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Introduction and Unit 2: Basic ABA Concepts

Total questions: 148

Worksheet time: 1hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best distinguishes phylogeny from ontogeny in ABA terminology?

a)

Phylogeny is species evolution across generations

b)

Ontogeny is species evolution across generations

c)

Phylogeny is an individual’s lifetime development

d)

Ontogeny describes immediate behavior antecedents

2.

In ABA, what is an antecedent?

a)

A stimulus change occurring before a behavior

b)

A consequence delivered after a behavior

c)

A genetic factor shaping a species

d)

A class of stimuli with shared functions

3.

Which option defines environment in behavioral terms?

a)

Dynamic events surrounding behavior instances

b)

Static background separate from organisms

c)

Internal thoughts independent of stimuli

d)

Single setting with fixed properties

4.

Select all statements that correctly describe a stimulus.

a)

A purely internal motivation state

b)

A change that can alter an organism’s contact

c)

A verbal label without physical properties

d)

An energy change affecting receptor cells

5.

Which example illustrates stimulus control?

a)

A species evolves thicker fur over millennia

b)

Random clouds appear after rainfall

c)

Stop sign presence reduces speeding behavior

d)

A person’s genes determine eye color

6.

What is a stimulus class?

a)

Collection of responses across individuals

b)

Set of behaviors with identical topography

c)

Single stimulus with unique properties

d)

Group of stimuli sharing common elements

7.

Which statement correctly contrasts antecedent and consequence?

a)

Consequence precedes behavior; antecedent follows

b)

Both occur after the behavior of interest

c)

Neither is tied to temporal order around behavior

d)

Antecedent precedes behavior; consequence follows

8.

Which statement best defines behavior in applied behavior analysis?

a)

Observable interaction causing measurable environmental change

b)

Internal thoughts occurring without observable displacement

c)

Innate traits persisting regardless of environment

d)

Momentary moods with no measurable effect

9.

What is a response in this context?

a)

A learned history of reinforcement

b)

A specific instance of behavior

c)

A permanent personality trait

d)

An environmental setting event

10.

Structural descriptions of behavior focus on what?

a)

Form or physical characteristics

b)

Function or environmental effects

c)

Consequences delivered later

d)

Learning history variables

11.

Functional descriptions of behavior emphasize what?

a)

Genetic predispositions to act

b)

Latency unaffected by context

c)

Form of movements and topography

d)

Effects of behavior on environment

12.

Which choice best defines a response class?

a)

Group of responses with same function

b)

Group of responses with same form

c)

Schedule delivering identical outcomes

d)

Single response occurring once

13.

What is a consequence?

a)

Baseline level before intervention

b)

Stimulus change following a behavior

c)

Antecedent cue setting the occasion

d)

Private event within the organism

14.

Reinforcement occurs when a stimulus change immediately follows a response and produces what effect?

a)

Increases future frequency in similar conditions

b)

Maintains current rate without change

c)

Eliminates responding across settings

d)

Decreases immediate probability in all contexts

15.

Positive reinforcement involves which operation and outcome?

a)

Presentation increases future frequency

b)

Removal increases immediate suppression

c)

Presentation decreases future frequency

d)

Removal decreases long-term frequency

16.

Negative reinforcement involves which operation and outcome?

a)

Removal decreases future frequency

b)

Presentation increases future frequency

c)

Presentation decreases immediate rate

d)

Removal increases future frequency

17.

Which statement correctly defines a reinforcer?

a)

Rule describing how to deliver tokens

b)

Any pleasant item regardless of behavior

c)

Neutral stimulus unrelated to responding

d)

Stimulus change that increases future frequency

18.

Conditioned reinforcer (CR) is best described as what?

a)

Response pattern maintained without consequences

b)

Innate event produced by evolutionary processes

c)

Stimulus functioning regardless of learning history

d)

Stimulus functioning as reinforcer due to pairing

19.

Unconditioned reinforcer (UR) is characterized by what?

a)

Increases behavior irrespective of learning history

b)

Requires pairing with tokens to gain value

c)

Decreases responding through presentation

d)

Only affects learned response classes

20.

