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Worksheets

cmid

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A dark yellow urine color is most commonly caused by:

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Urobilin

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Myoglobin

2.

A urine sample with strong ammonia odor is typically due to:

a)

Ketones

b)

Bacterial decomposition

c)

Protein

d)

Glucose

3.

Cloudy urine after refrigeration is most commonly caused by precipitation of:

a)

Calcium oxalate

b)

Uric acid

c)

Amorphous phosphates

d)

Cholesterol crystals

4.

A urine specimen that is red but has a negative chemical test for blood is most likely due to:

a)

Hemoglobinuria

b)

Myoglobinuria

c)

Porphyria

d)

RBCs

5.

A fruity urine odor is associated with:

a)

Infection

b)

Diabetes mellitus

c)

Liver disease

d)

Phenylketonuria

6.

The reagent strip test for glucose uses which enzymatic reaction?

a)

Glucose dehydrogenase

b)

Hexokinase

c)

Glucose oxidase

d)

Hydrogen peroxide–peroxidase only

7.

A false-positive protein result may be caused by:

a)

Highly alkaline urine

b)

Dilute urine

c)

Acidic urine

d)

Low specific gravity

8.

Dysmorphic RBCs are associated with:

a)

Lower UTI

b)

Glomerular bleeding

c)

Menstrual contamination

d)

Kidney stones

9.

Glitter cells are:

a)

RTE cells

b)

Swollen neutrophils in hypotonic urine

c)

Eosinophils

d)

Lymphocytes

10.

Acanthocytes in urine indicate:

a)

Tubular necrosis

b)

Glomerulonephritis

c)

Cystitis

d)

Nephrotic syndrome

11.

Increased eosinophils in urine are typical of:

a)

Interstitial nephritis

b)

Cystitis

c)

Diabetes

d)

Acute pyelonephritis

12.

Clue cells in urine suggest:

a)

Chlamydia

b)

Bacterial vaginosis

c)

Yeast infection

d)

Trichomoniasis

13.

Which ketone is most sensitive in reagent strip testing?

a)

β-hydroxybutyrate

b)

Acetone

c)

Acetoacetate

d)

All are equal

14.

A positive bilirubin test with a negative urobilinogen suggests:

a)

Hemolytic anemia

b)

Liver damage

c)

Obstructive jaundice

d)

Normal result

15.

Nitrite tests for:

a)

Leukocyte esterase

b)

Gram-positive bacteria

c)

Gram-negative bacteria

d)

Yeast

16.

A highly buffered alkaline urine may cause false-negative results for:

a)

Blood

b)

Protein

c)

Ketones

d)

Bilirubin

17.

Specific gravity reagent strip detects:

a)

Total solutes

b)

Ionic solutes only

c)

Urea concentration

d)

Envelope-shaped crystals

18.

Coffin-lid crystals are:

a)

Triple phosphate

b)

Calcium phosphate

c)

Cystine

d)

Sulfonamides

19.

Hexagonal crystals indicate:

a)

Uric acid

b)

Cystine

c)

Cholesterol

d)

Bilirubin

20.

Thorn-apple crystals are:

a)

Calcium carbonate

b)

Leucine

c)

Ammonium biurate

d)

Tyrosine

21.

Needle-like crystals seen with liver disease:

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Tyrosine

c)

Cystine

d)

Uric acid

e)

All solutes equally

22.

The confirmatory test for bilirubin is:

a)

Acetest

b)

Ictotest

c)

SSA test

d)

Clinitest

23.

Clinitest detects:

a)

Glucose

b)

Reducing substances

c)

Protein

d)

Ketones

24.

The pH of normal urine usually ranges from:

a)

3.0–5.0

b)

4.5–8.0

c)

7.0–9.0

d)

2.0–4.0

25.

The presence of RBC casts is diagnostic of:

a)

UTI

b)

Glomerulonephritis

c)

Cystitis

d)

Stone formation

26.

