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طب نفسي 2

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Schizophrenia is widely accepted as:

a)

A disorder of the liver

b)

A brain disorder with structural and functional abnormalities

c)

A cardiovascular condition

d)

A purely environmental illness

2.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of schizophrenia?

a)

Disturbances in cognition

b)

Disturbances in perception

c)

Stable mood without disruption

d)

Disturbances in social behavior

3.

Twin studies in schizophrenia primarily demonstrate:

a)

No genetic link

b)

A strong genetic component

c)

Purely environmental causes

d)

A psychosocial origin only

4.

Lifetime prevalence of schizophrenia is approximately:

a)

0.1%

b)

1%

c)

5%

d)

10%

5.

Worldwide, new cases of schizophrenia appear each year in the order of:

a)

20,000

b)

200,000

c)

2 million

d)

10 million

6.

Peak age of onset for schizophrenia is:

a)

Before age 10

b)

Between 15 and 35

c)

After age 60

d)

Between 40 and 50

7.

Which group is less affected by schizophrenia?

a)

Catholics

b)

Jews

c)

Protestants

d)

Non-white populations

8.

The leading cause of death among patients with schizophrenia is:

a)

Cancer

b)

Suicide

c)

Heart disease

d)

Infection

9.

Substance abuse is common in schizophrenia. Approximately what percentage abuse alcohol or drugs?

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

30%

d)

>40%

10.

First-degree relatives of schizophrenia patients have what risk of developing the disorder?

a)

1%

b)

5%

c)

10%

d)

50%

11.

The dopamine hypothesis in schizophrenia suggests:

a)

Increased limbic dopamine → positive symptoms

b)

Decreased limbic dopamine → positive symptoms

c)

Increased serotonin → positive symptoms only

d)

Excess norepinephrine → negative symptoms only

12.

For schizophrenia diagnosis, how many DSM-5 symptoms must be present for at least 1 month?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

13.

DSM-5 requires symptoms of schizophrenia to persist for at least:

a)

1 month

b)

3 months

c)

6 months

d)

12 months

14.

Which of the following is NOT a core DSM-5 symptom of schizophrenia?

a)

Hallucinations

b)

Delusions

c)

Disorganized speech

d)

Manic episodes

15.

Negative symptoms of schizophrenia include:

a)

Hallucinations

b)

Delusions

c)

Flat affect

d)

Disorganized speech

16.

Thought disorder includes all EXCEPT:

a)

Loosening of associations

b)

Neologisms

c)

Echolalia

d)

Hypertension

17.

The most common type of hallucination in schizophrenia is:

a)

Visual

b)

Olfactory

c)

Tactile

d)

Auditory

18.

The schizoid personality phase of schizophrenia is characterized by:

a)

Social withdrawal and cold aloofness

b)

Hallucinations and delusions

c)

Aggression and incoherence

d)

Full recovery

19.

Which phase of schizophrenia involves bizarre ideas, neglect of hygiene, and blunted affect?

a)

Prodromal phase

b)

Active phase

c)

Residual phase

d)

Relapse phase

20.

Hallucinations, delusions, and aggression are typical of which phase of schizophrenia?

a)

Prodromal

b)

Active

c)

Residual

d)

Schizoid personality

21.

Residual phase symptoms of schizophrenia resemble:

a)

Prodromal phase

b)

Active phase

c)

Relapse phase

d)

Full recovery

22.

Relapse phase of schizophrenia indicates:

a)

Full remission

b)

Return of severe symptoms

c)

Stable functioning

d)

End of disease

23.

Paranoid type of schizophrenia is characterized by:

a)

Delusions of persecution or grandeur

b)

Waxy flexibility

c)

Gross disorganization

d)

Social withdrawal without psychosis

24.

Disorganized type (hebephrenia) of schizophrenia includes all EXCEPT:

a)

Incoherence

b)

Flat or inappropriate affect

c)

Well-preserved intelligence

d)

Grinning and grimacing

25.

