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Facility Policies Worksheet Questions

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The charge nurse notices that lab work recommended for a particular medication has not been ordered and places the order. The administrator should choose the most appropriate response.

a)

Sign off on the order

b)

Praise the nurse

c)

Document the order

d)

Be upset

2.

A facility need not first consult with the resident or the resident's physician when there is a situation described below. Choose the situation in which consultation is not required.

a)

An accident involving injury

b)

A decision to transfer

c)

A change in roommate

d)

A medical emergency

3.

The medical director declined to take responsibility for monitoring and ensuring implementation of resident care policies, stating this was too time‑consuming. The administrator would be well advised to select the best course of action.

a)

Agree with the medical director

b)

Enter a complaint to the state about the medical director

c)

Find a new medical director

d)

Assign that task to the director of nursing

4.

To save expenses, the director of nursing has determined that drug records are in order and that all controlled drugs are accounted for. According to federal requirements, the administrator should select the most appropriate action.

a)

Be pleased and compliment the director of nursing

b)

Thank the director of nursing for the information and continue about business

c)

Call the consulting pharmacist

d)

Plan an in‑service for other nurses

5.

Permitting a resident, whose physician permits drugs judged unnecessary but demanded by the resident, to continue to take unnecessary drugs is best characterized by which statement?

a)

Is encouraged

b)

Is generally acceptable

c)

Is not permitted

d)

Is permitted if the resident self‑administers drugs

6.

New facilities certified under Final Rules must meet the applicable provisions of which standard or organization?

a)

National Fire Protection Association

b)

Occupational Safety and Health Act as amended

c)

Life Safety Code® of 2000

d)

Life Safety Code® of 1990

7.

Plan D, implemented in 2006, was intended to ________. (See Federal Requirements App. P and PP.) (p. 348)

a)

Provide stricter oversight of care

b)

Provide relief from medication expenses

c)

Cover outlier costs

d)

Decrease federal involvement

8.

An individual who can prove that he or she recently successfully completed a training and competency evaluation program, but who is not actually registered in the required registry ______ as a nurse's aide. (See Federal Requirements App. P and PP.) (p. 545)

a)

Can be hired

b)

Must not be hired

c)

Is temporarily eligible for hiring

d)

Is likely overqualified

9.

Responsibility for determining whether the nurse's aide training and competency evaluation requirements are met in a facility falls to the ______. (See Federal Requirements App. P and PP.) (p. 545)

a)

Medicare inspectors

b)

Medicaid inspectors

c)

State Nursing Board

d)

State survey agency

10.

The owner of a facility providing nearly the best nurse's aide training and competency evaluation program in the state declines to permit an unannounced visit by the state. The state will ____. (See Federal Requirements App. P and PP.) (p. 545)

a)

Return at a more acceptable time

b)

Withdraw approval of the training program

c)

Make an announced visit within 5 working days

d)

Make an announced visit within 10 working days

11.

The required curriculum for a nurse's aide training program does not have to include ____. (See Federal Requirements App. P and PP.) (p. 545)

a)

Basic nursing skills

b)

Personal care skills

c)

Care of cognitively impaired residents

d)

Diet management

12.

Candidates for nurse's aide competency evaluation are normally examined by ___. (See Federal Requirements App. P and PP.) (p. 545)

a)

A Medicare participating skilled nursing facility

b)

A Medicaid nursing facility

c)

The individual's own facility

d)

A state-approved entity

13.

Under federal guidelines, a candidate for nurse's aide registration has _____ chances to take the evaluation. (See Federal Requirements App. P and PP.) (p. 545)

a)

Two

b)

No more than three

c)

Four

d)

At least three

14.

A finding by the state survey agency of abuse or neglect by a nurse's aide remains recorded in the nurse's aide registry ________. (See Federal Requirements App. P and PP.) (p. 547)

a)

For 2 years

b)

For 4 years

c)

Forever

d)

During the recommended probation period

15.

Ensuring that nurse's aides are able to demonstrate competency in skills and techniques necessary to care for residents' needs is the responsibility of ____. (See Federal Requirements App. P and PP.) (p. 545)

a)

The state

b)

Medicaid program officials

c)

Medicare officials

d)

The facility

16.

Under Final Rules, routine and emergency dental services are ____. (See Federal Requirements App. P and PP.) (p. 578)

a)

Optional

b)

Mandated

c)

On request of the resident

d)

On order of the resident's physician

17.

The director of nursing mentions to the administrator that although Ms. Brown had no significant change in her physical or mental condition on readmission, a full comprehensive assessment was completed within 5 days of her return. The administrator might feel ___. (p. 579)

a)

Facility resources might not be being utilized efficiently

b)

Satisfied that effectiveness had been achieved

c)

Pleased that the assessment was within the 14-day window

d)

Alarmed

18.

