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Worksheets

Anatomy

Total questions: 166

Worksheet time: 1hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which structure contributes MOST to the carrying angle of the elbow?

a)

Capitulum

b)

Radial head

c)

Trochlea

d)

Olecranon

2.

Which movement is permitted at the proximal radioulnar joint?

a)

Flexion

b)

Extension

c)

Supination

d)

Abduction

3.

The elbow joint capsule attaches to the radius at the :

a)

Head

b)

Neck

c)

Tuberosity

d)

Shaft

4.

Injury causing nursemaid’s elbow involves damage to which ligament ?

a)

Ulnar collateral

b)

Radial collateral

c)

Annular ligament

d)

Interosseous

5.

The most powerful flexor of the elbow is:

a)

Biceps brachii

b)

Brachioradialis

c)

Brachialis

d)

Pronator teres

6.

Which structure passes through the diaphragm at T8?

a)

Aorta

b)

Esophagus

c)

Inferior vena cans

d)

Thoracic duct

7.

Which diaphragmatic opening is least affected during respiration?

a)

Caval opening

b)

Esophageal hiatus

c)

Aortic hiatus

d)

Costal opening

8.

Quadratus lumborum assists respiration by?

a)

Elevating ribs

b)

Fixing the 12th rib

c)

Pulling down the sternum

d)

Expanding thoracic cage

9.

Nerve supply of quadratus lumborum is :

a)

Intercostal nerves

b)

Phrenic nerve

c)

Subcostal nerve and lumbar plexus

d)

Femoral nerve

10.

Correct order of flat abdominal muscles ( superficial - deep) :

a)

External oblique - transverse abdominus - internal obliques

b)

Internal obliques - external obliques - transverse abdominus

c)

External obliques - internal obliques - transverse abdominus

d)

Transverse abdominus - internal obliques - external obliques

11.

Which muscle has horizontal fibers?

a)

External oblique

b)

Internal oblique

c)

Transverse abdominus

d)

Rectus abdominus

12.

Below the arcuate line, the posterior rectus sheath is formed by :

a)

Transversalis fascia

b)

Transverse abdominus

c)

Internal oblique

d)

External oblique

13.

Which bone develops by BOTH intramembranous and endochondral ossification?

a)

Femur

b)

Scapula

c)

Sternum

d)

Clavicle

14.

Which zone of epiphyseal plate shows chondrocyte division?

a)

Reserve

b)

Proliferation

c)

Hypertrophy

d)

Ossification

15.

Increase in bone diameter occurs due to:

a)

Appositional growth

b)

Endochondral ossification

c)

Epiphyseal plate activity

d)

Remodeling only

16.

Foramen ovale transmits:

a)

CN V2

b)

CN V3

c)

CN VII

d)

Middle meningeal artery

17.

Middle meningeal artery passes through:

a)

Foramen rotundum

b)

Foramen lacerum

c)

Foramen spinosum

d)

Jugular Foramen

18.

Which cranial fossa contains the cribiform plate?

a)

Middle

b)

Posterior

c)

Anterior

d)

Temporal

19.

Articular surfaces of the TMJ are covered by:

a)

Hyaline cartilage

b)

Elastic cartilage

c)

Fibrocartilage

d)

Dense connective tissue

20.

Which muscle initiates depression (opening) of the mandible?

a)

Masseter

b)

Temporalis

c)

Medial pterygoid

d)

Lateral pterygoid

21.

Which nerve supplies the TMJ?

a)

Facial nerve

b)

Auriculotemporal nerve

c)

Maxillary nerve

d)

Glossopharyngeal nerve

22.

All muscles of facial expression are supplied by CN VII EXCEPT:

a)

Orbicularis oculi

b)

Buccinator

c)

Platysma

d)

Levator palpebrae superioris

23.

Which nerve supplies the TMJ?

a)

Facial nerve

b)

Auriculotemporal nerve

c)

Maxillary nerve

d)

Glossopharyngeal nerve

24.

Muscle responsible for smiling:

a)

Buccinator

b)

Risorius

c)

Zygomaticus major

d)

Depressor anguli oris

25.