The hallmark of catatonic type of schizophrenia is:

a)

Paranoid delusions

b)

Waxy flexibility

c)

Social withdrawal

d)

Bizarre ideas

26.

Features of residual type of schizophrenia include:

a)

Prominent hallucinations

b)

Active delusions

c)

Emotional blunting and withdrawal

d)

Catatonia

27.

Prognosis of schizophrenia is better when:

a)

Early age of onset

b)

Acute onset and good premorbid function

c)

Strong family history

d)

Prominent negative symptoms

28.

Later onset schizophrenia is associated with:

a)

Poorer prognosis

b)

Better prognosis

c)

No difference

d)

Catatonic features

29.

Antipsychotic medications act primarily on:

a)

Serotonin and dopamine receptors

b)

GABA exclusively

c)

Acetylcholine only

d)

Norepinephrine only

30.

Clozapine is reserved for:

a)

First-line treatment

b)

Treatment-resistant cases

c)

Mild cases only

d)

Patients with hypertension

31.

ECT in treatment of schizophrenia is most effective for:

a)

Paranoid type

b)

Catatonic subtype

c)

Residual phase

d)

Schizoid personality

32.

Family therapy for schizophrenia reduces:

a)

Relapse rates

b)

Hallucinations only

c)

Social skills

d)

Suicide rates

33.

One of the most common comorbidities with somatoform disorders is:

a)

Schizophrenia

b)

Major depression

c)

Parkinson’s disease

d)

Epilepsy

34.

In somatoform disorders, reassurance from physicians usually:

a)

Cures the symptoms

b)

Provides temporary relief

c)

Eliminates anxiety permanently

d)

Prevents recurrence

35.

Somatoform disorders specify "with predominant pain" was formerly known as:

a)

Pain disorder

b)

Hypochondriasis

c)

Somatization disorder

d)

Hysteria

36.

Illness anxiety disorder prevalence is higher among:

a)

Elderly

b)

Adolescents

c)

Middle-aged adults

d)

Children under 10

37.

The duration of symptoms in illness anxiety disorder must be at least:

a)

1 week

b)

1 month

c)

3 months

d)

6 months

38.

Which is NOT typical of conversion disorder?

a)

Sudden onset

b)

La belle indifférence

c)

Symptoms always consistent with known neurological pathways

d)

Symptom incompatibility

39.

Common presentations of conversion disorder include all EXCEPT:

a)

Paralysis

b)

Blindness

c)

Tinnitus

d)

Seizure-like activity

40.

Factitious disorder differs from malingering by:

a)

Intentionality

b)

Presence of secondary gain

c)

Motivation to assume sick role

d)

Absence of physical symptoms

41.

Common behaviors in factitious disorder include:

a)

Self-injury

b)

Tampering with lab tests

c)

Inconsistent medical history

d)

All of the above

42.

Factitious disorder prevalence is higher in:

a)

Men

b)

Women

c)

Children only

d)

Elderly

43.

Body dysmorphic disorder is most commonly associated with:

a)

Obsessional checking of mirrors

b)

Neglecting self-care

c)

Avoidance of food

d)

Delirium

44.

In body dysmorphic disorder, preoccupations cause:

a)

Minimal distress

b)

Significant distress and impairment

c)

Only physical impairment

d)

No functional problems

45.

Body dysmorphic disorder is often comorbid with:

a)

OCD

b)

Social anxiety disorder

c)

Depression

d)

All of the above

46.

Which is NOT a criterion of somatoform disorders?

a)

Excessive health anxiety

b)

Excessive time/energy devoted to symptoms

c)

Disproportionate thoughts about illness

d)

Intentional symptom fabrication

47.

Typical onset of somatoform disorders:

a)

Childhood

b)

Adolescence/early adulthood

c)

Middle age

d)

Old age

48.

