wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Cognitive and Language Development: Piaget & Chomsky

Total questions: 51

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A toddler stops throwing a spoon and starts placing it gently on the tray after being told not to. Which process explains this change in behavior within an existing schema?

a)

Assimilation into preexisting action schema

b)

Maturation during the formal stage

c)

Accommodation by creating a brand-new schema

d)

Operant conditioning without schemas

2.

A 5-year-old thinks two equal clay balls are different after one is rolled into a snake shape. Which Piagetian concept is missing, and which stage applies?

a)

Conservation; preoperational stage

b)

Object permanence; concrete stage

c)

Reversibility; formal stage

d)

Egocentrism; sensorimotor stage

3.

Which example shows accommodation instead of assimilation?

a)

A child changes their ‘dog’ schema to include ‘poodles’

b)

A child calls a cow a ‘big dog’

c)

A child learns letters by tracing

d)

A child repeats a word from daycare

4.

Order the first three stages of Piaget’s cognitive development by age and key ability. Which option lists them correctly from earliest to latest with a matching hallmark?

a)

Sensorimotor (0–2): grammar rules; Preoperational (2–7): conservation; Concrete operational (7–11): object permanence

b)

Sensorimotor (0–2): conservation; Preoperational (2–7): hypothetical thought; Concrete operational (7–11): reflexes

c)

Preoperational (0–2): symbolic play; Sensorimotor (2–7): object permanence; Concrete operational (7–11): egocentrism

d)

Sensorimotor (0–2): object permanence; Preoperational (2–7): symbolic thought; Concrete operational (7–11): conservation

5.

How can a teacher help a 6-year-old understand someone else’s point of view, according to Piaget?

a)

Show videos

b)

Use role-play

c)

Give math worksheets

d)

Assign debates

6.

What does Chomsky’s Language Acquisition Device (LAD) and the critical period mean?

a)

Language is learned only by imitation

b)

Humans are born ready to learn grammar early in life

c)

Grammar develops after puberty

d)

Vocabulary depends only on parents

7.

Two infants hear different amounts of adult speech, but both use grammar-like patterns by 18 months. Which explanation fits LAD?

a)

Innate grammar capacities guide early rule learning

b)

Frequent correction shapes grammar through punishment

c)

Motor maturation drives all language milestones

d)

Peer interaction alone drives syntactic development

8.

Which hypothesis best tests if limited language exposure before 18 months affects later grammar mastery?

a)

Early bilinguals confuse grammar more than monolinguals

b)

Children with little language before 18 months have lasting grammar problems

c)

Children who see more picture books name objects faster

d)

Toddlers who learn gestures first speak later

9.

A 15‑month‑old cries when a parent leaves and calms when the parent returns. What type of attachment is this?

a)

Secure attachment

b)

Disorganized attachment

c)

Insecure avoidant

d)

Insecure resistant

10.

Which theory supports forming strong bonds in the first two years to prevent future social problems?

a)

Bowlby’s critical period for attachment

b)

Piaget’s sensorimotor object permanence

c)

Gesell’s maturation readiness principle

d)

Bandura’s observational learning focus

11.

Which scenario best shows a shift from indiscriminate to specific attachment?

a)

Baby accepts comfort from anyone, then prefers one caregiver

b)

Baby ignores all adults, then explores alone

c)

Baby resists all soothing, then sleeps longer

d)

Baby speaks first words, then imitates adults

12.

Ainsworth’s Strange Situation classifies attachment by observing which sequence?

a)

Play milestones

b)

Imitation patterns

c)

Separation and reunion with caregiver

d)

Feeding routines

13.

Which shows a toddler trusts caregivers?

a)

Frozen, disoriented reactions

b)

Seeks comfort, calms, resumes play

c)

Avoids eye contact, explores alone

d)

Clings, resists soothing

14.

Which plan best tests for insecure avoidant attachment in a lab?

a)

Observe low distress on separation and ignoring on reunion

b)

Measure high distress on separation and easy comfort on reunion

c)

Record strong clinging and anger after caregiver returns

d)

Count frequency of crying during stranger’s play interaction

15.

Arrange the stages of attachment development in order during the first year.

a)

Multiple, Specific, Asocial, Indiscriminate

b)

Asocial, Indiscriminate, Specific, Multiple

c)

Specific, Asocial, Multiple, Indiscriminate

d)

Indiscriminate, Multiple, Specific, Asocial

16.

Which age range should a public health program focus on to build secure bonds?

a)

Birth to two years

b)

Two to five years

c)

Five to seven years

d)

Prenatal third trimester

17.