Which rib is a floating rib?

a)

Rib 7

b)

Rib 8

c)

Rib 10

d)

Rib 12

26.

Manubriosternal joint corresponds to vertebral level:

a)

T2-T3

b)

T3-T4

c)

T4-T5

d)

T5-T6

27.

Which is a synchondrosis?

a)

Costovertebral joint

b)

Costotransverse joint

c)

First sternocostal joint

d)

Interchondral joint

28.

Most commonly fractured ribs are :

a)

5-9

b)

1-3

c)

3-5

d)

10-12

29.

Bone remodelling involves which cells?

a)

Osteoblasts only

b)

Osteoclasts only

c)

Osteocytes only

d)

Osteoblasts and osteoclasts

30.

Which joint allows NO movement of the head?

a)

Atlanto-occipital

b)

Atlanto-axial

c)

Zygapophyseal

d)

Costovertebral

31.

Which muscle compresses the cheek against the teeth?

a)

Masseter

b)

Buccinator

c)

Risorius

d)

Zygomaticus

32.

Which structure prevents posterior dislocation of the radial head?

a)

Radial collateral ligament

b)

Annular ligament

c)

Ulnar collateral ligament

d)

Interosseous membrane

33.

Which muscle produces the strongest elbow flexion when the forearm is mid-prone?

a)

Biceps brachii

b)

Brachialis

c)

Pronator teres

d)

Bachioradialis

34.

During full elbow extension, which structure fits into the olecranon fossa?

a)

Coronoid process

b)

Radial head

c)

Olecranon fossa

d)

Trochlear notch

35.

Which nerve is most at risk in fractures of the medial epicondye?

a)

Median nerve

b)

Radial nerve

c)

Musculocutaneous nerve

d)

Ulnar nerve

36.

Which structure passes through the esophageal hiatus?

a)

Thoracic duct

b)

Vagus nerves

c)

Inferior vena cava

d)

Azygos vein

37.

Which muscle increases intra-abdominal pressure during forced expiration?

a)

Quadratus lumborum

b)

Diaphragm

c)

Rectus abdominus

d)

Psoas major

38.

Which muscle has fibers running inferedially ( “hands-in-pockets”)?

a)

Internal oblique

b)

Transverse abdominus

c)

Rectus abdominus

d)

External oblique

39.

Which structure forms the posterior rectus sheath ABOVE the arcuate line?

a)

Transversalis fascia

b)

External oblique aponeurosis

c)

Internal oblique (posterior lamina)

d)

Rectus abdominus

40.

Which cell type is responsible for bone resorption?

a)

Osteoblast

b)

Osteocyte

c)

Chondrocyte

d)

Osteoclast

41.

Which zone of the epiphyseal plate shows chondrocyte enlargement?

a)

Proliferation

b)

Hypertrophy

c)

Calcification

d)

Ossification

42.

Flat bones of the skull develop primarily by:

a)

Endochondral ossification

b)

Appositional growth

c)

Intramembranous ossification

d)

Remodeling

43.

Increase in thickness of bone occurs due to:

a)

Epiphyseal plate activity

b)

Endochondral ossification

c)

Remodeling only

d)

Appositional growth

44.

Which structure passes through the jugular Foramen?

a)

CN VII

b)

CN IX

c)

CN XII

d)

CN V3

45.

The optic nerve passes through the:

a)

Superior orbital fissure

b)

Inferior orbital fissure

c)

Optic canal

d)

Foramen rotundum

46.

Foramen spinosum transmits the :

a)

Maxillary nerve

b)

Mandibular nerve

c)

Facial nerve

d)

Middle meningeal artery

47.

Which TMJ compartment is responsible for rotational movement?

a)

Upper

b)

Lower

c)

Posterior

d)

Lateral

48.

Which muscle retracts the mandible?

a)

Masseter

b)

Medial pterygoid

c)

Temporalis

d)

Lateral pterygoid

49.

