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FCN Quiz

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for logical addressing and the determination of the best path for data delivery?

a)

Data Link Layer

b)

Network Layer

c)

Transport Layer

d)

Session Layer

2.

In a manufacturing environment with heavy machinery, which type of cabling should be chosen to minimize Electromagnetic Interference (EMI)?

a)

Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) Cat 6

b)

Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)

c)

Coaxial Cable

d)

UTP Cat 5e

3.

What is the primary difference between the TCP and UDP protocols at the Transport layer?

a)

TCP is connection-oriented and reliable, while UDP is connectionless and unreliable.

b)

UDP provides flow control, while TCP does not.

c)

TCP is faster than UDP because it has less overhead.

d)

UDP uses a 3-way handshake, while TCP does not.

4.

Which field in the Ethernet frame preamble is responsible for alerting the receiver that a new frame is starting?

a)

Frame Check Sequence (FCS)

b)

Start Frame Delimiter (SFD)

c)

EtherType

d)

Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC)

5.

A network administrator needs to divide a Class C network (192.168.10.0) into subnets that support at least 25 hosts each. Which subnet mask provides the maximum number of subnets while meeting this requirement?

a)

255.255.255.192 (/26)

b)

255.255.255.224 (/27)

c)

255.255.255.240 (/28)

d)

255.255.255.248 (/29)

6.

If a host has the IP address 172.16.10.55 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240, what is the network address for this subnet?

a)

172.16.10.0

b)

172.16.10.32

c)

172.16.10.48

d)

172.16.10.50

7.

Which component of a Cisco router holds the bootstrap program used to initialize the hardware during bootup?

a)

NVRAM

b)

RAM

c)

Flash

d)

ROM

8.

An administrator wants to bypass the startup configuration in NVRAM to perform password recovery. Which configuration register value should be set?

a)

0x2102

b)

0x2142

c)

0x2100

d)

0x2101

9.

In the context of Routing Protocols, what is the default Administrative Distance (AD) for a route learned via EIGRP?

a)

90

b)

100

c)

110

d)

120

10.

Which command is used to view a summary of the status of all interfaces on a router, including their IP address and line protocol status?

a)

show interfaces

b)

show ip route

c)

show ip interface brief

d)

show controllers

11.

In the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), if all switches have the default Bridge Priority, which parameter is used as the tie-breaker to elect the Root Bridge?

a)

Highest MAC address

b)

Lowest MAC address

c)

Lowest Port Priority

d)

Highest Interface Cost

12.

Which standard IEEE protocol is used to tag Ethernet frames with VLAN information on a trunk link?

a)

802.1D

b)

802.1w

c)

802.1Q

d)

802.3ad

13.

What is the primary function of the VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) in a switched network?

a)

To route traffic between VLANs at Layer 3

b)

To synchronize VLAN creation and deletion across switches in a domain

c)

To prevent loops in the Layer 2 topology

d)

To encrypt management traffic between switches

14.

Which VTP mode allows a switch to create and delete local VLANs but does not synchronize its VLAN database with other switches in the domain?

a)

Server

b)

Client

c)

Transparent

d)

Master

15.

To configure 'Router-on-a-Stick' for Inter-VLAN routing, what configuration is mandatory on the router's sub-interface?

a)

encapsulation dot1q

b)

switchport mode trunk

c)

ip helper-address

d)

bandwidth 1000

16.

Which specific Port Security violation mode drops traffic from unauthorized MAC addresses and increments the violation counter but allows the port to remain in the 'up' state?

a)

Protect

b)

Restrict

c)

Shutdown

d)

Disable

17.

Which Access Control List (ACL) range corresponds to Standard IP ACLs?

a)

1 - 99

b)

100 - 199

c)

1000 - 1999

d)

2000 - 2699

18.

What is the effect of the implicit rule at the end of every Cisco Access Control List?

a)

It permits all traffic that hasn't been matched.

b)

It logs all traffic to the console.

c)

It denies all traffic that hasn't been matched.

d)

It sends traffic to the default gateway.

19.

Which AAA protocol uses TCP port 49 and separates the authentication and authorization functions?

a)

RADIUS

b)

TACACS+

c)

Kerberos

d)

DIAMETER

20.

An organization wants to map multiple private internal IP addresses to a single public IP address using different port numbers. Which NAT type is required?

a)

Static NAT

b)

Dynamic NAT

c)

Port Address Translation (PAT)

d)

Policy NAT

21.

