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Advanced Science and Language Challenge(subject combinations for science students

Total questions: 250

Worksheet time: 3hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Identify the correct use of the subjunctive mood in the following sentence: 'If I _____ you, I would study harder.'

a)

is

b)

am

c)

was

d)

were

2.

Which of the following sentences contains a misplaced modifier?

a)

Almost every day, she drove her kids to school.

b)

She drove her kids to school almost every day.

c)

Her kids were almost driven to school every day.

d)

She almost drove her kids to school every day.

3.

In the context of genetics, what is the significance of the term 'phenotype'?

a)

The term 'phenotype' refers to the genetic makeup of an organism.

b)

'Phenotype' is the process of DNA replication in cells.

c)

The significance of 'phenotype' is its role in genetic mutation rates.

d)

The significance of 'phenotype' is that it represents the expression of genetic information in an organism.

4.

What is the primary function of ribosomes in a cell?

a)

The primary function of ribosomes is to synthesize proteins.

b)

The primary function of ribosomes is to transport nutrients.

c)

The primary function of ribosomes is to regulate cell division.

d)

The primary function of ribosomes is to store genetic material.

5.

Which of the following best describes the rate of a chemical reaction?

a)

The temperature change during the reaction process.

b)

The volume of gas produced in the reaction.

c)

The change in concentration of reactants or products per unit time.

d)

The total mass of reactants before the reaction.

6.

What is the effect of temperature on the equilibrium constant of a reaction?

a)

Temperature only affects the rate of reaction, not K.

b)

Increasing temperature always decreases K for all reactions.

c)

Temperature has no effect on the equilibrium constant.

d)

Temperature affects the equilibrium constant; it decreases K for exothermic reactions and increases K for endothermic reactions.

7.

Define the first law of thermodynamics in your own words.

a)

Work and energy are unrelated in thermodynamic processes.

b)

Energy can be created and destroyed in a closed system.

c)

Energy is conserved in a closed system; it can change forms but cannot be created or destroyed.

d)

Heat is the only form of energy that can be lost.

8.

What is the relationship between pressure and volume in an ideal gas according to Boyle's Law?

a)

Pressure is inversely proportional to volume in an ideal gas.

b)

Pressure is directly proportional to volume in an ideal gas.

c)

Pressure remains constant regardless of volume in an ideal gas.

d)

Volume increases with increasing pressure in an ideal gas.

9.

Explain the principle of superposition in wave theory.

a)

The principle of superposition in wave theory states that the resultant wave is the sum of the individual waves' displacements.

b)

The principle of superposition indicates that waves cannot overlap in space.

c)

The principle of superposition describes how waves travel at different speeds.

d)

The principle of superposition states that waves can only interfere destructively.

10.

What is the difference between longitudinal and transverse waves?

a)

Longitudinal waves have perpendicular particle displacement; transverse waves have parallel particle displacement.

b)

Longitudinal waves have parallel particle displacement; transverse waves have perpendicular particle displacement.

c)

Transverse waves can only travel through solids, while longitudinal waves can travel through all states of matter.

d)

Longitudinal waves travel faster than transverse waves in all mediums.

11.

Which of the following is a characteristic of enzymes in biochemical reactions?

a)

Enzymes increase the activation energy of reactions.

b)

Enzymes lower the activation energy of biochemical reactions.

c)

Enzymes function only at high temperatures.

d)

Enzymes are consumed during biochemical reactions.

12.

What is the role of ATP in cellular metabolism?

a)

ATP is a primary signal for cell division.

b)

ATP provides energy for cellular metabolism.

c)

ATP stores genetic information in cells.

d)

ATP acts as a structural component of membranes.

13.

Describe the concept of activation energy in chemical reactions.

a)

Activation energy is the energy required to break chemical bonds.

b)

Activation energy is the energy that speeds up a reaction without changing it.

c)

Activation energy is the total energy released during a reaction.

d)

Activation energy is the minimum energy needed for a chemical reaction to occur.

14.

How does Le Chatelier's principle apply to changes in concentration?

a)

Increasing concentration will always favor the formation of reactants.

b)

Le Chatelier's principle states that concentration changes have no effect on equilibrium.

c)

Decreasing concentration will shift the equilibrium to the right, favoring products.

d)

Le Chatelier's principle predicts that changes in concentration will shift the equilibrium position to counteract the change.

15.

What is the significance of the second law of thermodynamics?

a)

The second law of thermodynamics states that energy can be created from nothing, allowing perpetual motion.

b)

The second law of thermodynamics indicates that energy can be fully converted without any loss in efficiency.

c)

The second law of thermodynamics signifies that entropy in an isolated system always increases, indicating the direction of spontaneous processes and the limits of energy conversion.

d)

The second law of thermodynamics implies that all systems will eventually reach absolute zero temperature.

16.

Explain the Doppler effect in the context of sound waves.

a)

The Doppler effect is the reflection of sound waves off surfaces creating echoes.

b)

The Doppler effect is the increase in amplitude of sound waves when the source moves away.

c)

The Doppler effect refers to the distortion of sound waves caused by temperature changes.

d)

The Doppler effect is the change in frequency or wavelength of sound waves due to the relative motion between the source and the observer.

17.

What is the difference between kinetic and potential energy?

a)

Kinetic energy is energy from heat; potential energy is energy from light.

b)

Kinetic energy is energy stored in objects; potential energy is energy of movement.

c)

Kinetic energy is energy of motion; potential energy is stored energy based on position.

d)

Kinetic energy is potential energy in motion; potential energy is kinetic energy at rest.

18.

How do sound waves travel through different mediums?

a)

Sound waves can only travel through air by bouncing off surfaces.

b)

Sound waves travel faster in a vacuum than in water.

c)

Sound waves are absorbed by all materials without any transmission.

d)

Sound waves travel through solids, liquids, and gases by vibrating particles in the medium.

19.

What is the importance of the cell membrane in maintaining homeostasis?

a)

The cell membrane is crucial for maintaining homeostasis by controlling substance movement and ensuring a stable internal environment.

b)

The cell membrane is irrelevant to homeostasis and does not affect internal stability.

c)

The cell membrane is primarily involved in energy production rather than homeostasis.

d)

The cell membrane only serves as a protective barrier without regulating substances.