Which ligament limits the excessive protrusion of the mandible?

a)

Lateral ligament

b)

Stylomandibular ligament

c)

Sphenomandibular ligament

d)

Capsular ligament

50.

Which muscle elevates the hyoid bone during swallowing?

a)

Stylohyoid

b)

Sternohyoid

c)

Omohyoid

d)

Thyrohyoid

51.

Sternocleidomastoid muscle is innervated by:

a)

Facial nerve

b)

Hypoglossal nerve

c)

Accessory nerve

d)

Phrenic nerve

52.

Which rib articulates ONLY with its corresponding vertebra?

a)

Rib 1

b)

Rib 5

c)

Rib 10

d)

Rib 12

53.

Which joint is a secondary cartilaginous joint?

a)

Xiphisternal

b)

Costovertebral

c)

Manubriosternal

d)

Sternocostal (rib 2)

54.

which structure lies at the level of the sternal angle?

a)

Bifurcation of trachea

b)

Origin of pulmonary trunk

c)

Esophageal hiatus

d)

Aortic arch end

55.

Which joint allows elevation and depression of ribs?

a)

Sternocostal

b)

Costovertebral

c)

Zygapophyseal

d)

Atlanto-axial

56.

All of the following are TRUE about the the elbow Joint except:

a)

It has a single joint cavity

b)

It allows pronation and supination

c)

The capitulum articulates with the ulna

d)

It’s a synovial joint

57.

All of the following muscles flex the elbow EXCEPT:

a)

Brachialis

b)

Biceps brachii

c)

Brachioradialis

d)

Triceps brachii

58.

The ulnar nerve at the elbow is most vulnerable at the:

a)

Cubital fossa

b)

Olecranon process

c)

Medial epicondyle

d)

Lateral epicondyle

59.

All of the following stabilise the elbow joint EXCEPT:

a)

Annular ligament

b)

Radial collateral ligament

c)

Ulnar collateral luganent

d)

Interosseous membrane

60.

All of the following pass through the diaphragm EXCEPT:

a)

Inferior vena cava

b)

Esophagus

c)

Thoracic duct

d)

Pulmonary trunk

61.

ALL are true regarding Quadratus lumborum EXCEPT:

a)

It fixes the 12th rib

b)

It assists expiration

c)

It flexes the hip

d)

It’s part of the posterior abdominal wall

62.

All are functions of the abdominal muscles EXCEPT:

a)

Forced expiration

b)

Trunk rotation

c)

Maintenance of posture

d)

Extension of the trunk

63.

The posterior rectus sheath is ABSENT:

a)

Above the umbilicus

b)

Above the arcuate line

c)

Below the arcuate line

d)

At the costal margin

64.

All are TRUE about compact bone EXCEPT:

a)

It contains osteons

b)

It resists bending forces

c)

It houses red bone marrow

d)

It forms the outer cortex

65.

All are zones of the epiphyseal plate EXCEPT:

a)

Reserve

b)

Proliferation

c)

Hypertrophy

d)

Mineralisation

66.

All of the following influences bone growth EXCEPT:

a)

Growth hormone

b)

Estrogen

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Parathyroid hormone

67.

All of the following pass through the jugular Foramen EXCEPT:

a)

Glossopharyngeal nerve

b)

Vagus nerve

c)

Spinal accessory nerve

d)

Facial nerve

68.

All are features of the middle cranial fossa EXCEPT:

a)

Sella turcica

b)

Foramen ovale

c)

Cribiform plate

d)

Foramen spinosum

69.

All of the following bones contribute to the anterior cranial fossa EXCEPT:

a)

Frontal

b)

Ethmoid

c)

Shpenoid

d)

Temporal

70.

All are true about the temporomandibular joint EXCEPT:

a)

It’s a synovial joint

b)

It contains an articular disc

c)

Is covered by fibrocartilage

d)

It’s supplied by the facial nerve

71.

All of the following muscles elevate the mandible EXCEPT:

a)

Lateral pterygoid

b)

Masseter

c)

Temporalis

d)

Medial pterygoid

72.