To stretch resources, the care planning team decides to conduct comprehensive assessments on the healthiest patients every 15 months. The administrator should feel ___. (p. 579)

a)

That the staff is making a reasonable choice

b)

The staff is being proactive

c)

A deficiency is in the future

d)

The care team has saved the facility some expenditures

19.

Standards of quality for care given in the nursing facility ___. (p. 581)

a)

May be found in several venues

b)

Come only from the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid (CMS)

c)

Are those set out in the Federal Requirements

d)

Can be developed by the facility or its parent body

20.

The nurse on duty has informed Ms. Brown that Ms. Brown must make arrangements for transportation to her audiologist. This is ____. (p. 582)

a)

Correct

b)

Not permitted facility policy

c)

Prudent shepherding of facility staff time

d)

A realistic response

21.

Psychosocial adjustment difficulties ___. (p. 582)

a)

Are inevitable

b)

Are not common in today's environment

c)

Are the responsibility of the resident

d)

Must be treated by the facility

22.

For several months in succession, it is noted in the resident's records that the resident is becoming more withdrawn. The facility ______.

a)

Has met its recordkeeping requirements

b)

Should show more staff interest in this resident

c)

Must develop a plan of care to address this

d)

Should provide more opportunities for interaction among the residents

23.

For nasogastrically fed patients, the facility program is to provide treatment and services to prevent aspiration, pneumonia, diarrhea, vomiting, dehydration, and metabolic abnormalities. This is ______.

a)

Satisfactory

b)

More than required

c)

Meets minimum standards

d)

Insufficient

24.

Ms. Green has been shouting incoherently at nearby residents. Her physician prescribes an antipsychotic drug to calm her down. This ______.

a)

Is reasonable

b)

Is necessary for the comfort of the other residents

c)

Is unacceptable

d)

Follows usual medical practice decisions

25.

The facility must provide a separate, locked, permanently affixed compartment for storage of controlled drugs listed in Schedule ______ of the Drug Act.

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

V

26.

Controlled drugs listed in Schedule I of the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Act of 1970 are ______.

a)

To be kept locked

b)

To be kept locked and under proper temperature controls

c)

Not permitted in the facility

d)

Used only on the order of a licensed physician

27.

The administrator's policy is to discard all clinical records after 10 years. This policy is ______.

a)

In accordance with requirements

b)

Practical and meets all possible state and federal requirements

c)

Flawed

d)

Causing unduly long retention of records

28.

The Resident Assessment Instrument is a set of screening, clinical, and functional status elements, which forms the basis for ______.

a)

A comprehensive assessment of each resident

b)

A thorough plan of care

c)

Improving reimbursement

d)

Capacity for a look-back in care needs

29.

Specific resident responses for one or a combination of Minimum Data Set (MDS) elements are ______.

a)

The minimum elements

b)

The Resident Assessment Instrument (RAI)

c)

The Care Area Triggers

d)

The care plan

30.

The Minimum Data Set (MDS) care planning process can be visualized as: assessment, decision making, and ______.

a)

Follow-up

b)

Visualization of resident needs

c)

Documentation of resident preferences

d)

Care plan

31.

In planning an annual survey, the surveyor begins with reviewing current government data records on the facility, current complaints, Ombudsman information, and ______.

a)

The facility care plans

b)

The comprehensive assessments

c)

Current Minimum Data Set (MDS) data

d)

All OSCAR data

32.

The surveyors expect information on contact persons for complaints or abuse, a list of ventilator dependent residents, a list of residents on hospice, and a list of dialysis patients within ______ of entering a facility for survey.

a)

One day

b)

One hour

c)

Four hours

d)

24 hours

33.

The administrator can expect surveyors to generate ______ lists of residents to be interviewed.

a)

Two

b)

Eight

c)

Three or more

d)

Six

34.

As a matter of policy, at the Exit Conference, ______ is(are) invited to attend.

a)

All resident council members

b)

The resident council president

c)

Any interested residents

d)

Only invited residents

35.

If a facility's plan of correction is found unacceptable, ______.

a)

The facility is fined

b)

A fast-track process will begin

c)

The facility can appeal

d)

A new plan of correction must be submitted

36.

Normally a plan of correction ______.

a)

Is accepted by the state

b)

Meets requirements

c)

Triggers a revisit

d)

Is appealed

37.

Hoping to delay an enforcement action, the administrator asks for an Informal Dispute Resolution. The administrator ______.

a)

Does not understand the process

b)

Has made a prudent move

c)

Is taking advisable defensive action

d)

Will likely win at least half the time

38.

A finding by surveyors that in both wings of the facility, the water to resident rooms and baths is 8 degrees above the upper temperature limit, but that no one had yet been burned would result in a deficiency characterized as ___

a)

Broad and high

b)

Widespread

c)

Widespread, no actual harm with minimum potential for actual harm

d)

Widespread, no actual harm with potential for more than minimal harm

39.