Positive punishment involves which operation and outcome?

a)

Removal increases immediate rate

b)

Presentation decreases future frequency

c)

Removal decreases future frequency

d)

Presentation increases future frequency

21.

Which statement best defines a punisher?

a)

Stimulus change that decreases future frequency

b)

Stimulus change that increases future frequency

c)

Neutral event without behavioral impact

d)

Rule used to describe reinforcement schedules

22.

Conditioned punisher is described as what?

a)

Stimulus decreasing behavior irrespective of learning history

b)

Event that increases responding via removal

c)

Previously neutral stimulus functioning as punisher after pairing

d)

Primary reinforcer produced by species evolution

23.

Unconditioned punisher has which property?

a)

Only affects behaviors within one response class

b)

Increases behavior due to presentation

c)

Requires pairing with other punishers first

d)

Decreases behavior regardless of learning history

24.

Which options list the four functions of behavior described?

a)

Attention and access to tangible

b)

Escape or avoidance and sensory

c)

Access to tangible and escape

d)

Attention and automatic reinforcement

25.

A student shouts to get the teacher’s attention. Which function is most likely?

a)

Access to tangible

b)

Automatic reinforcement

c)

Attention from others

d)

Escape or avoidance

26.

Grabbing a toy during circle time to play suggests which function?

a)

Escape or avoidance

b)

Attention from others

c)

Access to tangible

d)

Automatic reinforcement

27.

Leaving the room during a difficult task indicates which function?

a)

Attention from others

b)

Access to tangible

c)

Sensory stimulation

d)

Escape or avoidance

28.

In stimulus-stimulus pairing, what is the typical procedural feature?

a)

A single trial without repetition

b)

Multiple behaviors reinforced variably

c)

One stimulus presented after behavior

d)

Two stimuli presented together repeatedly

29.

Which description matches an unconditioned stimulus (US)?

a)

Stimulus that signals reinforcement availability

b)

Stimulus that never elicits behavior

c)

Stimulus that only elicits after pairing

d)

Stimulus that elicits without prior learning

30.

Which option defines a neutral stimulus (NS) before conditioning?

a)

Does not elicit respondent behavior

b)

Automatically elicits reflexive responding

c)

Signals conditioned reinforcement

d)

Evokes operant responding voluntarily

31.

What is a conditioned stimulus (CS) in respondent paradigms?

a)

Innate stimulus that elicits without learning

b)

Reinforcer delivered after correct behavior

c)

Formerly neutral stimulus that elicits after pairing

d)

Discriminative cue for operant responses

32.

Which scenario exemplifies respondent extinction?

a)

Delivering punishment after a response

b)

Presenting CS repeatedly without the US

c)

Withholding reinforcement after operant

d)

Pairing NS and US across many trials

33.

Higher order conditioning is best described as what process?

a)

Fading prompts to establish stimulus control

b)

Training with progressively stronger punishers

c)

Pairing a response with differential reinforcement

d)

Pairing a neutral stimulus with a conditioned stimulus

34.

Which statement best defines operant behavior in behavioral analysis?

a)

Behavior selected and maintained by its consequences

b)

Behavior elicited automatically by antecedent stimuli

c)

Behavior occurring independently of environmental context

d)

Behavior shaped solely by genetic phylogeny history

35.

In behavioral terms, contingency refers to what?

a)

Dependent or temporal relations among variables

b)

Innate reflex patterns across species

c)

Random correlations without causal linkage

d)

Immediate elicitation by conditioned stimuli

36.

Which elements compose the three-term contingency?

a)

Cue, action, outcome schedule

b)

Motivation, habit, reinforcement

c)

Stimulus, response, reflex

d)

Antecedent, behavior, consequence

37.

Automaticity of reinforcement implies which claim?

a)

Only conscious recognition produces learning effects

b)

Reinforcement requires explicit self-report to function

c)

Punishment and reinforcement work identically

d)

Behavior changes without verbal awareness of contingencies

38.

