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Elec group quiz

Total questions: 125

Worksheet time: 1hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In a dry sump system, what is the primary purpose of multiple scavenge pumps?

a)

To increase oil pressure in the main gallery

b)

To actively remove oil from different engine areas under high G-forces

c)

To cool oil more efficiently

d)

To reduce oil foaming

2.

What is the critical architectural limitation of splash lubrication?

a)

Requires expensive filters

b)

Fails when oil pools away from dipper on inclines

c)

Creates excessive oil pressure

d)

Uses too much oil

3.

In a forced-feed industrial system, where should the pressure relief valve be located?

a)

After the oil cooler

b)

Between pump outlet and filter inlet

c)

At the bearing feed lines

d)

In the return line to the reservoir

4.

What distinguishes a large 2-stroke diesel lube system from a petrol system?

a)

Higher oil injection pressure

b)

Oil is recirculated, not burned completely

c)

Uses wet sump architecture

d)

Has no external tank

5.

What causes VVT slow response despite normal oil pressure?

a)

Oil viscosity too low

b)

VVT feed is downstream of restrictive passages

c)

Pressure sensor calibration error

d)

Scavenge pump inefficiency

6.

A wet sump's pressure relief valve before the filter creates what critical feature?

a)

Better oil cooling

b)

A bypass path if filter clogs

c)

Higher bearing wash

d)

Reduced pump cavitation

7.

In a motorcycle dry sump, why is the external tank often omitted?

a)

Reduced cooling needs

b)

Packaging constraints in frame

c)

Lower manufacturing cost

d)

Natural slosh protection

8.

What happens if oil is too thick?

a)

Fast flow

b)

Slow flow

c)

No pressure

d)

Clean oil

9.

Which part pushes oil through the engine?

a)

Oil filter

b)

Oil pump

c)

Radiator

d)

Piston

10.

What happens during oil starvation?

a)

More power

b)

Clean oil

c)

No lubrication

d)

Better cooling

11.

What does oil pressure show?

a)

Oil color

b)

Oil force

c)

Engine size

d)

Fuel level

12.

What is the main function of the oil pump in an engine lubrication system?

a)

To cool the engine block

b)

To store engine oil

c)

To circulate oil under pressure to moving parts

d)

To filter dirt from oil

13.

Which type of oil pump is compact, efficient, and suitable for engines with limited space?

a)

Gear pump

b)

Vane pump

c)

Gerotor pump

d)

Piston pump

14.

What is the primary purpose of lubrication in an engine?

a)

Increase engine speed

b)

Reduce friction between moving parts

c)

Increase fuel efficiency

d)

Reduce exhaust noise

15.

Which is a secondary function of lubrication?

a)

Power generation

b)

Heat removal

c)

Air filtration

d)

Fuel mixing

16.

Which lubrication function helps carry dirt and soot to the filter?

a)

Sealing

b)

Cooling

c)

Cleaning and suspension

d)

Shock dampening

17.

What is the oil that provides the best wear protection even at extreme temperatures?

a)

Mineral oil

b)

Synthetic oil

c)

Semi-synthetic oil

d)

Base oil

18.

This refers to the lowest temperature at which vapors will ignite a momentary flame in the presence of an ignition source.

a)

Pour point

b)

Flash point

c)

Breaking point

d)

Turning point

19.

These are chemicals mixed into the base oil to improve, reduce, or add new features to the oil which it naturally does not have.

a)

Enhancers

b)

Suppressants

c)

Chemically engineered oil

d)

Additive

20.

This is the parameter of a fluid's resistance to flow, commonly known as thickness.

a)

Fluidity

b)

Runniness

c)

Viscosity

d)

Glueyness

21.

A hydraulic system operating at elevated temperature requires minimal viscosity change with temperature. The most suitable oil selection would be:

a)

Low ISO VG oil with low viscosity index

b)

High ISO VG oil with low viscosity index

c)

Appropriate ISO VG oil with high viscosity index

d)

Highest ISO VG oil available

22.

Which property is not directly considered when assigning an ISO VG grade to a lubricating oil?

a)

Kinematic viscosity at 40 °C

b)

Allowable viscosity tolerance

c)

Viscosity–temperature relationship

d)

Nominal viscosity value

23.