20.

Define genetic drift and its impact on a population.

a)

Genetic drift is a random process that can lead to significant changes in a population's genetic makeup, impacting its diversity and adaptability.

b)

Genetic drift is a deliberate selection process that enhances genetic diversity.

c)

Genetic drift is a predictable change in a population's traits over generations.

d)

Genetic drift is a mechanism that only affects large populations significantly.

21.

What color ________ your shoes?

a)

are

b)

isn't

c)

do

d)

aren't

22.

Nhung and Giang ________ dinner now.

a)

are having

b)

has

c)

is having

d)

have dinner

23.

Look! The bus ________ I don’t want to miss it.

a)

are coming

b)

comes

c)

come

d)

is coming

24.

My grandmother ________ TV every night.

a)

watches

b)

watches TV

c)

watched

d)

watching

25.

Which one is the Adjective?

a)

beauty

b)

beautiful

c)

beautify

26.

Which one is Verb?

a)

beauty

b)

beautify

c)

beautiful

27.

Which punctuation mark is used to indicate a question?

a)

Exclamation mark

b)

Comma

c)

Period

d)

Question mark

28.

What is the main theme of Shakespeare's 'Romeo and Juliet'?

a)

The conflict between love and hate.

b)

The struggle for power in Verona.

c)

The inevitability of fate.

d)

The importance of family loyalty.

29.

Identify the correct form of the verb: She ___ to the store yesterday.

a)

goes

b)

wented

c)

went

d)

going

30.

Which of the following is a compound sentence?

a)

A compound sentence is a simple sentence with a dependent clause.

b)

A compound sentence contains only one independent clause.

c)

A compound sentence is one that contains at least two independent clauses.

d)

A compound sentence is made up of multiple phrases without independent clauses.

31.

What is the synonym of 'happy'?

a)

sad

b)

joyful

c)

angry

d)

bored

32.

Let's go walking, .................?

a)

do we

b)

will we

c)

shall we

33.

That is the place ....................... I was born.

a)

which

b)

where

c)

when

34.

Do you know ....................... the microwave?

a)

who invented

b)

who did invent

c)

who invent

35.

Someone is knocking at the door. Go and see who ...

a)

she is.

b)

he is.

c)

they are.

36.

What is the role of the mitochondria in a cell?

a)

Produces energy (ATP) through cellular respiration

b)

Stores genetic information

c)

Regulates cell division

d)

Synthesizes proteins

37.

Which organelle is responsible for cellular respiration?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Golgi Apparatus

38.

What is the function of white blood cells in the immune system?

a)

White blood cells fight off infections and foreign invaders in the body.

b)

White blood cells regulate body temperature.

c)

White blood cells produce insulin in the body.

d)

White blood cells aid in digestion.

39.

What is genetic variation and why is it important in evolution?

a)

Genetic variation is the same in all individuals within a population

b)

Genetic variation has no impact on evolution

c)

Genetic variation only occurs in plants

d)

Genetic variation is the diversity in gene frequencies within a population, and it is important in evolution as it provides the raw material for natural selection to act upon, allowing for adaptation to changing environments and the emergence of new species.

40.

What is the difference between genotype and phenotype?

a)

Genotype is the genetic makeup, while phenotype is the physical characteristics.

b)

Genotype is only relevant for plants, while phenotype is only relevant for animals

c)

Genotype and phenotype are the same thing

d)

Genotype refers to physical characteristics, while phenotype refers to genetic makeup

41.

What is a Punnett square used for in genetics?

a)

To identify the gender of an organism

b)

To predict the possible genotypes of offspring in a genetic cross.

c)

To analyze the frequency of gene mutations

d)

To determine the dominant traits in an individual

42.

What is the role of DNA in genetics?

a)

DNA serves as the genetic material that stores and transmits hereditary information.

b)

DNA is responsible for producing proteins in the body.

c)

DNA acts as a barrier to prevent genetic mutations.

d)

DNA plays a role in regulating the body's immune system.

43.

What is a gene?

a)

A gene is a type of protein

b)

A gene is a type of cell

c)

A gene is a sequence of DNA that contains the instructions for building a specific protein or RNA molecule.

d)

A gene is a type of virus

44.

How many chromosomes do humans normally have?

a)

46

b)

40

c)

50

d)

23

45.

What is the difference between mitosis and meiosis?

a)

Mitosis produces genetically identical daughter cells, while meiosis produces genetically diverse daughter cells

b)

The main difference between mitosis and meiosis is the number of daughter cells produced and the number of chromosomes in each daughter cell.

c)

Mitosis occurs in somatic cells, while meiosis occurs in gametes

d)

The difference is in the timing of cell division

46.

What is the function of the nucleus in a cell?

a)

Control center and genetic material storage

b)

Energy production

c)

Waste storage

d)

Cell wall formation

47.

Which organelle is known as the powerhouse of the cell?

a)

nucleus

b)

lysosomes

c)

mitochondria

d)

ribosomes

48.

What is the basic structural and functional unit of all living organisms?

a)

molecule

b)

cell

c)

organ

d)

tissue

49.

Which system is responsible for removing waste from the body?

a)

Excretory system

b)

Circulatory system

c)

Respiratory system

d)

Digestive system

50.

What is the function of the circulatory system?

a)

Transporting oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and waste products throughout the body.

b)

Producing bile

c)

Regulating body temperature

d)

Controlling muscle movement

51.

Name the system that controls growth and development in the body.

a)

Digestive system

b)

Respiratory system

c)

Endocrine system

d)

Nervous system

52.

Which organelle is responsible for protein synthesis?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Golgi apparatus

53.

What is the function of the nervous system?

a)

Transmit signals and coordinate bodily functions

b)

Produce hormones

c)

Digest food and absorb nutrients

d)

Regulate body temperature

54.

Which body system is responsible for protecting the body from pathogens?

a)

Immune system

b)

Digestive system

c)

Circulatory system

d)

Respiratory system

55.

What is the function of the respiratory system?

a)

Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide

b)

Regulation of body temperature

c)

Transport of nutrients

d)

Digestion of food

56.