Which gender is more affected by somatoform disorders?

a)

Male

b)

Female

c)

Equal

d)

None

49.

The main psychological treatment for somatoform disorders is:

a)

Psychoanalysis

b)

CBT

c)

ECT

d)

Hypnosis

50.

Which medication may be helpful in somatoform disorders with comorbid anxiety/depression?

a)

SSRIs

b)

Antipsychotics only

c)

Lithium

d)

Antiepileptics

51.

Key feature of illness anxiety disorder:

a)

Severe somatic symptoms

b)

Preoccupation with serious illness despite minimal symptoms

c)

Intentional production

d)

Neurological deficits

52.

Common comorbidity with illness anxiety disorder:

a)

OCD

b)

Bipolar disorder

c)

Schizophrenia

d)

Dementia

53.

Which is TRUE about illness anxiety disorder?

a)

Symptoms are fabricated

b)

Patients are easily reassured

c)

Preoccupation persists despite reassurance

d)

No functional impairment

54.

Conversion Disorder is also called:

a)

Hysteria

b)

Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder

c)

Dissociation

d)

Psychosis

55.

Common features in Conversion include:

a)

Inconsistent exam findings

b)

Neurological deficits explained by lesions

c)

Intentional malingering

d)

Always seizure type

56.

Factitious disorder motivation:

a)

Secondary gain

b)

External reward

c)

To assume the sick role

d)

Avoid work

57.

Factitious disorder imposed on another is known as:

a)

Somatization

b)

Munchausen by proxy

c)

Hypochondriasis

d)

Simulation

58.

Body Dysmorphic Disorder is classified under DSM-5 as:

a)

Somatic symptom disorder

b)

OCD and related disorders

c)

Anxiety disorders

d)

Psychotic disorders

59.

Key feature of body dysmorphic disorder:

a)

Preoccupation with an imagined defect in appearance

b)

Fear of illness

c)

Multiple vague somatic symptoms

d)

Intentional deception

60.

Which eating disorder has the highest mortality rate among psychiatric illnesses?

a)

Bulimia nervosa

b)

Anorexia nervosa

c)

Binge eating disorder

d)

ARFID

61.

A key difference between bulimia nervosa and binge-eating disorder is:

a)

Presence of low body weight

b)

Compensatory behaviors after binges

c)

Loss of control during eating

d)

Age of onset

62.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for eating disorders?

a)

Perfectionism

b)

Low self-esteem

c)

Strong social support

d)

Trauma history

63.

Binge-eating disorder occurs at least:

a)

Once a day for 3 months

b)

Twice a week for 1 month

c)

Once a week for 3 months

d)

Every 2 weeks for 6 months

64.

Which clinical sign is most specific to self-induced vomiting?

a)

Lanugo hair

b)

Dental enamel erosion

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Osteoporosis

65.

The female-to-male ratio of anorexia nervosa is approximately:

a)

2:1

b)

5:1

c)

10:1

d)

Equal

66.

Anorexia nervosa usually starts in:

a)

Adolescents

b)

Middle age

c)

Infancy

d)

Old age

67.

Which psychiatric comorbidity is common in eating disorders?

a)

Depression

b)

Anxiety

c)

Substance use

d)

All of the above

68.

Eating disorders are best described as:

a)

Simple problems with food choice

b)

Physical illnesses without psychological basis

c)

Complex psychiatric conditions with behavioral and medical consequences

d)

Temporary dieting habits

69.

Which age group is most vulnerable to developing eating disorders?

a)

Elderly

b)

Adolescents and young adults

c)

Infants

d)

Middle-aged only

70.

Suicide is best defined as:

a)

Self-harming behavior without intent to die

b)

The act of intentionally causing one’s own death

c)

A temporary state of sadness

d)

A form of self-neglect

71.

Which of the following is a warning sign of suicide?

a)

Sudden improvement in mood after depression

b)

Excessive happiness without reason

c)

Lack of interest in TV shows

d)

Sleeping more than 8 hours

72.