Two lubricating oils have the same ISO VG grade but different viscosity indices (VI). Under increasing operating temperature, the oil with the higher VI will:

a)

Experience a greater reduction in viscosity

b)

Maintain viscosity more effectively

c)

Become unsuitable for hydrodynamic lubrication

d)

Show identical viscosity behavior

24.

What is the primary function of engine oil in internal combustion engines?

a)

Power transmission through pressurized fluid

b)

Reducing friction and wear between moving engine parts

c)

Extreme pressure lubrication for gear teeth

d)

Providing hydraulic pressure for gear engagement

25.

Which fluid is mainly responsible for transmitting power in hydraulic systems such as construction equipment and industrial presses?

a)

Engine Oil

b)

Gear Oil

c)

Transmission Fluid

d)

Hydraulic Fluid

26.

What type of lubricant contains extreme pressure (EP) additives to protect gears under heavy load?

a)

Engine Oil

b)

Transmission Fluid

c)

Hydraulic Fluid

d)

Gear Oil

27.

What does the acronym SAE mean?

a)

Simplified Application of Engineering

b)

Society of Automotive Engineers

c)

Standardized Automation for Engineering

d)

Society of Administrative Engineers

28.

What is the naming scheme for multi-grade SAE classification?

a)

[High-temperature Viscosity][W]-[Low Temperature Viscosity]

b)

[Low-Temperature Viscosity]

c)

[Low-Temperature Viscosity] [W]-[High Temperature Viscosity]

d)

[High Temperature Viscosity]

29.

Which factor is MOST important when choosing the right lubricant for a machine?

a)

Color of the lubricant

b)

Load, speed, and operating temperature

c)

Brand popularity

d)

Storage container type

30.

What is the main purpose of applying lubricant in the right place?

a)

To make the machine look clean

b)

To reduce oil consumption

c)

To ensure lubricant reaches the contact surfaces where friction occurs

d)

To cool the surrounding air

31.

Which of the following best describes the overall benefit of following all 4 R's of lubrication?

a)

Increased machine noise

b)

Higher energy losses

c)

Smooth operation and longer machine life

d)

Frequent machine breakdown

32.

Which situation shows incorrect application of the 4 R's?

a)

Using gear oil in a gearbox

b)

Applying grease inside a bearing housing

c)

Overfilling a bearing with grease beyond recommended amount

d)

Lubricating a machine based on maintenance schedule

33.

Which type of lubricating oil is obtained directly from refined crude petroleum?

a)

Synthetic oil

b)

Semi-synthetic oil

c)

Mineral oil

d)

Bio-lubricant

34.

Which lubricating oil is best suited for extreme temperature conditions?

a)

Mineral oil

b)

Semi-synthetic oil

c)

Vegetable oil

d)

Synthetic oil

35.

Semi-synthetic oil is a blend of:

a)

Two synthetic oils

b)

Mineral oil and vegetable oil

c)

Mineral oil and synthetic oil

d)

Crude oil and additives

36.

Which lubricating oil usually requires more frequent oil changes?

a)

Synthetic oil

b)

Semi-synthetic oil

c)

Mineral oil

d)

Bio-synthetic oil

37.

Which type of oil offers a balance between cost and performance?

a)

Mineral oil

b)

Synthetic oil

c)

Semi-synthetic oil

d)

Used oil

38.

In an internal combustion engine operating under high load and low speed conditions, failure of the lubrication system most directly leads to which tribological regime, resulting in accelerated wear?

a)

Hydrodynamic lubrication due to increased oil film thickness

b)

Elastohydrodynamic lubrication caused by elastic deformation

c)

Boundary lubrication due to insufficient oil film separation

d)

Mixed lubrication with complete surface separation

39.

Which statement best explains how engine lubrication contributes to temperature control beyond the cooling system?

a)

Lubricating oil increases combustion efficiency, reducing heat generation

b)

Lubricating oil absorbs frictional heat and transfers it to cooler engine regions

c)

Lubricating oil prevents heat transfer between engine components

d)

Lubricating oil converts thermal energy into mechanical work

40.

Which lubrication function most directly contributes to improved volumetric efficiency in an internal combustion engine?

a)

Contaminant suspension and filtration

b)

Reduction of mechanical vibration

c)

Heat dissipation from frictional interfaces

d)

Sealing between piston rings and cylinder walls

41.