Granular casts are derived from:

a)

Degenerated WBCs

b)

Degenerated tubular cells

c)

Degenerated RBCs

d)

Mixed cells

27.

Waxy casts indicate:

a)

Early renal disease

b)

Acute tubular necrosis

c)

Chronic renal failure

d)

Dehydration

28.

Hyaline casts increase with:

a)

Fever

b)

Strenuous exercise

c)

Stress

d)

All of the above

29.

Broad casts are associated with:

a)

UTI

b)

Diabetic nephropathy

c)

Renal failure

d)

Nephrotic syndrome

30.

The primary site of glucose reabsorption:

a)

Loop of Henle

b)

Proximal tubule

c)

Distal tubule

d)

Collecting duct

31.

The hormone that increases water reabsorption:

a)

ADH

b)

Aldosterone

c)

PTH

d)

Calcitonin

32.

Renin is secreted by:

a)

Macula densa

b)

Juxtaglomerular cells

c)

Loop of Henle

d)

Podocytes

33.

The glomerular filtration barrier excludes molecules mainly based on:

a)

Shape

b)

Charge

c)

Size

d)

Color

34.

The normal GFR is approximately:

a)

60 mL/min

b)

90 mL/min

c)

120 mL/min

d)

200 mL/min

35.

The recommended abstinence period before semen collection:

a)

1–2 days

b)

2–7 days

c)

7–10 days

d)

10–14 days

36.

Normal semen volume:

a)

0.5–1.0 mL

b)

1.5–5.0 mL

c)

5.0–10.0 mL

d)

>10 mL

37.

Normal sperm concentration is at least:

a)

5 million/mL

b)

15 million/mL

c)

20 million/mL

d)

60 million/mL

38.

A yellow semen color suggests:

a)

WBCs

b)

RBC contamination

c)

Old sample

d)

Bacterial infection

39.

Normal semen liquefaction time:

a)

1–10 minutes

b)

10–20 minutes

c)

20–30 minutes

d)

30–60 minutes

40.

The gold standard for fecal fat quantitation:

a)

Sudan stain

b)

72-hour fecal fat test

c)

Occult blood test

d)

Clinitest

41.

Occult blood test detects:

a)

Heme peroxidase activity

b)

Hemoglobin only

c)

RBCs

d)

Myoglobin only

42.

Steatorrhea indicates:

a)

Blood in stool

b)

Fat malabsorption

c)

Protein loss

d)

Infection

43.

Charcot-Leyden crystals are associated with:

a)

Bacterial infection

b)

Parasitic infection

c)

Malabsorption

d)

Bleeding

44.

The most sensitive test for viral diarrhea:

a)

Culture

b)

Antigen testing

c)

PCR

d)

Microscopy

45.

Oval fat bodies are typically seen in:

a)

Acute pyelonephritis

b)

Nephrotic syndrome

c)

Glomerulonephritis

d)

Cystitis

46.

Maltese cross formation under polarized light indicates:

a)

Cholesterol esters

b)

Triple phosphate

c)

Leucine

d)

Uric acid

47.

RTE cells are significantly increased in:

a)

Lower UTI

b)

Acute tubular necrosis

c)

Nephrotic syndrome

d)

Pyelonephritis

48.

The presence of WBC casts signifies:

a)

Lower UTI

b)

Bladder infection

c)

Acute pyelonephritis

d)

Kidney stones

49.

The best indicator of early renal disease is:

a)

Proteinuria

b)

Hematuria

c)

Casts

d)

SG changes

50.

Fatty casts are characteristic of:

a)

Acute nephritis

b)

Nephrotic syndrome

c)

Renal failure

d)

Diabetes insipidus

51.

The matrix of all casts is primarily composed of:

a)

Creatinine

b)

Albumin

c)

Tamm-Horsfall protein

d)

Fibrin

52.