According to DSM-5, suicidal behavior disorder can be diagnosed when:

a)

History of suicide attempt within the last 24 months

b)

Mild anxiety

c)

History of substance use

d)

Evidence of family conflict

73.

Which age group is most at risk for suicide?

a)

Children under 5

b)

Adolescents and young adults

c)

Adults over 80

d)

Middle-aged women

74.

Which gender is more likely to attempt suicide?

a)

Men

b)

Women

c)

Equal

d)

None

75.

Which gender is more likely to die by suicide?

a)

Men

b)

Women

c)

Equal

d)

None

76.

Hopelessness is considered:

a)

A protective factor

b)

A strong predictor of suicide

c)

A minor symptom

d)

Not relevant

77.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for suicide?

a)

Previous suicide attempt

b)

Severe depression

c)

Access to lethal means

d)

Strong family support

78.

Which neurotransmitter is most associated with suicide risk?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Serotonin

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Histamine

79.

Suicide is most strongly linked to which psychiatric disorder?

a)

Schizophrenia

b)

Depression

c)

Phobia

d)

Dementia

80.

Which of the following is a protective factor against suicide?

a)

Hopelessness

b)

Family support

c)

Substance abuse

d)

Isolation

81.

The most common method of suicide worldwide is:

a)

Poisoning

b)

Hanging

c)

Drowning

d)

Shooting

82.

Suicide is classified under:

a)

Mood disorders

b)

Behavioral disorders

c)

Self-inflicted injury

d)

Personality disorders

83.

A patient who says, “I can’t go on anymore, I want to end it,” is showing:

a)

Hallucination

b)

Direct suicidal ideation

c)

Delusion

d)

Avoidance

84.

Suicide attempts are most common in:

a)

Elderly men

b)

Young women

c)

Children under 10

d)

Middle-aged women

85.

Which of the following groups has the lowest suicide rate?

a)

Adolescents

b)

Married individuals

c)

Divorced individuals

d)

Elderly men

86.

Which of the following can act as a complication of suicide attempt?

a)

Neurological damage

b)

Improved self-esteem

c)

Better coping

d)

Decreased depression

87.

The highest suicide rates are found among:

a)

Children under 10

b)

Elderly men

c)

Young women

d)

Married couples

88.

Which of the following is NOT a complication of failed suicide attempt?

a)

Brain injury

b)

Fractures

c)

Increased self-confidence

d)

Organ damage

89.

Which of the following is a symptom of suicide?

a)

Feeling hopeless

b)

Persistent fever

c)

Hallucinations

d)

Phobias

90.

A patient gives away all personal belongings and writes a will. This indicates:

a)

Recovery

b)

Suicide planning

c)

Coping strategy

d)

Social bonding

91.

Which of the following is a biological factor in suicide?

a)

Low serotonin

b)

High dopamine

c)

High histamine

d)

Low acetylcholine

92.

Which of the following is NOT a clinical feature of suicide?

a)

Hopelessness

b)

Suicidal ideation

c)

Hyperactivity

d)

Giving away possessions

93.

Which of the following is true about suicide in adolescents?

a)

It is rare

b)

It is the second leading cause of death

c)

It is more common in males than females

d)

It is unrelated to bullying

94.

Which of the following is NOT a warning sign of suicide?

a)

Talking about death

b)

Social withdrawal

c)

Planning future goals

d)

Giving away belongings

95.

Non-suicidal self-injury (NSSI) differs from suicide because:

a)

It is done without intent to die

b)

It always leads to death

c)

It is rare in adolescents

d)

It is protective

96.

Facial expression is very powerful tool in verbal therapeutic communication.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

Therapeutic communication it is an interpersonal interaction between the nurse and the client which the nurse focuses on the client’s specific needs.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Communication it is not ongoing process of conveying information ideas, facts, opinions, thoughts and feelings.

a)

True

b)

False