years for which he has been taking medications. On examination, he has a thrusting apex beat and a systolic murmur which sounds like saw cutting wood. On ECG, there is ST depression and T-wave inversion in leads II, III, aVF, V5 and V6 along with deep S in V1 and tall R in V5, V6. What is the diagnosis?

a)

Aortic stenosis

b)

Aortic regurgitation

c)

Mitral regurgitation

d)

Mitral stenosis

76.

A 10-year-old asymptomatic child is found to have a crescendo–decrescendo systolic murmur at the left upper sternal border on routine physical examination. Echocardiography reveals a thickened, immobile pulmonary valve with a peak pressure gradient of 60 mmHg across the valve. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management

a)

Balloon valvuloplasty

b)

Surgical valvotomy

c)

Initiation of diuretic therapy

d)

Observation with serial echocardiograms

77.

neonate with critical pulmonary stenosis presents with cyanosis and respiratory distress shortly after birth. Which of the following medications is most likely to be beneficial in this situation?

a)

Prostaglandin E1

b)

Indomethacin

c)

Furosemide

d)

sildenafil

78.

A 4-month-old infant presents with progressive cyanosis, tachypnea, and poor feeding. On examination, there is a systolic ejection murmur at the left upper sternal border and a single S2 heart sound. Chest X-ray shows a boot-shaped heart. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

ASD

b)

VSD

c)

TOF

d)

TGA

79.

45-year-old woman presents with progressive dyspnea on exertion, fatigue, and chest pain. On examination, there is a loud, harsh systolic ejection murmur best heard at the left second intercostal space, increasing with inspiration. Echocardiography shows a thickened and calcified pulmonary valve with a mean pressure gradient of 60 mmHg across the valve. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Aortic stenosis

b)

Mitral regurgitation

c)

Pulmonary stenosis

d)

Tricuspid regurgitation

80.

5-year-old child with dysmorphic features including a broad forehead, short stature, and intellectual disability presents with exercise intolerance and a systolic murmur heard best at the left upper sternal border. Echocardiography reveals multiple areas of narrowing in the peripheral branches of the pulmonary arteries. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis, as seen in this child, is most commonly associated with:

a)

Subaortic stenosis

b)

Takayasu arteritis

c)

Williams syndrome

d)

Coarctation of the aorta

81.

What is the paper speed of a standard ECG?

a)

25 mm/sec

b)

25 meter/sec

c)

25 ft/sec

d)

25cm/s

82.

patient is suspected of posterior wall MI. What additional lead placement may be required for the detection of posterior wall MI?

a)

V4R

b)

V6, V7

c)

V7, V8, V9

d)

V1R, V2R

83.

Which of the following diseases cannot be diagnosed solely based on ECG?

a)

LVH

b)

SVT

c)

AFib

d)

Aortic stenosis

84.

35-year-old collapsed suddenly while talking to his boss at the office. His wearable smartwatch alerted about arrhythmia and interpreted it as VTib. He was not responding to verbal commands. What is the next best step in management?

a)

IV adenosine

b)

IV amiodarone

c)

start CPR

d)

defibrillatio

85.

patient was diagnosed with pulseless VT and was started on CPR. What is the next best step in management?

a)

IV amiodarone

b)

Cardioversion

c)

Defibrillation

d)

Iv adenosine

86.

False about torsades de pointes is:

a)

It is a type of polymorphic VT

b)

Prolonged QT interval is a risk factor

c)

QRS complexes twist around the isoelectric line

d)

Flecainide is the drug of choice

87.

The drug of choice for AV blocks is

a)

dopamine

b)

dobutamine

c)

atropine

d)

adrenaline

88.

62-year-old man presents with palpitations and ECG shows a narrow-complex regular tachycardia at 180/min. Vagal maneuvers fail. He is hemodynamically stable. Which is the drug of choice?

a)

IV amiodarone

b)

IV adenosine

c)

IV verapamil

d)

IV lidocaine

89.

A patient with torsades de pointes is brought to the emergency department. Which of the following drugs should be administered immediately?

a)

Verapamil

b)

Diltiazem

c)

Mgso4

d)

Flecainide

90.

Example of K+ Channel opener

a)

Losartan

b)

minoxdil

c)

racecadotril

d)

lisinopril