Which prediction matches Bowlby’s view of weak early attachments?

a)

Stronger immunity from less stress

b)

Better language from less dependence

c)

Earlier walking from more independence

d)

Later problems with socialising and parenting

18.

Which observation best distinguishes insecure resistant from insecure avoidant behavior on reunion?

a)

Approaches caregiver smiling versus avoids eye contact

b)

Quickly calms and explores versus clings briefly

c)

Seeks comfort but remains upset versus ignores caregiver

d)

Plays with stranger easily versus freezes in place

19.

A daycare uses the same key workers for infants. Which theory explains the benefits?

a)

Operant conditioning and crying

b)

Motor milestones

c)

Primary and multiple attachments

d)

Language device and bonding

20.

Which outcomes match secure attachment?

a)

Delayed milestones and limited social play

b)

High distress and resistance to soothing

c)

Independence with minimal seeking of comfort

d)

Positive self‑concept and healthy exploration

21.

A researcher mislabels an 8‑month‑old who shows separation anxiety and prefers one caregiver as being in the multiple stage. What is the correct classification?

a)

Specific attachment stage at seven to nine months

b)

Asocial attachment stage at zero to three months

c)

Indiscriminate stage at three to seven months

d)

Disorganized attachment type at nine months

22.

Which action best helps a child develop trust?

a)

Give consistent, sensitive responses

b)

Practice physical skills

c)

Reward quietness always

d)

Change caregivers often

23.

A child shows little distress when a caregiver leaves, plays alone, and avoids the caregiver on return. What long-term pattern is most likely?

a)

More dependence on caregivers

b)

Faster language growth from social support

c)

Secure bonds and confident exploration

d)

More independence but emotional needs unmet

24.

A toddler becomes clingy and fussy at 18 months, then calms down later. What best explains this?

a)

Temperament is fully shaped by environment

b)

Observational learning stops regressions

c)

Reinforcement only builds new behaviors

d)

Maturation has cycles with unstable phases

25.

Which strategy uses Social Learning Theory to reduce playground aggression?

a)

Give aggressive students more time alone

b)

Remove all rewards and punishments

c)

Have peers model calm conflict resolution

d)

Give lectures on rules without demonstrations

26.

A child observes an older sibling tie shoelaces, remembers the steps, tries it later, and continues after receiving praise. Which sequence shows these processes?

a)

Reproduction, Retention, Attention, Motivation

b)

Motivation, Attention, Reproduction, Retention

c)

Retention, Motivation, Attention, Reproduction

d)

Attention, Retention, Reproduction, Motivation

27.

Which example best shows the difference between Gesell’s maturation view and Bandura’s social learning view?

a)

Reinforcement does not change behavior

b)

Practice can overcome biological limits

c)

Peer praise creates new study habits

d)

Skills develop as the nervous system matures

28.

A teenager copies an athlete’s study routine after seeing the athlete win an award. What most likely increased imitation?

a)

Vicarious reinforcement signaling valued outcomes

b)

Punishment reducing attention during modeling

c)

Neural maturation reaching a fixed timetable

d)

Latent learning unaffected by observed rewards

29.

Which shoe-tying activity uses both maturation and social learning?

a)

Model shoe-tying when children are ready for fine-motor skills

b)

Use only verbal instructions

c)

Wait until all children are seven

d)

Practice daily regardless of hand strength

30.

Which statement best contrasts feedback in the two theories?

a)

In maturation feedback fully determines timing

b)

In both theories feedback alone creates new abilities

c)

In SLT feedback is unnecessary after attention

d)

In SLT feedback guides imitation; in maturation feedback cannot replace readiness

31.

How can a caregiver discourage a child’s rude phrases using Social Learning Theory?

a)

Ignore the behavior and show disapproval

b)

Wait for the child to stop

c)

Let the child spend time with the cousin

d)

Punish other behaviors

32.

A student compares two models: one says genes make people vulnerable but need stress to trigger illness; the other says stress alone predicts illness. Which conclusion best combines both?

a)

Stress creates genes while vulnerability predicts outcomes

b)

Genes alone explain illness while stress is unrelated

c)

Genes set vulnerability while stress activates risk

d)

Stress always causes illness while genes prevent it

33.

A person has a genetic risk for anxiety but only shows symptoms after stress. What concept explains this?

a)

Stress Diathesis Model with triggered vulnerability

b)

Activity Theory with role replacement

c)

Disengagement Theory with natural withdrawal

d)

SRRS with fixed life change units

34.

Client A has divorce (73), job loss (47), and moving (20). Client B has marriage (50), pregnancy (40), and changing schools (20). Who has the higher SRRS score?

a)

Client A due to divorce being always illness

b)

Client B due to more positive events totaling 110

c)

Client A due to higher combined LCUs totaling 140

d)

Client B due to events being less controllable

35.