Which of the following IPv6 addresses represents the loopback address?

a)

::1

b)

FE80::1

c)

2000::1

d)

FF02::1

22.

In a WAN configuration using PPP, which authentication protocol sends passwords in clear text?

a)

CHAP

b)

PAP

c)

MS-CHAP

d)

EAP

23.

Which command is required to establish a static route to the network 10.0.0.0/8 via the next-hop IP 192.168.1.1?

a)

ip route 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.1

b)

ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.1

c)

ip route 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255 10.0.0.0

d)

route add 10.0.0.0 mask 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.1

24.

What is the core architectural principle of Software Defined Networking (SDN)?

a)

Decoupling the Control Plane from the Data Plane

b)

Integrating the Control Plane into every ASIC

c)

Using only proprietary hardware protocols

d)

Removing the Data Plane entirely

25.

In the OpenDaylight architecture, which component provides the common data store and messaging infrastructure?

a)

Northbound API

b)

Model-Driven Service Abstraction Layer (MD-SAL)

c)

OpenFlow Plugin

d)

Network Function Virtualization (NFV)

26.

Which 'Southbound' interface protocol is used by an SDN controller to modify the flow tables of a switch?

a)

REST

b)

NETCONF

c)

OpenFlow

d)

BGP

27.

Which tool is predominantly used in SDN labs to simulate a network topology of hosts, switches, and controllers on a single Linux kernel?

a)

GNS3

b)

Packet Tracer

c)

Mininet

d)

VMware ESXi

28.

In OpenDaylight, what is the primary purpose of 'Clustering'?

a)

To group multiple switches into a single virtual switch

b)

To provide High Availability and data consistency across multiple controller nodes

c)

To combine multiple Ethernet links for higher bandwidth

d)

To separate tenant traffic in a data center

29.

Which OVSDB operation allows the controller to create a new bridge on an Open vSwitch instance?

a)

Flow Modification

b)

Management/Configuration

c)

Packet-In

d)

Packet-Out

30.

What problem does LISP (Locator/ID Separation Protocol) solve in modern networking?

a)

It separates the Endpoint Identifier (Who) from the Routing Locator (Where).

b)

It prevents ARP spoofing in local networks.

c)

It compresses the IPv6 header size.

d)

It replaces TCP with a faster transport protocol.

31.

Which OpenDaylight application is responsible for discovering network devices and creating the topology graph?

a)

DLUX

b)

L2Switch

c)

AAA

d)

VTN Manager

32.

In the context of SDN, what does a 'Northbound API' connect the controller to?

a)

The physical switches

b)

The virtual switches

c)

Business Applications and Orchestration Systems

d)

The Linux Kernel

33.

What is 'Service Function Chaining' (SFC)?

a)

Connecting switches in a daisy chain to save ports.

b)

Steering traffic through an ordered list of service functions (e.g., Firewall -> Load Balancer).

c)

Using multiple controllers to manage a single switch.

d)

Encrypting the link between the control plane and data plane.

34.

Which OpenDaylight feature allows the creation of isolated virtual networks for different tenants on the same physical infrastructure?

a)

Virtual Tenant Network (VTN)

b)

L2Switch

c)

BGP-LS

d)

OVSDB

35.

When configuring Single-Homed eBGP, which requirement must be met regarding Autonomous System (AS) numbers?

a)

The local and remote routers must be in the same AS.

b)

The local and remote routers must be in different AS numbers.

c)

eBGP does not use AS numbers.

d)

The AS number must always be 65535.

36.

What is the default Hello Interval for OSPF on a broadcast network (like Ethernet)?

a)

5 seconds

b)

10 seconds

c)

30 seconds

d)

60 seconds

37.

Which message type does a switch send to the controller when it receives a packet that does not match any entry in its flow table?

a)

Flow-Mod

b)

Packet-In

c)

Packet-Out

d)

Echo-Request

38.

In a GRE tunnel configuration, the tunnel destination command typically refers to:

a)

The private IP address of the remote tunnel interface

b)

The public (routable) IP address of the remote peer

c)

The MAC address of the remote router

d)

The subnet mask of the tunnel

39.

Which command displays the routing table on a Cisco router?

a)

show ip interface

b)

show ip route

c)

show ip protocols

d)

show route map

40.

What is the purpose of the transport input telnet command on the VTY lines of a router?

a)

To enable SSH access

b)

To allow Telnet connections to the router

c)

To encrypt Telnet passwords

d)

To disable the console port