What is tribology primarily concerned with?

a)

Chemical composition of metals

b)

Science of interacting surfaces in relative motion

c)

Design of machine elements

d)

Study of heat transfer in moving parts

42.

Which of the following is not one of the three core components of tribology?

a)

Friction

b)

Wear

c)

Lubrication

d)

Corrosion

43.

Which discipline of tribology focuses on the mathematical behavior of liquid lubricants between sliding surfaces?

a)

Solid mechanics

b)

Fluid mechanics

c)

Material science

d)

Chemistry

44.

What is the primary function of lubrication in tribological systems?

a)

Increase contact area

b)

Reduce friction and wear

c)

Increase temperature

d)

Prevent motion entirely

45.

Which branch of tribology primarily studies chemical reactions between lubricants and solid surfaces?

a)

Solid mechanics

b)

Material science

c)

Chemistry

d)

Fluid mechanics

46.

In which direction does the force of friction always act?

a)

In the same direction as the applied force

b)

Perpendicular to the direction of motion

c)

Opposite to the direction of motion or applied force

d)

Downward toward the center of the Earth

47.

Which type of friction must be overcome to get a stationary object to start moving?

a)

Kinetic Friction

b)

Static Friction

c)

Rolling Friction

d)

Fluid Friction

48.

According to Amonton’s First Law, frictional force is directly proportional to what?

a)

The apparent area of contact

b)

The velocity of the sliding object

c)

The normal load (Normal Force)

d)

The temperature of the surfaces

49.

If the apparent area of contact between two sliding surfaces is doubled, how does the frictional force change (according to the Second Law)?

a)

It doubles

b)

It is cut in half

c)

It remains independent of the area

d)

It fluctuates based on velocity

50.

What is another name for the resistance experienced by an object moving through a liquid or gas?

a)

Sliding Friction

b)

Viscous Friction

c)

Rolling Friction

d)

Static Friction

51.

What is wear in mechanical engineering?

a)

Sudden breaking of materials

b)

Gradual loss or damage of material due to contact

c)

Increase in material strength

d)

Expansion of metal due to heat

52.

Why do mechanical engineers try to minimize wear?

a)

To increase machine size

b)

To improve appearance

c)

To extend service life of machine components

d)

To increase vibration

53.

Which type of wear is caused by hard particles or asperities scratching a surface?

a)

Adhesive wear

b)

Abrasive wear

c)

Corrosive wear

d)

Fretting wear

54.

Which wear occurs due to repeated cyclic loading that leads to crack formation?

a)

Erosive wear

b)

Abrasive wear

c)

Surface fatigue wear

d)

Adhesive wear

55.

What are the two classifications of tribology analysis?

a)

Friction and Lubrication Analysis

b)

Friction and Wear Analysis

c)

Wear and Lubrication Analysis

d)

Wear and Surface Analysis

56.

An instrument that measures tribological quantities, such as coefficient of friction, friction force, and wear volume, between two surfaces in contact.

a)

Tachometer

b)

Friction meter

c)

Tribometer

d)

Wear tester

57.

Method used to test lubrication properties of lubricants (oils and greases) under extreme pressure conditions.

a)

Roller-on-roller

b)

Pin-on-disk

c)

Four-ball test

d)

Thrust washer test

58.

Surface roughness has three main parts: roughness, waviness, and ______.

a)

Lay

b)

Smoothness

c)

Texture

d)

None of the above

59.

What is the main goal of selecting appropriate materials in surface engineering?

a)

To reduce manufacturing cost only

b)

To improve appearance without affecting performance

c)

To minimize wear and energy loss by matching material properties to operating conditions

d)

To replace the need for lubrication

60.

Which factor is considered part of the operating environment in tribological testing?

a)

Tensile strength

b)

Fatigue resistance

c)

Temperature and humidity

d)

Surface hardness

61.

Why are self-lubricating materials important in friction and wear considerations?

a)

They increase surface roughness

b)

They reduce the need for surface treatments

c)

They help achieve low friction and high wear resistance

d)

They improve color and gloss

62.

What is the primary purpose of surface treatment?

a)

To change the bulk properties of a material

b)

To modify only the outer layer to enhance specific surface properties

c)

To eliminate mechanical loads

d)

To replace hard coatings

63.