Name the system responsible for transporting oxygen and nutrients throughout the body.

a)

Respiratory system

b)

Endocrine system

c)

Digestive system

d)

Circulatory system

57.

Which organelle is known as the powerhouse of the cell?

a)

Endoplasmic reticulum

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

Nucleus

d)

Mitochondria

58.

What is the basic unit of life?

a)

molecule

b)

atom

c)

cell

d)

organism

59.

Which of the following is an example of an intruder in an ecosystem?

a)

A tree shedding its leaves

b)

A fish species introduced by humans that disrupts the ecosystem

c)

A bird migrating for the season

d)

A plant growing in the forest

60.

How can human activities negatively affect ecosystems?

a)

By increasing biodiversity

b)

By introducing invasive species and pollution

c)

By creating more natural habitats

d)

By removing predators to balance the food chain

61.

What type of ecosystem is a coral reef?

a)

Terrestrial ecosystem

b)

Freshwater ecosystem

c)

Marine ecosystem

d)

Desert ecosystem

62.

Which of the following best describes an ecosystem?

a)

A group of organisms of the same species

b)

A natural system where living and non-living things interact

c)

A community of plants without animals

d)

A single organism

63.

What is special about the Sonoran Desert compared to other deserts?

a)

It has the least number of species

b)

It receives more rainfall, allowing more plant and animal life

c)

It is covered in ice during winter

d)

It is the largest desert in the world

64.

Which of the following adaptations helps animals survive in the Sonoran Desert?

a)

Thick fur for warmth

b)

Ability to store water in their bodies

c)

Large leaves for capturing rain

d)

Webbed feet for swimming

65.

The image shows a tree that produces conkers. What sort of tree is this?

a)

Horse Chestnut

b)

Sycamore

c)

Hawthorn

d)

Oak

66.

How many valence electrons are there in a carbon atom?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

67.

What is the pH of a solution with a hydrogen ion concentration of 1 × 10^-3 M?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

7

d)

9

68.

How many moles of CO2 are produced when 12 grams of methane (CH4) are completely burned in oxygen? (Molar mass of CH4 = 16 g/mol)

a)

0.25 moles

b)

0.5 moles

c)

0.75 moles

d)

1 mole

69.

What is the molar mass of water (H2O)?

a)

16 g/mol

b)

18 g/mol

c)

32 g/mol

d)

2 g/mol

70.

Which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Fluorine

d)

Carbon

71.

A 1000 N force is applied to move a block 10 meters across a horizontal surface. How much work is done?

a)

10 J

b)

100 J

c)

1000 J

d)

10,000 J

72.

What is the wavelength of light with a frequency of 5.0 × 10^14 Hz? (Speed of light = 3.0 × 10^8 m/s)

a)

0.2 nm

b)

600 nm

c)

6.0 × 10^7 nm

d)

1.0 × 10^3 nm

73.

A car accelerates from rest to 30 m/s in 6 seconds. What is its acceleration?

a)

5 m/s²

b)

10 m/s²

c)

15 m/s²

d)

20 m/s²

74.

Which of the following is a vector quantity?

a)

Mass

b)

Speed

c)

Time

d)

Velocity

75.

What is the SI unit of work?

a)

Joule

b)

Watt

c)

Newton

d)

Volt

76.

Which correctly identifies subatomic particles

a)

Protons are positive, neutrons are negative, electrons are neutral

b)

Neutrons are positive, protons are neutral, electrons are negative

c)

Electrons are positive, protons are negative, neutrons are neutral

d)

Protons are positive, neutrons are neutral, electrons are negative

77.
12g of Carbon react with 16g of Oxygen, how much carbon monoxide (CO) is formed? 
a)
28 g
b)
4g
c)
30g
d)
12g
78.
A 5 kg block is pulled across a table by a net force of 32 N. Calculate the acceleration of the object. The answer to this question is most likely (HINT: Look at the units!!!) - 
a)
6.4 N
b)
6.4 m/s2
c)
6.4 kg
79.
A 50 kg skater pushed by a friend accelerates 5 m/s2.  How much force did the friend apply? The answer to this question is most likely (HINT: Look at the units!!!) - 
a)
250 N
b)
250 m/s2
c)
250 kg 
80.

Which group of elements are all gases and not reactive?

a)

Group 1

b)

Group 8

c)

Group 18

81.

Which two elements have the same chemical properties?

a)

Nitrogen and Phosphorous

b)

Oxygen and Nitrogen

c)

Sulfur and Nitrogen

82.
Which of the following is NOT an example of acceleration?
a)
a person jogging at 3 m/s along a winding path
b)
a car stopping at a stop sign
c)
a cheetah running 27 m/s east
d)
a plane taking off
83.
Which of the following is a measurement of velocity?
a)
16 m east
b)
25 m/s2
c)
55 m/h south
d)
60 km/h
84.
A 20 kg bike accelerates at 10 m/s2.  what was the force?
a)
25 Newtons
b)
20 Newtons
c)
200 Newtons
d)
10 Newtons
85.

How many elements are present in this compound? (Careful!)

Mg2As3COHNi2

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

10

86.

How many atoms are there TOTAL in H2SO4 ?

a)

6

b)

5

c)

7

d)

3

87.
What are the arrows pointing to?
a)
coefficient
b)
subscript
c)
pineapple
d)
a number
88.
Which of the following DOES NOT indicate a chemical change/reaction is occurring?
a)
Color Change
b)
Formation of a Precipitate
c)
Formation of gas/bubbles
d)
State of matter change
89.

Which subatomic particle determines chemical reactivity?

a)

Proton

b)

Neutron

c)

Electron

d)

Valence electron

90.

