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DBMS and Storage Concepts Worksheet

Total questions: 107

Worksheet time: 54hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In ER diagrams, relationships are represented by:

a)

Circles

b)

Rectangles

c)

Ovals

d)

Diamonds

2.

Automated data replication:

a)

Syncs data across sites

b)

Replication deletion

c)

Manual replication

d)

No replication

3.

What is 'pinning' a buffer frame?

a)

Compressing it

b)

Deleting it

c)

Marking it as unavailable for replacement

d)

Indexing it

4.

Automated load balancing in DBMS:

a)

No balancing

b)

Distributes queries across replicas

c)

Balancing deletion

d)

Manual balancing

5.

DevOps tools for DB like DBMaestro:

a)

DevOps deletion

b)

No DevOps

c)

Enforces change management

d)

Manual DevOps

6.

In the three-schema architecture of DBMS, which level deals with how data is stored on disk?

a)

Conceptual schema

b)

External schema

c)

Internal schema

d)

User schema

7.

Which concurrency control technique uses locks?

a)

Timestamping

b)

Multiversion concurrency control

c)

Locking protocols

d)

Validation

8.

Tape backups are suitable for:

a)

Online access

b)

Small data

c)

Archival and large-volume storage

d)

Fast restores

9.

What is 'defragmentation' in file systems?

a)

Striping data

b)

Indexing fragments

c)

Reorganizing fragmented files for contiguous allocation

d)

Compressing files

10.

Auditing in DBMS involves:

a)

Granting permissions

b)

Recording user activities for review

c)

Backing up data

d)

Optimizing queries

11.

What is quantum-resistant encryption?

a)

Resistant to all

b)

Quantum encryption

c)

No resistance

d)

Algorithms secure against quantum computing attacks

12.

What is a view in DBMS?

a)

A virtual table derived from one or more base tables

b)

A physical table

c)

A backup file

d)

An index

13.

What is a security information and event management (SIEM) system?

a)

No events

b)

Event optimization

c)

Tool for real-time analysis of security alerts

d)

Information deletion

14.

What is phishing in the context of DBMS security?

a)

Network optimization

b)

Data compression

c)

A social engineering attack to steal credentials

d)

A fishing algorithm

15.

In DBMS, access control lists (ACLs) specify:

a)

Permissions for users on objects

b)

Data backups

c)

Encryption keys

d)

Query plans

16.

Partial recovery restores:

a)

Full only

b)

Partial encryption

c)

Specific objects like tables

d)

No partial

17.

Biometric authentication in DBMS uses:

a)

Only passwords

b)

Physical characteristics like fingerprints

c)

Query history

d)

IP addresses

18.

What is 'data striping' in storage?

a)

Buffering data

b)

Compressing data

c)

Distributing data blocks across multiple disks

d)

Indexing data

19.

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) assigns permissions based on:

a)

Data encryption levels

b)

Individual user IDs

c)

Network IP addresses

d)

User roles within the organization

20.

What does the term 'data abstraction' refer to in DBMS?

a)

Deleting unnecessary data

b)

Hiding the complexity of data storage from users

c)

Converting data into binary format

d)

Storing data in multiple locations for backup

21.

What is 'erasure coding' in storage?

a)

Using parity for data recovery with less overhead than replication

b)

Coding indexes

c)

Erasing data

d)

Buffering codes

22.

In DBMS, certificate-based authentication uses:

a)

Query certificates

b)

Digital certificates for verifying identities

c)

Paper certificates

d)

No certificates

23.

What is a primary index?

a)

Created on the ordering key of a sorted file

b)

Used only for secondary storage

c)

Allows duplicate keys

d)

Built on a non-key attribute

24.

What is Boyce-Codd Normal Form (BCNF)?

a)

Allows transitive dependencies

b)

A weaker form of 1NF

c)

A stronger form of 3NF where every determinant is a candidate key

d)

Equivalent to 2NF

25.

Automated role management:

a)

No roles

b)

Role deletion

c)

Assigns privileges dynamically

d)

Manual roles

26.

The ARIES algorithm is used for:

a)

Encryption

b)

Crash recovery with write-ahead logging

c)

Indexing

d)

Data compression

27.

What does 'write-ahead logging' relate to in storage?

a)

RAID configuration

b)

Buffering reads

c)

Indexing

d)

Ensuring changes are logged before writing to disk for recovery

28.