The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid's goal is to reimburse based on how much ___ is required to care for each patient each month

a)

Money

b)

Staff inplace

c)

Effort

d)

Staff time

40.

There are ___ levels and types of care for reimbursing nursing facility care given

a)

Increasingly diverse

b)

Sixty-six

c)

Fifteen

d)

Five broad categories of

41.

The Minimum Data Set (MDS) contains items that reflect the ___ of the resident

a)

Activity level

b)

Ability to pay

c)

General circumstances

d)

Acuity level

42.

The Medicare-required assessments provide information about the clinical condition of beneficiaries. These assessments ___

a)

Can be scheduled in advance

b)

Can be unscheduled

c)

Can be scheduled or unscheduled

d)

Can be known in advance

43.

Readmission/return assessment, start of therapy, and end of therapy are ___

a)

Excluded from standardized assessment dates

b)

Standardized assessment dates

c)

The 5-, 14-, 30-, 60-, 90-day assessments

d)

More highly reimbursed

44.

The Resource Utilization Group (RUG)-IV classification system has ___ major categories

a)

Four

b)

Eight

c)

Twelve

d)

A varying number of

45.

The scheduled Prospective Payment System assessments (performed around days 5, 14, 30, 60, and 90) establish ___ for associated standard payment periods

a)

A little used basis

b)

A free-moving basis

c)

Per-diem payment rates

d)

Monthly rates

46.

The activities of daily living (ADL) score is based on the following ADLs: ___

a)

Bed mobility, activities, toilet use, and ambulating

b)

Transferring, eating, and activities

c)

Walking, bed mobility, and eating

d)

Bed mobility, transfer, toilet use, and eating

47.

A cancer patient receiving intensive therapies may ___

a)

Be a good source of extra revenue

b)

Be an ideal admission

c)

Cost the facility more than it will be reimbursed

d)

Increase facility cash flow positively

48.

The current long-term health care delivery system is one in which each player seeks to minimize its own costs at the possible expense of ___

a)

The taxpayers

b)

Private paying patients

c)

The revenue base

d)

Other players in the system

49.

How much a facility can charge for care given can be characterized as ___

a)

A given

b)

Easy to chart

c)

A simple computer algorithm

d)

A moving target

50.

Establishing transfer and discharge policies according to the source of payment ___ under Final Rules

a)

Is permitted

b)

Is discouraged

c)

Is forbidden

d)

Must be fully documented

51.

The goal of the National Health Care Technology coordinator is to have ___ available to all providers, which can lead to improved quality of care at all levels

a)

Interoperable care records

b)

Smartphone-based records

c)

Universally available records

d)

Enlarged records

52.

Typically, the responsibility for safety and disaster preparedness falls to the ___

a)

Business office

b)

Personal services director

c)

Administrator

d)

Director of nursing

53.

Although the drugs in the emergency kit are the pharmacist's responsibility, the ____ using the kit must keep records when each item is used and trigger a reorder as needed to keep the kit fully stocked.

a)

Nurse's aide

b)

Contracted pharmacist's assistant

c)

Staff

d)

Administrator

54.

To the extent possible, ensuring that the facility reflects the culture, ethnicity, race, sexual orientation, gender, religions, and language of the surrounding community is part of ___.

a)

Diversity awareness

b)

Good planning

c)

Enlarging the horizons

d)

Building better practices

55.

_____ is defined as separation of a resident from other residents or from his or her roommate or confinement to his or her room (with or without roommates) against the resident's will, or the will of the resident's legal representative.

a)

Cordonning off

b)

Separating

c)

Involuntary seclusion

d)

Citizen arrest

56.

Ombudspersons — — — — direct enforcement authority, but are typically part of the local government structure where their recommendations can carry weight.

a)

Do not have any

b)

Do have

c)

May or may not have

d)

Usually choose not to exercise

57.

In the typical nursing facility, various maintenance and repair services are typically ___ such as grounds maintenance or HVAC (heating and cooling) services and repair.

a)

Contracted out

b)

Done only by facility employees only

c)

Shared between nursing and maintenance

d)

Always contracted to subcontractors

58.

_____ is a portable electronic device that automatically diagnoses the life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias of ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia in a patient, and is able to treat them through defibrillation.

a)

Heart starter machine

b)

Automated external defibrillator (AED)

c)

Emergency medical services (EMS)-only device

d)

Staff friendly device

59.

Complaints or accusations of abuse or neglect made by residents or by staff must be ____.

a)

Always taken seriously

b)

Reported to staff

c)

Reported to administration

d)

Investigated using a protocol

60.

Normally a resident care planning conference is held for each resident at least ___.

a)

Quarterly

b)

As needed

c)

Monthly

d)

Semiannually

61.

Scope and Severity is a system of rating the seriousness of ________.

a)

Poor staff attitudes

b)

Staff attendance

c)

Deficiencies

d)

Restraint reports