Which subatomic particle determines identity?

a)

Proton

b)

Neutron

c)

Electron

d)

Valence electron

91.

the figure shows the deflection of a compass needle when placed in a magnetic field. which deflection is wrong?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

92.

a magnet can be demagnetized by?

a)

north pole points north pole

b)

south pole points south pole

c)

being exposed to very high temperature

d)

when in attracts non magnetic material

93.

steel is

a)

easy to magnetize

b)

easy to demagnetize

c)

harder to magnetize

d)

used in electromagnets

94.

a magnetic material can be magnetized by placing it in a magnetic field of two magnets and gently tapping with a hammer. this time of magnetization is called?

a)

induction

b)

stroking

c)

hammering

d)

electrical

95.

a magnetic material can be magnetized by sliding a permanent magnet using the north pole following the same direction several times. this time of magnetization is called?

a)

hammering

b)

electrical

c)

stroking

d)

inducing

96.

the magnetic field lines shows that the poles being brought closer are?

a)

south pole and south pole

b)

south pole and north pole

c)

north pole and south pole

d)

north pole and north pole

97.

what would happen if two magnets are brought closer as shown?

a)

nothing

b)

they attract

c)

they repel

d)

they demagnetize

98.

what would happen if two magnets are brought closer as shown?

a)

nothing

b)

they attract

c)

they repel

d)

they form a magnet field

99.

the figure shows magnetic field lines of a bar magnet. which of the following is true?

a)

x is the south pole

b)

v is the north pole

c)

x is the north pole

d)

both x and v are north poles

100.

the figure shows a cooling curve of a gas. what shows that this a pure substance?

a)

it exist as a solid

b)

it exist as a liquid

c)

sharp/fixed freezing point

d)

it exist as a gas

101.

the figure shows different changes of state of matter. which change of state is endothermic?

a)

condensation

b)

freezing

c)

desposition

d)

melting

102.

the figure shows different changes of state of matter. which change of state is exothermic?

a)

melting

b)

boing

c)

sublimation

d)

freezing

103.

endothermic reaction results in ?

a)

heat release

b)

heat absorption

c)

breakdown of reactants

d)

formation of products

104.

exothermic reactions results in?

a)

heat absorption

b)

heat release

c)

formation of products

d)

breakdown of reactants

105.

the figure shows arrangement of particles in what state of matter?

a)

plasma

b)

solid

c)

liquid

d)

gas

106.

the figure shows arrangement of particles in what state of matter?

a)

solid

b)

gas

c)

liquid

d)

plasma

107.

the picture shows arrangement of particles in what state of matter?

a)

gas

b)

liquid

c)

solid

d)

plasma

108.

which one of the following is not a state of matter?

a)

solid

b)

oxygen

c)

liquid

d)

gas

109.

what should be done when suffocated by fumes in the lab?

a)

drink a lot of water

b)

close your mouth

c)

move out of the lab to a better ventilated area

d)

close all the windows

110.

what should one do when in contact of sodium hydroxide in the lab?

a)

add an acid

b)

add more sodium hydroxide

c)

run out of the lab

d)

wash with running water

111.

which one of the following is not a laboratory safety rule?

a)

wear safety clothing

b)

do not eat in the lab

c)

do not inform your teacher of an accident

d)

do not run in the lab

112.

What happens to the concentration of H+ ions in an acidic solution?

a)

Remains constant

b)

Increases

c)

Becomes neutralized

d)

Decreases

113.

What is the name of the group of elements in the periodic table that have similar properties?

a)

Clans

b)

Groups or families

c)

Divisions

d)

Categories

114.

What is the name of the process where a solid changes directly into a gas?

a)

Evaporation

b)

Condensation

c)

Melting

d)

Sublimation

115.

How many electrons can the first energy level of an atom hold?

a)

6

b)

8

c)

4

d)

2

116.

What is the most common state of matter in the universe?

a)

Liquid

b)

Solid

c)

Plasma

d)

Gas

117.

What type of bond is formed when electrons are shared between atoms?

a)

Ionic bond

b)

Metallic bond

c)

Hydrogen bond

d)

Covalent bond

118.

What is the pH value of a neutral substance?

a)

10

b)

5

c)

7

d)

8

119.

Which element has the atomic number 1?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Carbon

d)

Hydrogen

120.

In a chemical reaction, what happens to the atoms of the reactants?

a)

The atoms of the reactants disappear completely.

b)

The atoms of the reactants are rearranged to form products.

c)

The atoms of the reactants combine to form new elements.

d)

The atoms of the reactants remain unchanged.

121.

What is the smallest unit of matter?

a)

Molecules

b)

Cells

c)

Planets

d)

Atoms

122.

What is the IUPAC name for the compound with the formula CH3CH2COOHCH_3CH_2COOH ?

a)

Ethanoic acid

b)

Propanoic acid

c)

Butanoic acid

d)

Methanoic acid

123.

Which of the following is the correct expression for the equilibrium constant ( KcK_c ) of the reaction aA+bB↔cC+dDaA + bB \leftrightarrow cC + dD ?

a)

[A]a[B]b[C]c[D]d\frac{[A]^a[B]^b}{[C]^c[D]^d}

b)

[C]c[D]d[A]a[B]b\frac{[C]^c[D]^d}{[A]^a[B]^b}

c)

a[A]+b[B]c[C]+d[D]\frac{a[A] + b[B]}{c[C] + d[D]}

d)

c[C]+d[D]a[A]+b[B]\frac{c[C] + d[D]}{a[A] + b[B]}

124.

What is the hybridization of the carbon atoms in ethene ( C2H4C_2H_4 )?

a)

spsp

b)

sp2sp^2

c)

sp3sp^3

d)

sp3dsp^3d

125.

Which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity?

a)

Fluorine

b)

Oxygen

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Chlorine

126.

What is the standard electrode potential ( E∘E^\circ ) for the half-cell reaction Zn2+(aq)+2e−→Zn(s)Zn^{2+}(aq) + 2e^- \rightarrow Zn(s) ?

a)

+0.76 V

b)

-0.76 V

c)

+1.10 V

d)

-1.10 V

127.

In a thermodynamic process, if the system does work on the surroundings and absorbs heat from the surroundings, the internal energy of the system:

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Remains the same

d)

Cannot be determined without more information

128.

Which of the following is not a characteristic reaction of alkanes?

a)

Substitution

b)

Addition

c)

Combustion

d)

Cracking

129.

What is the pH of a 0.01 M solution of hydrochloric acid ( HClHCl )?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

130.

Which of the following molecules exhibits hydrogen bonding as its strongest intermolecular force?

a)

CH4CH_4

b)

H2OH_2O

c)

CO2CO_2

d)

O2O_2

131.