All muscles of facial expression are supplied by CN VII EXCEPT:

a)

Orbicularis oris

b)

Levator palpabrae superioris

c)

Buccinator

d)

Platysma

73.

All of the following elevate the hyoid bone EXCEPT:

a)

Mylohyoid

b)

Digastric

c)

Stylohyoid

d)

Sternohyoid

74.

All are true about true ribs EXCEPT:

a)

They attach directly to the sternum

b)

They have no costal cartilage

c)

They are ribs 1-7

d)

They articulate with thoracic vertabrae

75.

All are features of thoracic vertebrae EXCEPT:

a)

Costal facets on body

b)

Transverse costal facets

c)

Bifid spinous processes

d)

Heart-shaped body

76.

Which bone bears the majority of body weight in the leg?

a)

Fibula

b)

Tibia

c)

Talus

d)

Calcaneus

77.

Which feature is present on the distal tibia?

a)

Lateral malleolus

b)

Tibial tuberosity

c)

Medial malleolus

d)

Intercondylar eminence

78.

All of the following are TRUE about the fibula EXCEPT:

a)

It’s non-weight bearing

b)

It forms part of the ankle joint

c)

It has a lateral malleolus

d)

It bears body weight during standing

79.

The distal tibiofibular joint is classified as a:

a)

Synovial hinge joint

b)

Synovial plane joint

c)

Syndesmosis

d)

Primary cartilaginous joint

80.

The ankle joint is formed by articulation between the talus and:

a)

Tibia only

b)

Fibula only

c)

Tibia and fibula

d)

Calcaneus

81.

The ankle joint primarily allows :

a)

Inversion and eversion

b)

Pronation and supination

c)

Flexion and extension

d)

Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion

82.

Which ligament provides medial stability to the ankle joint?

a)

Calcaneofibular ligament

b)

Anterior talofibular ligament

c)

Posterior talofibular ligament

d)

Deltoid ligament

83.

A “high ankle sprain” involves injury to the :

a)

Deltoid ligament

b)

Distal tibiofibular syndesmosis

c)

Calcaneofibular ligament

d)

Talocalcaneal ligament

84.

Which tarsal bone transmits body weight from the tibia to the foot?

a)

Calcaneus

b)

Navicular

c)

Talus

d)

Cuboid

85.

The primary shock-absorbing arch of the foot is the:

a)

Medial longitudinal arch

b)

Transverse arch

c)

Lateral longitudinal arch

d)

Metatarsal arch

86.

All of the following contribute to the medial longitudinal arch EXCEPT:

a)

Talus

b)

Calcaneus

c)

Navicular

d)

Cuboid

87.

Quadratus plantae functions to:

a)

Flex the toes

b)

Straighten the pull of flexor digitorum longus

c)

Extend the toes

d)

Abduct the toes

88.

Lumbricals of the foot:

a)

Extend the MTP joints and flex IP joints

b)

Flex MTP joints and extend IP joints

c)

Flex both MTP and IP joints

d)

Extend both MTP and IP joints

89.

Dorsal interossei of the foot perform which action?

a)

Adduction of the toes

b)

Abduction of toes

c)

Flexion of toes

d)

Extension of toes

90.

The nerve supply of most intrinsic foot muscles is the:

a)

Deep peroneal nerve

b)

Superficial peroneal nerve

c)

Medial plantar nerve

d)

Lateral plantar nerve

91.

All are TRUE about the ankle joint EXCEPT:

a)

It’s a synovial joint

b)

It allows dorsiflexion and plantarflexion

c)

It allows inversion and eversion

d)

It involves the talus

92.

All of the following support the medial longitudinal arc EXCEPT:

a)

Spring alignment

b)

Plantar aponeurosis

c)

Tibialis posterior

d)

Peroneus longus

93.

The radial head articulates with all EXCEPT:

a)

Capitulum of humerus

b)

Radial notch of ulna

c)

Annular ligament

d)

Trochlea of humerus

94.

Which muscle is the primary Pronator of the forearm?

a)

Pronator teres

b)

Supinator

c)

Pronator quadratus

d)

Biceps brachii

95.