Which tool uses Life Change Units to assess illness risk?

a)

General Adaptation Syndrome Stages

b)

Havighurst Successful Ageing Inventory

c)

Cumming and Henry Disengagement Checklist

d)

Holmes and Rahe Social Readjustment Rating Scale

36.

A 75‑year‑old replaces work roles with club memberships and volunteering after retirement. Which theory explains this?

a)

Activity Theory: social role substitution

b)

Stress Diathesis: genetic triggers

c)

Disengagement Theory: social withdrawal

d)

SRRS: event severity ratings

37.

An older adult reduces social contacts after retiring because most friends were coworkers. Which interpretation best matches Disengagement Theory?

a)

Withdrawal prevents any role replacement options

b)

Withdrawal arises only from genetic vulnerability

c)

Withdrawal always harms mental stability and health

d)

Withdrawal can be a natural, adaptive ageing process

38.

A clinician uses SRRS scores to counsel a client with a score of 320 LCU. What is the best advice?

a)

Ignore genetics; high LCU is enough

b)

High LCU increases illness risk; manage stress

c)

High LCU means only positive changes; reduce social activity

d)

High LCU guarantees illness; start treatment now

39.

Which scenario shows the Stress‑Diathesis Model with SRRS scoring?

a)

Genetic risk disappears with moderate LCU scores

b)

High LCU only builds resilience

c)

High LCU increases risk most for those with genetic predisposition

d)

LCU scores predict illness the same for everyone

40.

Which city plan follows Activity Theory for healthy ageing?

a)

Offer classes on accepting isolation

b)

Use genetic screening for services

c)

Create volunteer roles to replace lost work

d)

Discourage role changes for inner focus

41.

Which statement best distinguishes Activity Theory from Social Disengagement Theory?

a)

Activity discourages friendships while disengagement builds networks

b)

Activity measures LCU totals while disengagement rates events

c)

Activity assumes genetic triggers while disengagement rejects genes

d)

Activity promotes role maintenance while disengagement normalizes withdrawal

42.

After a spouse’s death, which plan best fits Activity Theory for wellbeing?

a)

Join new groups and seek new social roles

b)

Limit interactions and focus on inner life

c)

Rely only on personal resilience

d)

Ignore stressors as they don’t affect health

43.

A student claims: “Disengagement always improves health for older adults.” Which critique uses evidence from ageing theories?

a)

Disengagement is never observed; all elders stay active

b)

LCU totals prove disengagement is always negative

c)

Only genetics matters; social factors have zero effects

d)

Benefits depend on context; losing roles after retirement may harm some

44.

Which approach best supports mental stability in later adulthood?

a)

Encourage social engagement and monitor life events

b)

Promote social withdrawal and ignore life events

c)

Discourage volunteering and use LCU scores only

d)

Avoid new social roles and rely only on genes

45.

A researcher predicts that people with high SRRS scores who reduce social roles after retirement will have the biggest drop in wellbeing. Which theory supports this?

a)

SRRS scores always cause illness

b)

Activity theory says withdrawal is best

c)

Genetics cause equal decline for all

d)

Stressful events increase risk and disengagement removes buffers

46.

Which behavior shows secure attachment in preschool?

a)

Child does not react when caregiver leaves or returns

b)

Child ignores caregiver at drop-off and pickup

c)

Child seeks comfort from caregiver after injury, then returns to play

d)

Child clings to caregiver and avoids peers

47.

According to Bandura’s Social Learning Theory, what is the best way to help toddlers learn to share?

a)

Let children learn sharing on their own

b)

Punish children for not sharing

c)

Only give verbal instructions

d)

Show sharing and praise those who do it

48.

What does maturation do in learning to walk?

a)

Walking begins when the nervous system is ready, regardless of practice

b)

Children walk only after seeing others

c)

Practice alone decides when walking starts

d)

Learning to talk leads to walking

49.

Which example best shows assimilation in Piaget’s theory?

a)

A child calls a horse a ‘dog’ after seeing it for the first time

b)

A child creates a new category for horses, separate from dogs

c)

A child refuses to call any animal a dog

d)

A child learns to spell by memorizing each word

50.

Which behavior is typical of an infant in the indiscriminate attachment stage?

a)

Prefers one caregiver

b)

Accepts comfort from any adult

c)

Shows separation anxiety

d)

Ignores soothing

51.

Which way best uses Social Learning Theory to encourage sharing?

a)

Take away toys if children don’t share

b)

Let children play alone

c)

Teach sharing with written instructions

d)

Show sharing and praise children who copy