What is the electron configuration of a chromium atom in its ground state?

a)

[Ar]4s23d4[Ar]4s^23d^4

b)

[Ar]4s13d5[Ar]4s^13d^5

c)

[Ar]4s23d3[Ar]4s^23d^3

d)

[Ne]3s23p64d5[Ne]3s^23p^64d^5

132.

What is a stoichiometric mixture?

a)

A mixture where how much product was made can be calculated

b)

A reaction with a limiting reactant

c)

A mixture where there is no limiting reactant or excess reactant

d)

A reaction with too much of one reactant

133.

The quantitative relationship between reactants and products is called

a)

Stoichiometry

b)

Mole ratio

c)

Law of conservation of mass

134.

Which mixture is heterogeneous?

a)

Salt water

b)

brass

c)

oily water

135.

What is the most important piece of information necessary to perform a stoichiometric calculation?

a)

Number of moles

b)

Number of particles

c)

Mass of reactants

d)

A balanced chemical equation

HIDE ANSWER

136.

Stoichiometry is the:

a)

calculation of amounts of substances in a chemical reaction from the balanced equation

b)

calculation of the number of particles in a physical reaction from the balanced equation

c)

calculation of the mass of substances in a chemical reaction from the chemical equation

d)

bane of my existence

137.

An opera singer's voice is able to break a thin crystal glass if the singer's voice and the glass have the same natural

a)

amplitude

b)

wavelength

c)

frequency

d)

speed

138.

As the frequency of a wave increases, the period of that wave

a)

remains the same

b)

decreases

c)

increases

139.

What is an example of a longitudinal wave?

a)

gamma ray

b)

water wave

c)

sound wave

d)

x-ray

140.

Wave motion in a medium transfers

a)

energy, only

b)

both mass and energy

c)

mass, only

d)

neither mass nor energy

141.

A single disturbance that moves from point to point through a medium is called a ___.

a)

period

b)

periodic wave

c)

wavelength

d)

pulse

142.

Which of the following substances does not produce gas at the anode and the cathode during electrolysis process?

Antara bahan berikut, yang manakah tidak akan menghasilkan gas pada anod dan katod semasa proses elektrolisis?

a)

Sulphuric acid

Asid sulfurik

b)

Sodium sulphate solution

Larutan natrium sulfat

c)

Copper(II) nitrate solution

Larutan kuprum(II) nitrat

d)

Potassium nitrate solution

Larutan kalium nitrat

143.

Which of the following substances ionizes partially in water?

Antara bahan berikut, yang manakah mengion separa di dalam air?

a)

HCl

b)

NaOH

c)

CH3OH

d)

CH3COOH

144.

Which of the following salts is prepared using double decomposition method?

Antara yang berikut, garam manakah yang disediakan dengan menggunakan kaedah penguraian ganda dua

a)

Copper(II) sulphate

Kuprum(II) sulfat

b)

Lead(II) chloride

Plumbum(II) klorida

c)

Iron(II) nitrate

Ferum(II) nitrat

d)

Potassium carbonate

Kalium karbonat

145.

Which of the following is suitable method to prepare copper(II) chloride?

Antara tindak balas berikut yang manakah kaedah yang sesuai untuk menyediakan kuprum(II) klorida?

a)

Copper(II) nitrate and hydrochloric acid

Kuprum(II) nitrat dan asid hidroklorik

b)

Copper and hydrochloric acid

Kuprum dan asid hidroklorik

c)

Copper(II) oxide and hydrochloric acid

Kuprum(II) oksida dan asid hidroklorik

d)

Copper(II) carbonate and sodium chloride

Kuprum(II) karbonat dan natrium klorida

146.

Salt X is decomposed by strong heating. The residue is brown when hot and yellow when cold.

What is X?

Garam X terurai apabila dipanaskan dengan kuat. Bakinya berwarna perang ketika panas dan kuning ketika sejuk .

Apakah X?

a)

Copper(II) nitrate

Kuprum (II) nitrat

b)

Zinc carbonate

Zink karbonat

c)

Zinc nitrate

Zink nitrat

d)

Lead(II) nitrate

Plumbum(II) nitrat

147.

What is the meaning of effective collision?

Apakah yang dimaksudkan dengan pelanggaran berkesan?

a)

The collision between particles that has a low energy

Perlanggaran antara zarah yang mempunyai tenaga yang rendah

b)

The collision between particles that causes a reaction

Perlanggaran antara zarah yang menghasilkan tindak balas

c)

The collision between particles at higher temperature

Perlanggaran antara zarah pada suhu yang tinggi

d)

The collision between particles where its energy is less than the activation energy

Perlanggaran antara zarah yang tenaganya lebih rendah daripada tenaga pengaktifan

148.

Which of the following elements form an ionic compound with chlorine?

Antara unsur-unsur berikut, yang manakah membentuk sebatian ionik dengan klorin?

a)

Carbon

Karbon

b)

Sulphur

Sulfur

c)

Helium

Helium

d)

Aluminium

Aluminium

149.

Which is following is not a chemical property of acid?

Antara yang berikut, yang manakah bukan sifat kimia bagi asid?

a)

Reacts with calcium carbonate to produce salt, water dan carbon dioxide?

Bertindak balas dengan kalsium karbonat menghasilkan garam, air dan karbon dioksida

b)

Reacts with base to produce salt and water

Bertindak balas dengan bes menghailkan garam dan air

c)

Reacts with magnesium to produce salt and carbon dioxide

Bertindak balas dengan magnesium menghasilkan garam dan karbon dioksida

d)

Reacts with alkali to produce salt and water

Bertindak balas dengan alkali menghasilkan garam dan air

150.

Which of the following salts dissolve in water?

Antara yang berikut, garam manakah larut dalam air?

a)

Lead(II) sulphate

Plumbum(II) sulfat

b)

Zinc chloride

Zink klorida

c)

Silver chloride

Argentum klorida

d)

Barium sulphate

Barium sulfat

151.

Which of the following is used in Contact process?

Antara berikut, yang manakah dgunakan dalam proses Sentuh?

a)

Iron as catalyst

Besi sebagai mangkin

b)

The temperature is 100oC

Suhu ialah 100oC

c)

The pressure is 100 atmosphere

Tekanan ialah100 atmosfera

d)

Sulphur as raw material

Sulfur sebagai bahan mentah

152.