The only bony connection between the upper limb and axial skeleton is the:

a)

Acromioclavicular joint

b)

Glenohumeral joint

c)

Sternoclavicular joint

d)

Scapulothoracic joint

96.

Which structure deepens the glenoid cavity?

a)

Glenoid labrum

b)

Joint capsule

c)

Rotator cuff

d)

Coracoacromial ligament

97.

Which muscle increases intra-abdominal pressure WITHOUT producing trunk movement?

a)

Rectus abdominis

b)

External oblique

c)

Internal oblique

d)

Transverse abdominus

98.

All of the following pass through the espphageal hiatus EXCEPT:

a)

Esophagus

b)

Vagus nerve

c)

Left gastric vessels

d)

Inferior vena cava

99.

Which bone is classified as an irregular bone?

a)

Sternum

b)

Vertebra

c)

Femur

d)

Scapula

100.

Which zone of the epiphyseal plate is responsible for lengthening of bone?

a)

Reserve zone

b)

Hypertrophy zone

c)

Proliferation zone

d)

Calcification zone

101.

Which cranial nerve passes through the superior orbital fissure?

a)

Optic nerve

b)

Oculomotor nerve

c)

Trigeminal nerve (V2)

d)

Facial nerve

102.

The pituitary gland lies in the:

a)

Cribiform plate

b)

Foramen magnum

c)

Sella turcica

d)

Jugular foramen

103.

Which muscle inserts into the articular disc of the TMJ?

a)

Masseter

b)

Temporalis

c)

Medial pterygoid

d)

Lateral pterygoid

104.

All muscles of mastication are supplied by:

a)

Facial nerve

b)

Maxillary nerve

c)

Mandibular nerve

d)

Hypoglossal nerve

105.

Which rib does NOT articulate with the transverse process of a vertebra?

a)

1

b)

7

c)

10

d)

12

106.

The joint between ribs 6-10 costal cartilages is a:

a)

Synchondrosis

b)

Synovial plate joint

c)

Secondary cartilaginous joint

d)

Fibrous joint

107.

Which bone transmits body weight from the tibia to the foot?

a)

Calcaneus

b)

Cuboid

c)

Talus

d)

Navicular

108.

The distal tibiofibular joint is best classified as a:

a)

Synovial hinge joint

b)

Fibrous syndesmosis

c)

Secondary cartilaginous joint

d)

Synovial plane joint

109.

Which ligament is MOST commonly injured in ankle sprains?

a)

Deltoid ligament

b)

Calcaneofibular ligament

c)

Posterior talofibular ligament

d)

Anterior talofibular ligament

110.

Inversion and eversion of the foot occur primarily at the:

a)

Ankle joint

b)

Talocrural joint

c)

Subtalar joint

d)

Tibiofibular joint

111.

Which muscle supports the the medial longitudinal arch of the foot?

a)

Peroneus longus

b)

Tibialis posterior

c)

Extensor digitorum longus

d)

Fibularis brevis

112.

The “spring ligament” supports which structure?

a)

Calcaneus

b)

Navicular

c)

Cuboid

d)

Talus

113.

Which intrinsic muscle of the foot is supplied by the medial plantar nerve?

a)

Interossei

b)

Quadratus plantae

c)

Adductor hallucis

114.

All of the following support the transverse arch of the foot EXCEPT:

a)

Peroneus longus

b)

Tibialis posterior

c)

Interossei

d)

Plantar aponeurosis

115.

All are true about the fibula EXCPET:

a)

It forms the lateral malleolus

b)

It bears body weight

c)

It stabilises the ankle

d)

It articulates with the tibia

116.

Brachialis muscle originates from the:

a)

Coracoid process

b)

Distal half of anterior humerus

c)

Radial tuberosity

d)

Medial epicondyle

117.

Insertion of biceps brachii is at the:

a)

Coronoid process of ulna

b)

Olecranon process

c)

Radial tuberosity

d)

Shaft of radius

118.

Which muscles inserts into the Olecranon process of ulna?

a)

Anconeus

b)

Triceps brachii

c)

Brachialis

d)

Supinator

119.