The presence of mixed cellular casts indicates:

a)

Chronic renal failure

b)

Acute pyelonephritis

c)

Transitional stage of renal disease

d)

Lower UTI

53.

RTE cells primarily indicate injury to the:

a)

Collecting duct

b)

Proximal tubule

c)

Distal tubule

d)

Loop of Henle

54.

The cast seen in renal failure with very wide diameter:

a)

Fatty cast

b)

Broad cast

c)

Mixed cast

d)

RBC cast

55.

Uric acid crystals are commonly seen in:

a)

Alkaline urine

b)

Acidic urine

c)

Highly dilute urine

d)

Strongly alkaline urine

56.

Cystine crystals are confirmed by:

a)

Heat test

b)

Cyanide-nitroprusside test

c)

Sulfosalicylic acid test

d)

Acetest

57.

Leucine crystals resemble:

a)

Spheres with concentric rings

b)

Needles

c)

Hexagons

d)

Envelopes

58.

Tyrosine crystals appear as:

a)

Sheaves

b)

Corkscrews/needles

c)

Hexagons

d)

Dumbbells

59.

Cholesterol crystals have the shape of:

a)

Coffin lid

b)

Envelope

c)

Rectangular plates with notched corners

d)

Thorn-apple

60.

Normal sperm motility after 1 hour should be at least:

a)

20%

b)

30%

c)

40%

d)

50%

61.

Sperm morphology normal forms (strict criteria) should be at least:

a)

2%

b)

14%

c)

10%

d)

20%

62.

Increased semen viscosity indicates abnormality of the:

a)

Epididymis

b)

Seminal vesicle

c)

Prostate

d)

Testes

63.

Low semen volume suggests a disorder in the:

a)

Prostate

b)

Testes

c)

Seminal vesicle

d)

Epididymis

64.

The presence of many round cells in semen may indicate:

a)

Immature sperm cells

b)

WBCs

c)

Infection

d)

All of the above

65.

The test used to detect fecal carbohydrates:

a)

Sudan III

b)

Clinitest

c)

Ictotest

d)

Acetest

66.

Black, tarry stools are referred to as:

a)

Melena

b)

Hematochezia

c)

Steatorrhea

d)

Tenesmus

67.

A bulky, greasy, foul-smelling stool is characteristic of:

a)

Bacterial infection

b)

Malabsorption

c)

Bleeding

d)

Iron therapy

68.

The most sensitive test for fecal occult blood:

a)

Benzidine test

b)

Guaiac test

c)

Immunochemical test (iFOBT)

d)

Hematest

69.

Increased neutrophils in stool indicate:

a)

Viral infection

b)

Parasitic infection

c)

Inflammatory diarrhea

d)

Food poisoning

70.

Xanthochromia in CSF suggests:

a)

Bacterial meningitis

b)

Previous hemorrhage

c)

Viral infection

d)

Contamination

71.

CSF neutrophils are elevated in:

a)

Viral meningitis

b)

Tuberculous meningitis

c)

Bacterial meningitis

d)

Fungal meningitis

72.

A "cobweb clot" forms in CSF due to:

a)

Viral infection

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Bacterial infection

d)

Hemorrhage

73.

Normal CSF glucose is approximately:

a)

10–20% of blood glucose

b)

25–40% of blood glucose

c)

50–80% of blood glucose

d)

Equal to blood glucose

74.

Elevated CSF protein is commonly seen in:

a)

Viral infection

b)

Bacterial infection

c)

Diabetes

d)

Dehydration

75.

Synovial fluid with needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals:

a)

Calcium oxalate

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Monosodium urate

d)

Calcium pyrophosphate

76.

"Ground-glass" appearance of peritoneal fluid suggests:

a)

Hemorrhage

b)

Infection

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Pseudochylous effusion

77.

Milky pleural fluid is typical of:

a)

Hemothorax

b)

Chylothorax

c)

Pneumonia

d)

TB

78.