Which of the following

is the empirical formula of etanoik acid, CH3COOH?

Antara berikut yang manakah merupakan formula empirik

bagi asid etanoik, CH3COOH?

a)

CHO

b)

CH2O

c)

C2H4O2

d)

CH3COOH

153.

Which of the following compounds react with ammonia to produce ammonium sulphate fertiliser?

Antara sebatian berikut, yang manakah bertindak balas dengan ammonia menghasilkan baja ammonium sulfat?

a)

Sodium sulphate

Natrium sulfat

b)

Sulphuric acid

Asid sulfurik

c)

Carbon dioxide

Karbon dioksida

d)

Phosphoric acid

Asid fosforik

154.

What is the number of molecules in 0.5 mole of sulphur dioxide, SO2?

Use the Avogadro constant = 6.02 X 1023 mol-1

Berapakah bilangan molekul dalam 0.5 mol gas sulfur dioksida,SO2 ?

Gunakan maklumat pemalar Avogadro = 6.02 X 1023 mol-1

a)

3.01 X 1023

b)

6.02 X 1023

c)

9.03 X 1023

d)

12.04 X 1023

155.

When dry litmus paper is added to dry ammonia gas no change occurs, but a litmus paper change to blue when water is added to the mixture. It is because

Apabila kertas litmus kering dicampurkan kepada gas ammonia kering, tiada perubahan berlaku, tetapi kertas litmus berubah kepada biru apabila sedikit air dicampurkan kepada campuran itu. Ini adalah kerana

a)

Magnesium reacts with water

magnesium bertindak balas dengan air

b)

Dry litmus paper makes the dry ammonia not reactive

Kertas litmus kering menjadikan ammonia kering tidak aktif

c)

Water is made up of hydrogen and hydroxide ion

air mengandungi ion-ion hidrogen dan ion-ion hidroksida

d)

Ammonia ionize to form hydroxide ion in the presence of water

ammonia mengion menghasilkan ion-ion hidroksida dalam kehadiran air.

156.

Which of the following substance consists of molecules?

Antara bahan berikut yang manakah mengandungi molekul-molekul?

a)

Sodium

Natrium

b)

Carbon

Karbon

c)

Water

Air

d)

Helium

Helium

157.

Another name for ionic bonding is.....bonding.

a)

Dative

b)

Metallic

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Electro-valent

158.

The type of bonding where only one participant donate electron is called

a)

Lone pair

b)

Covalent

c)

Coordinate covalent

d)

Electro-valent

159.

The atom of sodium has one electron in its outermost shell and three shells in total. Which period will it be found?

a)

Period 1

b)

Period 2

c)

Period 3

d)

Period 4

160.

The atom of nitrogen has 7protons, how many electrons has it?

a)

14

b)

9

c)

7

d)

5

161.

The group in periodic table that is referred to as halogen is in

a)

Group 1

b)

Group 7

c)

Group 8

d)

Group 10

162.

The group in the periodic table is divided into......columns

a)

10

b)

8

c)

6

d)

5

163.

Which of these bonding involves a transfer of electron

a)

Ionic

b)

Dative

c)

Covalent

d)

Coordinate covalent

164.

Sodium is found in group 1 of the periodic table because

a)

It's a metal

b)

It exhibit ionic bond

c)

It's atom has one shell

d)

It's outermost electron is one

165.

The 10th element in the periodic table is

a)

Oxygen

b)

Neon

c)

Sodium

d)

Magnesium

166.

The height of image formed in a plane mirror is 16 cm, the object height will be

a)

Quadrupled

b)

Tripped

c)

Doubled

d)

the same

167.

The angle of incident on a plane mirror is 40`, what is the angle of reflection?

a)

50

b)

40

c)

30

d)

20

168.

All these are characteristics of waves except

a)

Polarisation

b)

Reflection

c)

Rotation

d)

Interference

169.

The changes in the direction, wave length and speed when wave through different media is

a)

Refraction

b)

Reflection

c)

Diffraction

d)

Interference

170.

The image in a plane mirror is always

a)

Real

b)

Virtual

c)

Inverted

d)

Enlarged

171.

What Is the velocity of a wave of frequency 200Hz and wave length 0.1m?

a)

10 ms-1

b)

20 ms-1

c)

0.2 ms-1

d)

0.02 ms-1

172.

The frequency of a wave is 100Hz, what is its period?

a)

0.01s

b)

10s

c)

100s

d)

1000s

173.

In the expression T = 1/f, the 'f' represents

a)

Force

b)

Period

c)

Time

d)

Frequency

174.

The time to complete a cycle of wave is called.....

a)

Amplitude

b)

Frequency

c)

Period

d)

Wave length

175.

When the direction of a wave is parallel to the motion of its particles, the wave is called......wave.

a)

Mechanical

b)

Electromagnetic

c)

Longitudinal

d)

Transverse

176.

A wave that can be transmitted through a material medium is called.....wave.

a)

Longitudinal

b)

Transverse

c)

Mechanical

d)

Electromagnetic

177.

In a simple sentence, there can be:

a)

Only one verb

b)

More than one verb

c)

No verbs

178.

Identify the simple sentence:

a)

The sun is shining, and the birds are singing.

b)

The sun is shining brightly.

c)

Because the sun is shining, we went outside

179.

A simple sentence can have:

a)

One subject and one verb.

b)

Two subjects and two verbs

c)

Two subjects and one verb

d)

All of the above

180.

Which sentence is a simple sentence?

a)

I was hungry, so I made a sandwich.

b)

I was hungry and made a sandwich.

c)

I made a sandwich.

181.

Identify the subject in the sentence: "The dog barked loudly.

a)

The

b)

dog

c)

barked

d)

loudly

182.

Which word is the verb in the sentence: "The baby cried loudly"

a)

The

b)

baby

c)

cried

d)

loudly

183.

Which of these sentences is a simple sentence?

a)

He opened the door, and she walked in.

b)

The cat chased the mouse, but the mouse escaped.

c)

I love reading.

d)

Because it was raining, we stayed inside.