Nanotribology mainly focuses on studying friction and wear at what scale?

a)

Millimeter scale

b)

Micrometer scale

c)

Atomic and nanometer scale

d)

Macroscopic scale

64.

Which combination best explains the role of tribology in biomedical joint implants?

a)

High friction + high wear resistance

b)

Low friction + controlled wear behavior

c)

High lubrication + soft materials

d)

Zero wear + rigid materials

65.

Sustainable tribology primarily differs from conventional tribology by focusing on:

a)

Increasing lubricant viscosity

b)

Maximizing mechanical efficiency only

c)

Reducing environmental and energy impact

d)

Eliminating lubrication systems entirely

66.

Which type of beam is fixed at one end and free at the other, commonly used in balconies and bridges?

a)

Simply supported beam

b)

Overhanging beam

c)

Cantilever beam

d)

Continuous beam

67.

What is the purpose of the Factor of Safety (FoS) in engineering design?

a)

To ensure that a product, system, or structure is safe

b)

To reduce the cost of materials used

c)

To make structures lighter and smaller

d)

To increase the speed of construction

68.

What term refers to the displacement or movement of a beam when it bends or sags due to applied loads?

a)

Bending

b)

Deflection

c)

Strain

d)

Stress

69.

What do you call the deformation that occurs when a beam curves due to forces acting perpendicular to its length?

a)

Torsion

b)

Shear

c)

Compression

d)

Bending

70.

Are the constants describing the mechanical response of a material when it is elastic.

a)

Elastic Constant

b)

Bulk Modulus

c)

Young’s Modulus

d)

Hooke’s Law

71.

It is a principle of physics that states that the force needed to extend or compress a spring by some distance is proportional to that distance.

a)

Poisson’s Ratio

b)

Bulk Modulus

c)

Shear Modulus

d)

Hooke’s Law

72.

It is the measure of the rigidity of the body, given by the ratio of shear stress to shear strain.

a)

Hooke’s Law

b)

Bulk Modulus

c)

Shear Modulus

d)

Elastic Constant

73.

It is a type of elastic constant that describes the relationship between stress (force per unit area) and strain (proportional deformation in an object).

a)

Rigidity

b)

Young’s Modulus

c)

Bulk Modulus

d)

Stiffness

74.

A structural member in a machine is subjected to a load that causes internal layers of the material to slide relative to each other without a significant change in length. Which loading condition best describes this behavior?

a)

Tension

b)

Compression

c)

Shear

d)

Torsion

75.

Which loading condition is best characterized as a simultaneous presence of tensile and compressive stresses within the same structural element?

a)

Compression

b)

Torsion

c)

Shear

d)

Bending

76.

A rotating shaft used in an electric motor primarily experiences which type of load, and What is the fundamental cause of this load?

a)

Shear due to transverse forces

b)

Compression due to axial loading

c)

Torsion due to applied torque

d)

Bending due to gravitational forces

77.

Why is the study of strength and deformation of solids critical in mechanical engineering design?

a)

It focuses only on material aesthetics

b)

It eliminates the need for safety factors

c)

It helps prevent structural failure while improving efficiency and cost-effectiveness

d)

It applies only to civil engineering structures

78.

What is stress in mechanics of materials?

a)

Change in length of a material

b)

Resistance of a material to heat

c)

Force per unit area acting on a material

d)

Ability of a material to return to its original shape

79.

Which type of stress acts perpendicular to the surface of a material?

a)

Shear stress

b)

Normal stress

c)

Thermal stress

d)

Bending stress

80.

Strain is best defined as:

a)

Force applied to a material

b)

Stress multiplied by area

c)

Change in length divided by original length

d)

Internal resistance per unit area

81.

Which statement correctly describes elastic deformation?

a)

The material breaks after deformation

b)

The material permanently changes shape

c)

The material returns to its original shape after load removal

d)

The material deforms without stress

82.

Which factor will increase the axial deformation of a bar subjected to a tensile load?

a)

Higher modulus of elasticity

b)

Shorter length

c)

Larger cross-sectional area

d)

Greater applied axial force

83.

For two bars made of the same material and subjected to the same axial load, which bar will experience greater deformation?

a)

The shorter bar

b)

The bar with larger cross-sectional area

c)

The longer bar

d)

Both will deform equally

84.