In DBMS, an index is used to:

a)

Compress data on disk

b)

Store the actual data records

c)

Provide a faster way to locate records without scanning the entire file

d)

Encrypt sensitive fields

29.

The 'fill factor' in indexes refers to:

a)

Fanout

b)

Number of levels

c)

Percentage of space left empty in nodes for future inserts

d)

Height

30.

What is data mining?

a)

Storing data

b)

Extracting patterns from large datasets

c)

Deleting data

31.

Chef for DB automation:

a)

Chef deletion

b)

Manual chef

c)

Manages configurations declaratively

d)

No chef

32.

What is normalization in database design?

a)

Encrypting data

b)

Increasing data redundancy

c)

Backing up data

d)

Organizing data to minimize redundancy and dependency

33.

Database vault technologies provide:

a)

Backup storage

b)

Data deletion

c)

Query caching

d)

Extra layers of access control for sensitive data

34.

A multivalued attribute in ER model is:

a)

Represented by a double oval

b)

Part of the primary key

c)

A single value attribute

d)

Always null

35.

AI-driven automation in DBMS can:

a)

Ignore AI

b)

Manual tuning

c)

AI deletion

d)

Tune parameters using machine learning

36.

Database recovery is needed after:

a)

Queries

b)

Backups

c)

Successful transactions

d)

System failures or errors

37.

Mandatory Access Control (MAC) in DBMS is characterized by:

a)

No auditing requirements

b)

Role-based assignments only

c)

User-discretionary permissions

d)

System-enforced policies based on labels (e.g., classified, secret)

38.

Extendible hashing uses:

a)

Tree structures

b)

Fixed bucket sizes

c)

Sorted buckets

d)

A directory that doubles in size for dynamic growth

39.

Which data model represents data as a collection of tables with rows and columns?

a)

Object-oriented model

b)

Hierarchical model

c)

Relational model

d)

Network model

40.

What is a phantom read in transaction isolation?

a)

Non-repeatable read

b)

A dirty read

c)

Seeing new rows inserted by another transaction

d)

Reading committed data

41.

The 'C' in ACID stands for:

a)

Connectivity

b)

Compression

c)

Consistency

d)

Concurrency

42.

What is a stored procedure?

a)

A temporary table

b)

Precompiled SQL code stored in the database

c)

An index

d)

A view

43.

What is DBaaS in the context of automation?

a)

Database as a Service, automating provisioning and management

b)

Manual database setup

c)

Query service

d)

Data backup only

44.

In distributed DBMS, security challenges include:

a)

Automatic auditing

b)

Only local authentication

c)

Securing data across multiple sites and networks

d)

No need for encryption

45.

In storage hierarchies, tertiary storage is typically:

a)

Magnetic tapes or optical jukeboxes for archival

b)

SSDs

c)

Cache

d)

RAM

46.

Deferred update in recovery:

a)

Immediate update

b)

No update

c)

Deferred encryption

d)

Logs changes but applies after commit

47.

In DBMS, a full backup includes:

a)

Only changed data

b)

Only transaction logs

c)

Indexes only

d)

The entire database at a point in time

48.

What is the minimum number of disks required for RAID 6?

a)

2

b)

1

c)

3

d)

4

49.

What is two-phase commit in distributed databases?

a)

A locking mechanism

b)

Ensuring all sites commit or abort a transaction

c)

Query optimization

d)

Data normalization

50.

What does a primary key in a relational database ensure?

a)

Uniqueness of each record in a table

b)

Data redundancy

c)

Automatic backups

d)

Data encryption

51.

The main goal of query optimization is:

a)

To delete data

b)

To increase data redundancy

c)

To create views

d)

To find the most efficient way to execute a query

52.

What is a common method to secure data in transit?

a)

Avoiding networks

b)

Using SSL/TLS protocols

c)

Compressing data

d)

Storing data unencrypted

53.

Automated data migration tools:

a)

No migration

b)

Manual migration

c)

Migration deletion

d)

Like DMS in AWS for seamless transfers

54.

A database anomaly like insertion anomaly occurs due to:

a)

Too many indexes

b)

High concurrency

c)

Data encryption

d)

Poor normalization

55.

