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Doctopia.in Live Quiz Jan 06 9 AM

Total questions: 41

Worksheet time: 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The Pudendal nerve leaves the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen and enters the perineum through the:

a)

Obturator foramen

b)

Lesser sciatic foramen

c)

Urogenital diaphragm

d)

Pudendal canal immediately

2.

Subclavian steal syndrome results in blood being stolen from the:

a)

Internal carotid artery

b)

Contralateral vertebral artery

c)

Circle of Willis

d)

External carotid artery

3.

According to the Gibbs–Donnan effect, diffusible cations are:

a)

Higher in plasma than interstitial fluid

b)

Lower in plasma than interstitial fluid

c)

Equal in both compartments

d)

Independent of protein concentration

4.

Peripheral chemoreceptors are most sensitive to:

a)

Changes in CSF pH

b)

Decrease in arterial pO₂

c)

Increase in arterial pCO₂

d)

Decrease in arterial pH

5.

Gaucher disease is caused by deficiency of:

a)

Alpha-galactosidase A

b)

Beta-glucocerebrosidase

c)

Sphingomyelinase

d)

Hexosaminidase A

6.

Ketogenic amino acids useful in PDH deficiency are:

a)

Alanine and serine

b)

Leucine and lysine

c)

Glutamate and aspartate

d)

Valine and glycine

7.

Rosenthal fibers are characteristic of:

a)

Glioblastoma multiforme

b)

Medulloblastoma

c)

Pilocytic astrocytoma

d)

Ependymoma

8.

Strawberry gallbladder is due to cholesterol deposition in the:

a)

Muscularis propria

b)

Lamina propria

c)

Serosa

d)

Bile lumen

9.

Nagler reaction detects the presence of:

a)

Alpha toxin (lecithinase)

b)

Beta toxin

c)

Enterotoxin

d)

Tetanospasmin

10.

Heterophile antibodies in infectious mononucleosis agglutinate RBCs of:

a)

Humans

b)

Sheep and horses

c)

Rabbits

d)

Mice

11.

Hemorrhagic cystitis due to cyclophosphamide is prevented by:

a)

Folinic acid

b)

Mesna

c)

Amifostine

d)

Dexrazoxane

12.

The major dose-limiting toxicity of cisplatin is:

a)

Pulmonary fibrosis

b)

Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

c)

Cardiotoxicity

d)

Cerebellar ataxia

13.

Magistrate’s inquest is NOT mandatory in:

a)

Death in police custody

b)

Death due to police firing

c)

Dowry death

d)

Suicide in a private home

14.

Gettler test compares chloride levels in blood from the:

a)

Right and left ventricles

b)

Lungs and stomach

c)

Liver and spleen

d)

Kidney and urine

15.

Secondary attack rate measures:

a)

Virulence

b)

Pathogenicity

c)

Communicability

d)

Immunogenicity

16.

ICD-11 is maintained by:

a)

CDC

b)

WHO

c)

UNICEF

d)

UNDP

17.

Ludwig’s angina involves infection of the:

a)

Submandibular space only

b)

Sublingual space only

c)

Submandibular, sublingual, and submental spaces bilaterally

d)

Retropharyngeal space

18.

In endophthalmitis, inflammation is limited to:

a)

Inner coats of the eye

b)

Extraocular muscles

c)

Orbit

d)

Optic nerve

19.

Cannon “a” waves are seen in:

a)

Atrial fibrillation

b)

Complete heart block

c)

Tricuspid regurgitation

d)

Cardiac tamponade

20.

Lhermitte’s sign is classically seen in:

a)

Multiple sclerosis

b)

ALS

c)

Parkinson disease

d)

Myasthenia gravis

21.

First-line treatment for mild SIADH is:

a)

Hypertonic saline

b)

Fluid restriction

c)

Demeclocycline

d)

Tolvaptan

22.

Kasai procedure is done for:

a)

Choledochal cyst

b)

Biliary atresia

c)

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

d)

Caroli disease

23.

Peau d’orange in breast cancer corresponds to:

a)

T2

b)

T3

c)

T4b

d)

T4d

24.

Gold standard diagnosis of endometriosis is:

a)

CA-125

b)

Ultrasound

c)

MRI

d)

Laparoscopy with biopsy

25.

After evacuation of hydatidiform mole, pregnancy should be avoided for:

a)

3 months

b)

6 months to 1 year

c)

2 years

d)

5 years

26.

Knee-chest position in Tet spells works by:

a)

Increasing pulmonary vascular resistance

b)

Increasing systemic vascular resistance

c)

Decreasing venous return

d)

Dilating coronaries

27.

Gold standard for diagnosis of Hirschsprung disease is:

a)

Barium enema

b)

Anorectal manometry

c)

Rectal suction biopsy

d)

CT abdomen

28.

Brodie’s abscess is a form of:

a)

Acute osteomyelitis

b)

Subacute osteomyelitis

c)

Chronic osteomyelitis

d)

Tubercular osteomyelitis

29.

Saturday night palsy results in:

a)

Wrist drop with sensory loss in first web space

b)

Wrist drop with normal sensation

c)

Triceps paralysis

d)

Claw hand

30.

Gottron’s papules and heliotrope rash are seen in:

a)

SLE

b)

Dermatomyositis

c)

Scleroderma

d)

Psoriatic arthritis

31.

SJS is differentiated from TEN based on:

a)

Etiology

b)

Body surface area involved

c)

Mucosal involvement

d)

Age

32.

Refeeding syndrome is characterized by severe:

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypophosphatemia

c)

Hypernatremia

d)

Hypercalcemia

33.

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with potato nodes suggests:

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Lymphoma

c)

Sarcoidosis

d)

Metastasis

34.

Weil-Felix test is used for diagnosis of:

a)

Syphilis

b)

Rickettsial diseases

c)

Leptospirosis

d)

Lyme disease

35.

Oxidative drugs in G6PD deficiency cause:

a)

Aplastic anemia

b)

Acute hemolytic anemia

c)

Megaloblastic anemia

d)

Thrombocytopenia

36.

Hyoid bone fracture is most common in:

a)

Hanging

b)

Ligature strangulation

c)

Throttling

d)

Drowning

37.

Ramsay Hunt syndrome involves reactivation in the:

a)

Gasserian ganglion

b)

Geniculate ganglion

c)

Spiral ganglion

d)

Sphenopalatine ganglion

38.

Mid-dilated fixed pupil with colored halos suggests:

a)

Acute uveitis

b)

Acute angle-closure glaucoma

c)

Corneal ulcer

d)

Cataract

39.

In START triage, a non-breathing patient who does not respond after airway opening is tagged:

a)

Red

b)

Yellow

c)

Green

d)

Black

40.

Post-operative myalgia after anesthesia is most commonly due to:

a)

Propofol

b)

Succinylcholine

c)

Rocuronium

d)

Sevoflurane

41.

feedback

4 lines

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