Primary action of Brachioradialis is elbow flexion when the forearm is:

a)

Fully supinated

b)

Fully pronated

c)

Mid-prone

d)

Extended

120.

Which muscles originates from the lateral epicondyle of the humerus?

a)

Pronator teres

b)

Flexor carpi radialis

c)

Extensor Carpi radialis brevis

d)

Flexor digitorum profundus

121.

Supraspinatus muscle originates from the:

a)

Supraspinous fossa

b)

Infraspinous fossa

c)

Coracoid process

d)

Spine of scpaula

122.

Insertion of supraspinatus is on the:

a)

Lesser tubercle of humerus

b)

Surgical neck of humerus

c)

Greater tubercle of humerus

d)

Intertubercular groove

123.

Which rotator cuff muscle laterally rotates the arm?

a)

Subscapularis

b)

Teres major

c)

Infraspinatous

d)

Coracobrachialis

124.

Subscapularis muscle produces:

a)

Lateral rotation

b)

Medial rotation

c)

Abduction

d)

Extension

125.

Which structure primarily stabilises the numeral head in the glenoid cavity?

a)

Joint capsule

b)

Glenoid labrum

c)

Rotator cuff muscles

d)

Coracoacromial ligament

126.

External oblique muscle originates from the:

a)

Iliac crest

b)

Lower 8 ribs

c)

Thoracolumbar fascia

d)

Pubic symphysis

127.

Psoas major inserts into the :

a)

Lesser trochanter

b)

Greater trochanter

c)

Iliac crest

d)

Linea aspera

128.

Quadratus lumborum originates from the:

a)

Vertebral bodies

b)

Iliac crest

c)

Sacrum

129.

Tibialis anterior inserts into the :

a)

Navicular tuberosity

b)

Base of 1st metatarsal

c)

Calcaneus

d)

Cuboid

130.

Primary action of Tibialis anterior is:

a)

Plantarflexion

b)

Inversion

c)

Dorsiflexion

d)

Eversion

131.

Achilles tendon inserts into the:

a)

Calcaneus

b)

Talus

c)

Cuboid

d)

Navicular

132.

Quadratus plantae inserts into the tendon of:

a)

Flexor hallucis longus

b)

Flexor digitorum longus

c)

Flexor digitorum brevis

d)

Tibialis posterior

133.

Deltoid ligament provides stability against :

a)

Inversion

b)

Eversion

c)

Plantarflexion

d)

Dorsiflexion

134.

Anterior talofibular ligament is stretched during:

a)

Eversion

b)

Dorsiflexion

c)

Inversion with plantarflexion

d)

Inversion with Dorsiflexion

135.

Ligament preventing radial head dislocation is the:

a)

Annular ligament

b)

Radial collateral ligament

c)

Ulnar collateral ligament

d)

Interosseous memebrane

136.

Coracoclavicular ligament stabilises which joint?

a)

Glenohumeral

b)

Sternoclavicular

c)

Acromioclavicular

d)

Scapulothoracic

137.

Which muscle BOTH flexes and supinates the forearm?

a)

Supinator

b)

Brachialis

c)

Biceps brachii

d)

Pronator teres

138.

Which ligament prevents excessive abduction of the elbow?

a)

Radial collateral ligament

b)

Annular ligament

c)

Ulnar collateral ligament

d)

Interosseous membrane

139.

Which muscle abducts the toes?

a)

Plantar interossei

b)

Lumbricals

c)

Dorsal interossei

d)

Flexor digitorum brevis

140.

Which carpal bone articulates directly with the radius?

a)

Hamate

b)

Lunate

c)

Pisiform

d)

Capitate

141.

All are contents of the carpal tunnel EXCEPT:

a)

Median nerve

b)

Flexor digitorum profundus

c)

Flexor digitorum superficialis

d)

Flexor carpi radialis

142.

Which ligament prevents posterior dislocation of the carpal bones?

a)

Palmar radiocarpal ligament

b)

Dorsal radiocarpal ligament

c)

Ulnar collateral ligament

d)

Radial collateral ligament

143.