In a solid circular shaft under pure torsion, the maximum shear stress occurs at:

a)

The center of the shaft

b)

Half the radius

c)

The outer surface

d)

Uniformly throughout the cross section

85.

For the same material, length, and applied torque, which shaft will twist more?

a)

Solid shaft

b)

Hollow shaft with large outer diameter

c)

Hollow shaft with small outer diameter

d)

Shaft with larger polar moment of inertia

86.

What is the main purpose of surface hardening, and which parts commonly use it?

a)

To soften the surface; used in jewelry

b)

To increase surface hardness and wear resistance; used in gears and shafts

c)

To change metal color; used in decorative items

d)

To make the whole metal brittle; used in structural beams

87.

What is the difference between coatings and surface layers?

a)

Coatings are added materials; surface layers modify the original material

b)

Coatings are thicker; surface layers are always thin

c)

Coatings protect against heat; surface layers protect against chemicals

d)

There is no difference

88.

Which of the following is an example of a protective coating?

a)

Titanium nitride layer

b)

Paint, epoxy, or zinc coating

c)

Non-stick cookware coating

d)

Electroplated gold

89.

What is the purpose of surface texturing?

a)

To make the metal visually shiny

b)

To reduce friction, improve lubrication, and enhance wear resistance

c)

To increase the metal’s core hardness

d)

To make thin-film coatings unnecessary

90.

A surface exhibits a predominant direction in its texture due to a specific manufacturing process. Which geometric term best defines these characteristics?

a)

Waviness

b)

Surface roughness

c)

Lay

d)

Asperity

91.

During elastic deformation of a surface asperity, what happens at the atomic level when the load is removed?

a)

Atomic planes have slid past one another, creating a permanent offset

b)

The atoms return to their original equilibrium positions due to interatomic forces

c)

The asperity remains flattened to minimize surface energy

d)

The surface energy of the asperity increases to satisfy broken bonds

92.

If a material has very high surface energy, what is most likely observed chemical behavior when it is exposed to air?

a)

It will remain chemically inert to preserve its energy state

b)

It will oxidize rapidly to satisfy the dangling surface bonds

c)

It will undergo elastic deformation spontaneously

d)

Its waviness will decrease to zero

93.

Waviness differs from surface roughness primarily in terms of:

a)

The direction of the pattern

b)

The presence of atomic sliding

c)

The spacing of surface irregularities

d)

The material’s reactivity to oxygen

94.

Which of the following best describes the main difference between Primary Shaping Processes and Machining Processes?

a)

Primary shaping removes material while machining adds material

b)

Primary shaping gives basic shape with little or no material removal, while machining removes excess material for precision

c)

Primary shaping is only for metals, while machining is for all materials

d)

Primary shaping improves surface finish, while machining does not

95.

Which machining process is most suitable for producing cylindrical surfaces, and why?

a)

Milling, because it uses a rotating multi-point cutter

b)

Shaping, because the tool moves linearly

c)

Turning, because the workpiece rotates while the cutting tool removes material

d)

Grinding, because it improves surface finish

96.

Which of the following is a surface finishing process that improves surface quality using electrical current and an electrolyte?

a)

Pickling

b)

Polishing

c)

Grinding

d)

Electropolishing

97.

Powder coating differs from painting mainly because it:

a)

Uses liquid chemicals to dissolve surface oxides

b)

Removes material to improve surface smoothness

c)

Applies a dry powder that is heated to form a durable protective layer

d)

Uses electrical current to remove metal ions

98.

Two machined metal surfaces are pressed together under increasing normal load. Which statement BEST explains why the real area of contact increases with load?

a)

The apparent area of contact increases due to surface expansion

b)

Surface waviness becomes more dominant than roughness

c)

Asperities undergo elastic and plastic deformation

d)

The surface lay changes direction

99.

Which surface characteristic is MOST affected by machine tool vibration during machining?

a)

Surface roughness

b)

Surface waviness

c)

Surface lay

d)

Form accuracy

100.

A surface has a low average roughness (Ra) value but shows poor sealing performance. Which surface feature is MOST likely responsible?

a)

Surface roughness

b)

Surface lay orientation

c)

Surface waviness

d)

Real area of contact

101.

In a sliding contact where the direction of motion is perpendicular to the surface lay, which effect is MOST likely to occur?

a)

Reduced friction due to smoother contact

b)

No change in wear behavior

c)

Increased friction and wear

d)

Increased apparent area of contact

102.