Elevated ADA (adenosine deaminase) in pleural fluid indicates:

a)

Viral infection

b)

TB

c)

Cancer

d)

Fungal infection

79.

A transudate is characterized by:

a)

Low protein, low LDH

b)

High protein, low LDH

c)

High protein, high LDH

d)

Low protein, high LDH

80.

The test used to assess fetal lung maturity:

a)

Fern test

b)

L/S ratio

c)

Nitrazine test

d)

KOH test

81.

A yellow amniotic fluid suggests:

a)

Meconium staining

b)

Hemolytic disease of the newborn

c)

Infection

d)

Prematurity

82.

The test for fetal distress involving amniotic fluid discoloration:

a)

Fern test

b)

Nitrazine

c)

Meconium test

d)

Fluorescence polarization

83.

Foamy amniotic fluid may indicate:

a)

Respiratory distress

b)

Contamination

c)

High protein

d)

Multiple gestation

84.

The presence of lamellar bodies indicates:

a)

Lung surfactant

b)

Meconium

c)

Vernix

d)

Protein debris

85.

The most reliable indicator of urine concentration ability is:

a)

Specific gravity

b)

Osmolality

c)

pH

d)

Protein level

86.

The recommended confirmatory test for urine protein when reagent strip is positive is:

a)

Ictotest

b)

SSA (Sulfosalicylic Acid) test

c)

Acetest

d)

Clinitest

87.

The presence of isomorphic (uniform) RBCs in urine indicates bleeding from the:

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Renal pelvis

c)

Lower urinary tract

d)

Loop of Henle

88.

The best method to detect early diabetic nephropathy is measurement of:

a)

Urine glucose

b)

Microalbumin

c)

Creatinine clearance

d)

Specific gravity

89.

The Addis count method is used to quantify:

a)

Bacteria in urine

b)

RBCs, WBCs, and casts

c)

Protein excretion

d)

Ketone bodies

90.

Which crystal is consistently considered pathologic?

a)

Triple phosphate

b)

Cystine

c)

Calcium oxalate

d)

Amorphous urates

91.

The preferred specimen for accurate urine sediment examination is the:

a)

First morning urine

b)

Random urine

c)

Mid-stream clean-catch

d)

Timed 24-hour urine

92.

CSF lactate levels are especially useful in differentiating:

a)

Viral vs bacterial meningitis

b)

TB vs fungal infections

c)

Hemorrhage vs contamination

d)

Traumatic tap vs true bleeding

93.

Synovial fluid viscosity is primarily due to:

a)

Hyaluronic acid

b)

Albumin

c)

Urea

d)

Globulins

94.

The presence of birefringent, rhomboid-shaped crystals in synovial fluid indicates:

a)

Gout

b)

Pseudogout

c)

Septic arthritis

d)

Rheumatoid arthritis

95.

The most common cause of false-positive urine bilirubin on reagent strip is:

a)

Ascorbic acid

b)

Highly pigmented urine

c)

High urobilinogen

d)

Low specific gravity

96.

The preferred stain for identifying eosinophils in urine is:

a)

Wright stain

b)

Hansel stain

c)

Gram stain

d)

Sudan III

97.

The urine crystal that forms only in alkaline urine is:

a)

Uric acid

b)

Cystine

c)

Triple phosphate

d)

Calcium oxalate

98.

A spinal fluid with markedly increased opening pressure, neutrophils, and low glucose is typical of:

a)

Viral meningitis

b)

Fungal meningitis

c)

Bacterial meningitis

d)

TB meningitis

99.

An increase in synovial fluid turbidity is most often caused by:

a)

RBCs

b)

Crystals

c)

WBCs

d)

Lipids

100.

In semen analysis, the presence of antisperm antibodies is best detected by:

a)

Papanicolaou stain

b)

MAR test

c)

Dilutional motility testing

d)

Viability stain