184.

Choose the correct sentence:

a)

She can sings well.

b)

She can sing well.

c)

She sings well can.

d)

She singing can well.

185.

Which sentence is in the future tense?

a)

She runs every morning.

b)

She ran yesterday.

c)

She will run tomorrow.

d)

She is running now.

186.

It is half past nine

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

187.

It is ten o'clock

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

188.

What is the BEST way to revise this sentence?


The excited family waits excitedly in line to ride the roller coaster.

a)

The family waits excitedly in line to ride the roller coaster.

b)

The family waits excitedly. In line to ride the roller coaster.

c)

The family is excited, they wait excitedly in line to ride the roller coaster.

d)

The family who is excited waits excitedly in line to ride the roller coaster.

189.

What is the BEST way to combine these sententces?


I jumped up quickly. I went to answer the phone.

a)

I jumped up quickly and I went to answer the phone.

b)

I jumped up quickly, I went to answer the phone.

c)

I jumped up quickly, and I went to answer the phone.

d)

I jumped up quickly to answer the phone.

190.

The following is an example of what type of sentence?


Ethan, put your dirty clothes in the hamper upstairs.

a)

declarative

b)

interrogative

c)

imperative

d)

exclamatory

191.

What change, if any, should be made in this sentence?


Are we going to the park this saturday?

a)

Change going to go

b)

Change the question mark to a period

c)

Change saturday to Saturday

d)

This sentence should not be changed.

192.

What change, if any, should be made in this sentence?


Win it was time to go home, Annabele ran and hid in the closet.

a)

Change hid to hide

b)

Change Win to When

c)

Delete the comma

d)

No change should be made

193.
STAAR Question: Paragraph 7 mainly focuses on - 
What skill are you being asked to use for this question?
a)
summary
b)
main idea
c)
context clues
d)
conflict
194.
STAAR Question: What is the most likely reason the poet used capitalization in line 6?
What skill are you being asked to use in this question?
a)
correct use of writing conventions
b)
graphical elements
c)
theme
d)
Conflict
195.
STAAR Question: What is the significance of the crowd returning at lunchtime to watch Maniac?
How is the word "significance" being used in this sentence?
a)
problem
b)
synonym
c)
order
d)
importance
196.
STAAR Question: How does the setting influence the plot of a story?
How is influence being used in this sentence?
a)
beginning
b)
effect
c)
determine
d)
apply
197.
STAAR QUESTION: How does the setting advance the plot?
What is this question asking you to do?
a)
To choose the answer choice that explains how the conflict is causing the plot of the story to move forward. 
b)
To choose the answer that shows how the character's actions are causing the plot of the story to move forward.
c)
To choose the answer choice that shows how the mood is causing the plot of the story to move forward. 
d)
To choose the answer choice that explains how the setting of the story is causing the plot to move forward.
198.

As most of you know, we just celebrated Hannahs 16th birthday.

a)

Change you to I

b)

Change know to no

c)

Change Hannahs to Hannah’s

d)

Make no change

199.

I saw Bella & Rico near the door. Like good dogs, it licked my face when I walked in.

a)

Change walked to walks

b)

Change dogs to dog’s

c)

Change it to they

d)

Make no change

200.

My teammates have become more then just teammates to me. They are my friends.

a)

Change to me to too me

b)

Change then to than

c)

Change have become to has become

d)

Make no change

201.

Asteroid Facts Every Kid Needs to Know


Asteroids are small bodies of rock and metal that orbit the Sun. Isn't that cool? Asteroids can be very small or very large. The first asteroid was discovered in 1801. Maybe you have made a discovery or your own in your science class.


The asteroid belt runs through the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. Astronomers, people who study space, use very powerful telescopes to study and research asteroids. Maybe this is something you would be interested in doing when you grow up.


Some scientists believe the dinosaurs became extinct because a very a very large asteroid hit the earth around 65 million years ago. I bet you always wondered why that happened.


What are the BEST clues that the author wrote this story to teach young people about asteroids?

a)

Most kids like asteroids, so the author probably knew that.

b)

The passage uses kid friendly language, and the title gives a clue.

c)

Astronomers are something we learned about in science, so kids would need to know about it.

d)

The story is interesting, and kids think that's cool.

202.

Read the paragraph below and answer the question that follows.

Have you ever wondered why people say not to waste paper because you will help save trees? There are so many reasons you may not know that make it important for you to save trees. Did you know that trees reduce erosion? Erosion causes soil to wash away. Erosion could be a problem in many ways. If you like to go fishing or boating, you wouldn't be able to launch your boat if the boat ramp eroded away. Where would animals and insects live if there were no trees? I'm sure you've caught a grasshopper, seen a bird, or watched a squirrel in a tree. This would be impossible if we cut them all down. These are just a few of the many reasons to help save trees. What can you do to help?


What is the author's main purpose to help save trees. What can you do to help?

a)

The author wants to entertain the reader with an amusing story.

b)

The author wants the reader not to pick flowers because they help us and give bees home.

c)

The author is trying to persuade you to get a group of people together to help save trees.

d)

The author is trying to persuade the reader to save trees.

203.

Read the paragraph below and answer the question that follows.


Wyatt and his sister, Felicia, didn't get along. He wanted to do stuff with her, but she thought she was too old to play with him. She was only 3 years older, but she thought she was big. One thing Wyatt loved to do was carve a pumpkin at Halloween. Mom brought Wyatt to the pumpkin patch to pic a special one. He chose the largest , most orange pumpkin he could find. When he go home , he placed it on the kitchen table and carefully laid out his carving tools. He was going to make this his best masterpiece yet. He noticed Felicia in his jack-o-lantern making. Finally, he quietly said, "Felicia, I sure could use some help carving this pumpkin. You are so much more experienced that me."Felicia hesitated. "Sure. If you need me to help I guess I can," she replied. Wyatt and Felicia laughed and laughed. They had the best time carving that special jack-o-lantern.


What does Wyatt do first when he realizes his sister may be interested in his activity?

a)

A. He knew she seemed interested in his carving.

b)

B. Wyatt carves a pumpkin with her.

c)

C. Wyatt asks her to help him.

d)

D. Felicia seemed interested in his carving.

204.