Variable-length records use:

a)

No separators

b)

Always null padding

c)

Delimiters or length prefixes to separate fields

d)

Fixed offsets

56.

What is 'index-only scan'?

a)

Retrieving data without accessing the table

b)

Using only primary indexes

c)

Full table scan

d)

Scanning buffers

57.

Automated monitoring in DBMS involves:

a)

Tools like Prometheus for alerting on metrics

b)

Monitoring deletion

c)

Manual checks

d)

No monitoring

58.

What does ETL stand for in data warehousing?

a)

Execute, Test, Launch

b)

Extract, Transform, Load

c)

Edit, Translate, Link

d)

Encrypt, Transmit, Log

59.

In DBMS, what is behavioral analytics?

a)

Analytic encryption

b)

Using AI to detect deviations from normal user behavior

c)

Behavior deletion

d)

No behavior

60.

Automated backup in DBMS:

a)

Backup deletion

b)

Schedules regular backups without manual intervention

c)

Manual backups only

d)

No backups

61.

Failover in recovery is:

a)

No switch

b)

Manual restart by an administrator

c)

Automatic switch to a standby system without manual intervention

d)

Data re-encryption only

62.

Continuous data protection (CDP) allows:

a)

Fixed points only

b)

CDP encryption

c)

No recovery

d)

Recovery to any point in time

63.

Tower of Hanoi backup scheme:

a)

Hanoi encryption

b)

Tower queries

c)

No tower

d)

Uses exponential rotation for efficiency

64.

In big data, Apache Airflow is used for:

a)

Data deletion

b)

Manual data loading

c)

Encryption only

d)

Automating data pipelines and workflows

65.

What is a transaction log backup used for?

a)

Backing up indexes

b)

Encrypting transactions

c)

Backing up the entire database

d)

Capturing changes in the log for point-in-time recovery

66.

What is a quiesce point?

a)

Point encryption

b)

No point

c)

Quiesce queries

d)

Consistent state for backup

67.

In DBMS, restore command:

a)

Applies backups to recover data

b)

Restore encryption

c)

No restore

d)

Command queries

68.

Automated archiving:

a)

Manual archiving

b)

No archiving

c)

Archiving deletion

d)

Moves old data

69.

What is data archiving?

a)

No archiving

b)

Active data

c)

Archiving encryption

d)

Moving inactive data to long-term storage

70.

What is multi-level security (MLS) in DBMS?

a)

Supporting data with different security classifications in one database

b)

Encryption levels

c)

No security

d)

Single-level only

71.

Which storage medium has the lowest access latency?

a)

Solid-State Drive (SSD)

b)

Magnetic tape

c)

Hard Disk Drive (HDD)

d)

Optical disk

72.

What is a common DBMS security vulnerability?

a)

Weak passwords and default credentials

b)

Strong encryption

c)

Regular audits

d)

Least privilege

73.

Database forensics involves:

a)

Optimizing forensics

b)

Deleting evidence

c)

Investigating security incidents through logs and artifacts

d)

Forcing data entry

74.

Which of the following is NOT a type of database user?

a)

Database administrators (DBA)

b)

Application programmers

c)

Hardware engineers

d)

End users

75.

What is a B-tree index commonly used for?

a)

Fixed-height structures

b)

Hash-based lookups only

c)

Sequential access only

d)

Balanced, multi-level indexing for efficient searches, inserts, and deletes

76.

Homomorphic encryption allows:

a)

Decrypting all data

b)

Computations on encrypted data without decryption

c)

Only storage

d)

No computations

77.

Write-Ahead Logging (WAL) ensures:

a)

Logs deleted

b)

Changes logged before written to disk

c)

Data compressed

d)

Backups ignored

78.

Docker for DB automation:

a)

Manual docker

b)

Docker deletion

c)

No docker

d)

Containerizes DBs for portability

79.

OLTP stands for:

a)

Online Transaction Processing

b)

Operational Language for Transactions

c)

Offline Data Processing

d)

Online Logical Transaction Protocol

80.

RAID 1 provides:

a)

Striping with parity

b)

Block-level parity

c)

Disk mirroring for fault tolerance

d)

No redundancy

81.

Entity integrity ensures:

a)

Primary keys are not null

b)

Foreign keys match primary keys

c)

Data is encrypted

d)

No duplicate rows

82.