A typical thoracic vertebra is characterised by:

a)

Costal facets

b)

Bifid spinous process

c)

Large kidney-shaped body

d)

Absence of transverse foramina

144.

Lumbar vertebrae are best adapted for:

a)

Rotation

b)

Flexion and extension

c)

Stability only

d)

Lateral flexion only

145.

Which feature is UNIQUE to cervical vertebrae?

a)

Large vertebral body

b)

Costal facets

c)

Transverse foramina

d)

Mammillary processes

146.

Erector spinae group consists of all EXCEPT:

a)

Iliocostalis

b)

Longissimus

c)

Spinalis

d)

Multifidus

147.

Primary action of erector spinae muscles is:

a)

Flexion of spine

b)

Rotation of spine

c)

Extension of spine

d)

Lateral flexion only

148.

The acetabulum of the hip is formed by fusion of the:

a)

Ilium and pubis

b)

Ischium and pubis

c)

Ilium and ischium

d)

Ilium, ischium and pubis

149.

Which landmark is the weight-bearing portion during sitting?

a)

Ischial tuberosity

b)

Iliac crest

c)

Ischial spine

d)

Pubic tubercle

150.

The greater sciatic notch becomes the the greater sciatic Foramen by the:

a)

Sacrospinous ligament

b)

Sacrotuberous ligament

c)

Inguinal ligament

d)

Iliofemoral ligament

151.

Which part of the hip bone contributes to the obturator foramen?

a)

Ilium

b)

Ischium

c)

Pubis

d)

Ischium and pubis

152.

The Manubriosternal joint is a:

a)

Primary cartilaginous joint

b)

Secondary cartilaginous joint

c)

Synovial plate joint

d)

Fibrous joint

153.

Which structure articulates with the clavicle at the sternum?

a)

Body of sternum

b)

Xiphoid process

c)

Manubrium

d)

Costal cartilage

154.

External intercostal muscles of the thoracic wall primarily aid in:

a)

Forced expiration

b)

Quiet expiration

c)

Inspiration

d)

Coughing

155.

Internal intercostal muscles of the thoracic wall function mainly in:

a)

Inspiration

b)

Forced expiration

c)

Quiet breathing

d)

Rib elevation

156.

Which bone contains the sella turcica?

a)

Ethmoid

b)

Sphenoid

c)

Temporal

d)

Occipital

157.

The cribiform plate is part of the:

a)

Ethmoid bone

b)

Frontal bone

c)

Sphenoid bone

d)

Maxilla

158.

The styloid process belongs to the:

a)

Sphenoid bone

b)

Temporal bone

c)

Occipital bone

d)

Maxilla

159.

Foramen rotundum transmits:

a)

Mandibular nerve (V3)

b)

Maxillary nerve (V2)

c)

Ophthalmic nerve (V1)

d)

Facial nerve

160.

The middle meningeal artery enters the cranial cavity via the:

a)

Foramen lacerum

b)

Foramen spinosum

c)

Foramen magnum

d)

Jugular Foramen

161.

Optic canal transmits the:

a)

Optic nerve only

b)

Optic nerve and ophthalmic artery

c)

Ophthalmic nerve

d)

Oculomotor nerve

162.

Temporalis muscle originates from the:

a)

Zygomatic arch

b)

Temporal fossa

c)

Coronoid process

d)

Mandibular angle

163.

Muscles of facial expression are derived from the:

a)

First pharyngeal arch

b)

Second pharyngeal arch

c)

Third pharyngeal arch

d)

Fourth pharyngeal arch

164.

All muscles of facial expression are supplied by:

a)

Trigeminal nerve

b)

Facial nerve

c)

Hypoglossal nerve

d)

Glossopharyngeal nerve

165.

Buccinator muscle functions to:

a)

Elevate mandible

b)

Protrude lips

c)

Compress cheek

d)

Close eyelids

166.

Orbicularis oculi muscle sis responsible for:

a)

Opening eye

b)

Closing eye

c)

Raising eyebrow

d)

Protruding eye

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