When the author conveys, this means they are...

a)

trying to tell you something

b)

trying to predict something

c)

trying to show you foreshadowing

205.

What is passage another word for?

a)

section

b)

part

c)

selection

d)

line

206.

What word means full of beauty?

a)

beautiful

b)

beautiness

c)

beautifully

d)

beautiless

207.

What does the suffix "-less" mean?

a)

without

b)

less of

c)

having

d)

relating to

208.

What does the suffix "-ful" mean?

a)

without

b)

having

c)

full of

d)

having to do with

209.

What does the prefix ad, a, ac, af, ag, an, ar, at, as mean?

a)

tag along

b)

to, forward

c)

took, taken

d)

to, toward

210.

What does the prefix a, ab, as mean?

a)

abdomen full

b)

always far

c)

away, from

d)

away, far

211.

Paramedics (a)   ambulances.

212.

Choose the correct word or phrase for the sentence: "The concert was really crowded, and a _____ said I couldn't go in"

a)

hairdresser

b)

salesperson

c)

security guard

213.

Choose the correct word or phrase for the sentence: "I didn't know where to go on vacation but the ____ suggested a good place"

a)

lawyer

b)

travel agent

c)

security guard

214.

Choose the correct word or phrase for the sentence: "I`m sure the company has financial problems, the _____ looks very worried"

a)

soccer coach

b)

scientist

c)

accountant

215.

Choose the correct word or phrase for the sentence:

"Whenever I have my hair cut I tell my ______ my problems"

a)

travel agent

b)

surgeon

c)

hairdresser

216.

The picture representing Christmas is...

a)
b)
c)
d)
217.

Black is...

a)
b)
c)
d)
218.

What colour is this ?

a)

red

b)

blue

c)

black

d)

pink

219.

Please fill in the gap:

They _____ by tomorrow afternoon.

a)

will arrive

b)

will have arrived

220.

Please fill in the gap:

She _____ very much.

a)

hasn’t eaten

b)

haven't eaten

221.

How many stages are in the Boll Weevil life cycle?

a)

2

b)

6

c)

3

d)

4

222.

True or False: Not all living organisms have a life cycle.

a)

True

b)

False

223.

What do farmers use to determine when to plant and harvest their crops?

a)

They ask their mom

b)

They use weather patterns to predict the best time

c)

The animals always find shelter when its time to harvest the crops

d)

They have a meeting once a month to discuss

224.

True or False: The seasons are determined by the position of the Earth.

a)

True

b)

False

225.

There is a full moon on February 27th. About when will the next full moon occur?

a)

March 1st

b)

March 10th

c)

March 21st

d)

March 27th

226.

What is an example of condensation?

a)

Seeing your breath outside on a cold day

b)

Clothes drying outside

c)

Steam coming from a boiling pot of water

d)

Rain falling outside of your window

227.

What energy source powers the water cycle?

a)

Solar Pannel

b)

Natural Gas

c)

Wind Turbines

d)

The Sun

228.

Which two natural resources are non-renewable?

a)

Plants

b)

Oil

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Water

229.

What type of erosion was a factor of the Dust Bowl?

a)

Water

b)

Wind

c)

Ice

230.

Is soil a mixture?

a)

Yes

b)

No

231.

Recently, a family of bobcats(predator) moved into an area with a large rabbit(prey) population. What changes may occur in the food chain?

a)

The rabbit population may increase

b)

The rabbit population may decrease

c)

The rabbit population may increase first, then decrease

d)

The rabbit population will remain the same

232.
A population of mice lives in a barn community. A cat population has just joined the community. What will happen?
a)
Mouse and cat populations both go up?
b)
Mouse and cat populations both go down
c)
Mouse population goes down as cat population goes up
d)
Mouse population goes up as cat population goes down
233.

In a food web, which of these is a producer?

a)

humans

b)

lizards

c)

spiders

d)

grass

234.

Which of the following do omnivores eat?

a)

plants

b)

Plants and meat

c)

meat only

d)

They make their own food

235.

The image correspond to

a)

Food chain

b)

Food Web

236.

In this food chain, what will happen if the frogs become extinct?

a)

The snakes will increase.

b)

The grasshoppers will decrease.

c)

The eagles will remain the same.

d)

The grasshoppers will increase.

237.

What does a food web represent?

a)

All connections of energy flow throughout all organisms in a habitat.

b)

The specific ways that organisms help each other out.

c)

A single pathway or energy flow between organisms.

d)

How carnivores get their food.

238.

What is the role of a decomposer in a food web?

a)

It breaks down dead plants and animals and turns them into minerals.

b)

It produces its own food and provides other organisms with food.

c)

It eats plants

d)

It eats animals

239.

What happens if a portion of the food chain is broken?

a)

Only the consumers would be affected.

b)

The decomposers and producers would be affected.

c)

All the organisms would be affected

d)

Nobody would be affected.

240.

Types of Food chains

a)

Terrestrial - water

b)

Aquatic - Terrestrial

c)

Forest - Aquatic

d)

Terrestrial - land

241.

Which organism begins the food chain and makes its own food?

(a)  

242.

Many food chains that are linked together are called what?

(a)  

243.

When organisms in a food web depend on each other, it is know as…

(a)  

244.

Food chain shows what eats what in an __________________.

a)

ecosystem

b)

wildlife

c)

space

d)

nature

245.

When different populations live together in the same habitat and interacy with each other.

a)

groups

b)

ecosystem

c)

population

d)

community

246.

A group of living things that live in the same place at the same time.

a)

Community

b)

population

c)

groups

d)

teams

247.

A living thing that gets its food from eating other living things.

a)

Decomposers

b)

Producers

c)

consumers

d)

Population

248.

All things in our ecosystem must work together to _____________ a good living environment.

a)

understand

b)

refuse

c)

withhold

d)

provide

249.

An ecosystem can be very small such as a puddle or under a rock.It an also be as big as an ocean or a desert.

a)

Not True at all

b)

False

c)

True

d)

Perhaps

250.

An/A ________________ is a community of living things that interact with each other and with the physical world

a)

ecosystem

b)

biosphere

c)

ecosphere

d)

environment.

e)

grassland

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