GitHub Actions for DB CI:

a)

No actions

b)

Manual actions

c)

Actions deletion

d)

Runs workflows for DB

83.

What is a cursor in SQL?

a)

A table

b)

An index

c)

A pointer to traverse result sets

d)

A trigger

84.

What is a 'heap file' in file organization?

a)

Records appended in no particular order

b)

Records clustered by index

c)

Records stored in sorted order

d)

Records accessed via hash functions

85.

In sequential file organization, records are:

a)

Hashed to buckets

b)

Sorted by a key field

c)

Stored randomly

d)

Accessed via pointers

86.

RAID 10 combines:

a)

Striping only

b)

Parity only

c)

Striping and mirroring

d)

Double parity

87.

Database masking is used to:

a)

Delete old records

b)

Replace sensitive data with realistic but fake values for testing

c)

Encrypt all data

d)

Hide database structure

88.

Shingled Magnetic Recording (SMR) is used in:

a)

High-capacity HDDs with overlapping tracks

b)

Optical disks

c)

SSDs

d)

RAM

89.

In DBMS, what is a watermark?

a)

Water encryption

b)

No marks

c)

Marking deletions

d)

Embedded identifier for tracking data leaks

90.

What is the principle of least privilege in DBMS security?

a)

Encrypting all data

b)

Giving users all possible permissions

c)

Allowing anonymous access

d)

Granting only the minimum permissions needed for tasks

91.

What is aggregation in ER model?

a)

Normalizing data

b)

Deleting entities

c)

Treating a relationship as an entity

d)

Combining multiple databases

92.

In LSM-trees (Log-Structured Merge-trees), data is:

a)

Buffered in memory and flushed to disk in sorted runs

b)

Stored directly in-place on disk pages

c)

Written randomly without compaction

d)

Indexed only with hash tables

93.

A secondary index is typically: 0/1

a)

Sparse and clustered

b)

Stored on tape

c)

Dense and built on non-ordering attributes

d)

Used for primary keys only

94.

Automated query optimization: 0/1

a)

Manual optimization

b)

Optimization deletion

c)

Uses cost-based optimizers

d)

No optimization

95.

A clustered index: 0/1

a)

Is non-unique

b)

Allows duplicates

c)

Is separate from data

d)

Sorts and stores data rows in order

96.

What is cardinality in ER models? 0/1

a)

The size of the database

b)

The number of attributes in an entity

c)

The mapping ratio between entities in a relationship (e.g., one-to-many)

d)

The number of tables

97.

Block-level backups copy: 0/1

a)

No blocks

b)

Blocks encrypted

c)

Files only

d)

Changed blocks for efficiency

98.

What is a trigger in DBMS? 0/1

a)

A user role

b)

A data type

c)

A stored procedure executed automatically on events

d)

A query optimizer

99.

Offsite backups protect against: 0/1

a)

Software bugs only

b)

No protection

c)

Onsite only

d)

Site-wide disasters like fires

100.

Multi-tier backups use: 0/1

a)

Tier queries

b)

Combination of disk, tape, cloud for layers

c)

No tiers

d)

Single tier

101.

Big data automation with Spark: 0/1

a)

Manual Spark

b)

No Spark

c)

Spark deletion

d)

Automates distributed processing

102.

What is a join in SQL? 0/1

a)

Deleting tables

b)

Backing up data

c)

Combining rows from two or more tables based on related columns

d)

Creating indexes

103.

Database views can enhance security by: 0/1

a)

Allowing full table access

b)

Automatically encrypting data

c)

Providing restricted, customized subsets of data

d)

Deleting sensitive records

104.

Terraform for DB provisioning: 0/1

a)

Defines DB as code

b)

Manual terraform

c)

Terraform deletion

d)

No terraform

105.

In storage, 'IOPS' stands for: 0/1

a)

Internal Operations Per Second

b)

Index Optimization Per Scan

c)

Input/Output Operations Per Second

d)

Input Operations Per Stripe

106.

Blockchain in DBMS security provides: 0/1

a)

Centralized control

b)

Mutable data

c)

No security

d)

Immutable, decentralized ledgers for tamper-proof records

107.

In ER modeling, a weak entity: 0/1

a)

Depends on a strong entity for identification

b)

Has its own primary key

c)

Is independent of relationships

d)

Cannot have attributes