Which advantage of well-engineered surfaces helps reduce noise, vibration, and energy loss in machines?

a)

Customization without changing bulk material

b)

Corrosion resistance

c)

Enhanced performance and efficiency

d)

Efficient load transmission

103.

What is the primary purpose of maintaining proper lubrication on solid surfaces?

a)

To increase surface roughness

b)

To reduce friction and heat generation

c)

To improve surface color

d)

To prevent dimensional changes

104.

Which mechanical component relies on surface contact to distribute load and prevent slipping?

a)

Cutting tools

b)

Bolted joints and frames

c)

Piston–cylinder assemblies

d)

Gears

105.

Why must dies and molds have smooth and durable surfaces?

a)

To reduce material density

b)

To improve thermal conductivity

c)

To ensure accuracy and long service life

d)

To increase surface hardness only

106.

Which term refers to the attraction between similar molecules within a solid?

a)

Adhesion

b)

Adsorption

c)

Cohesion

d)

Diffusion

107.

Cohesion primarily affects which property of a material?

a)

Surface color

b)

Mechanical strength

c)

Electrical voltage

d)

Chemical composition

108.

Weak cohesive forces in solids may lead to:

a)

Improved ductility

b)

Increased flexibility

c)

Cracking and structural failure

d)

Better surface finish

109.

Which type of bonding is responsible for cohesion in metals?

a)

Covalent bonding

b)

Ionic bonding

c)

Metallic bonding

d)

Intermolecular forces

110.

The “sea of electrons” model is associated with:

a)

Ionic bonding

b)

Covalent bonding

c)

Metallic bonding

d)

Hydrogen bonding

111.

Materials with dominant covalent bonding are generally:

a)

Soft and ductile

b)

Hard and brittle

c)

Highly elastic

d)

Easily deformable

112.

Ionic bonding in solids is characterized by:

a)

Electron sharing

b)

Free-moving electrons

c)

Attraction between opposite ions

d)

Weak van der Waals forces

113.

Which material property is typical of ionically bonded solids?

a)

High ductility

b)

Low melting point

c)

Brittle fracture behavior

d)

High electrical conductivity

114.

Intermolecular (secondary) forces are best described as:

a)

Strong atomic bonds

b)

Weak molecular attractions

c)

Metallic electron sharing

d)

Ionic charge transfer

115.

Rubber and polymers mainly rely on which type of cohesive force?

a)

Metallic bonding

b)

Ionic bonding

c)

Covalent bonding

d)

Intermolecular forces

116.

Adhesion is defined as the attraction between:

a)

Similar molecules only

b)

Atoms within a solid

c)

Dissimilar materials or surfaces

d)

Gas molecules only

117.

Which property improves adhesion by allowing better spreading of an adhesive?

a)

Cohesive strength

b)

Wettability

c)

Elastic modulus

d)

Density

118.

Which adhesion mechanism involves surface roughness and pores?

a)

Chemical bonding

b)

Diffusion theory

c)

Mechanical interlocking

d)

Electrostatic attraction

119.

Adhesion due to van der Waals and hydrogen bonding is classified as:

a)

Mechanical interlocking

b)

Physical attraction

c)

Chemical bonding

d)

Diffusion

120.

Polymer chain inter-diffusion across an interface explains adhesion by:

a)

Wetting theory

b)

Diffusion theory

c)

Electrostatic attraction

d)

Mechanical interlocking

121.

Adsorption is best described as:

a)

Absorption into the bulk of a material

b)

Internal bonding within solids

c)

Accumulation of molecules on a surface

d)

Chemical reaction in liquids

122.

In adsorption, the material being adsorbed is called the:

a)

Adsorbent

b)

Adsorber

c)

Adsorbate

d)

Catalyst

123.

Which type of adsorption involves weak van der Waals forces?

a)

Chemisorption

b)

Ionic adsorption

c)

Physisorption

d)

Electrostatic adsorption

124.

Adsorption generally decreases with increasing:

a)

Surface area

b)

Pressure

c)

Temperature

d)

Nature of gas

125.

Which adsorption isotherm assumes monolayer adsorption on a surface?

a)

Freundlich isotherm

b)

Langmuir isotherm

c)

BET isotherm

d)

Henry’s law