History of reinforcement most precisely refers to what?

a)

Cumulative past conditioning shaping current repertoire

b)

Single recent reward determining present behavior

c)

Immediate antecedent cue controlling reflexes

d)

Genetic predispositions fixed before birth

39.

What does the Premack Principle state?

a)

Access to high-probability behavior reinforces low-frequency behavior

b)

Delivering any stimulus increases responding regardless of probability

c)

Low-probability actions reinforce high-frequency behaviors

d)

Only tangible rewards can function as reinforcers in practice

40.

Positive reinforcement is best described as:

a)

Behavior followed by stimulus presentation increases future frequency

b)

Behavior followed by stimulus removal decreases future frequency

c)

Response contingency preventing future aversive events

d)

Automatic strengthening independent of any consequence

41.

Which pair correctly differentiates avoidance and escape contingencies?

a)

Avoidance terminates a stimulus already present

b)

Avoidance prevents or postpones aversive onset

c)

Escape prevents the onset before the stimulus occurs

d)

Escape terminates an ongoing aversive stimulus

42.

Discriminated avoidance is best characterized by:

a)

Responding freely at any time delays scheduled onset

b)

Presenting a pleasant event after behavior

c)

Responding to a signal prevents onset; escape is the reinforcer

d)

Terminating a stimulus already in progress

43.

Free operant avoidance requires what contingency feature?

a)

Pairing neutral and unconditioned stimuli until control

b)

Termination of an already-present aversive event

c)

A signal must be present to occasion responding

d)

Responses at any time during an interval delay scheduled onset

44.

Which statement best defines a conditioned reinforcer (CR)?

a)

A stimulus change paired with other reinforcers

b)

A stimulus change produced by innate reflexes

c)

A stimulus change removing aversive stimulation

d)

A stimulus change contingent on deprivation states

45.

Which description matches an unconditioned reinforcer (UR)?

a)

Operates solely through verbal rules

b)

Requires pairing with established reinforcers

c)

Functions due to evolutionary development

d)

Only increases behavior after long training

46.

In a ratio schedule, reinforcement depends on what requirement?

a)

An elapsed time since last response

b)

A particular response topography

c)

A number of responses emitted

d)

A specific discriminative stimulus

47.

Which example illustrates a fixed ratio (FR) schedule?

a)

Reinforcement after variable time intervals

b)

Reinforcement follows every fourth response

c)

Reinforcement delivered on average every five trials

d)

Reinforcement for the first response after five minutes

48.

Which statement characterizes a variable ratio (VR) schedule?

a)

Reinforcement after fixed-duration intervals

b)

Reinforcement after a varying number of responses

c)

Reinforcement for successive approximations

d)

Reinforcement contingent on response magnitude

49.

What defines a fixed interval (FI) schedule?

a)

First response after a fixed time elapses

b)

Every response produces immediate reinforcement

c)

Responses reinforced after a fixed number

d)

Variable time windows with random ordering

50.

Which description fits a variable interval (VI) schedule?

a)

First response after variable durations elapse

b)

Reinforcement tied to response intensity

c)

Reinforcement after a fixed number of responses

d)

Reinforcement for high-rate responding only

51.

Which statement correctly describes compound schedules of reinforcement?

a)

Single schedule operating without alternation

b)

Schedules that preclude independent contingencies

c)

Only fixed ratio with extinction combined

d)

Combinations of two or more basic schedules

52.

What are concurrent schedules of reinforcement?

a)

Two or more contingencies operate simultaneously

b)

One schedule alternating across separate sessions

c)

A single contingency fading over time

d)

Schedules restricted to single-response classes

53.

According to the Matching Law, how are responses allocated across choices?

a)

Equally across all available alternatives

b)

Preferentially to options with shortest intervals

c)

Randomly distributed across concurrent schedules

d)

Proportionally to obtained reinforcement rates

54.

Select all statements that are true of progressive schedules of reinforcement.

a)

Require equal response counts across steps

b)

Independent of participant’s ongoing behavior

c)

Used frequently for reinforcer assessments

d)

Successively thinning reinforcement opportunity

55.

Which statement best defines differential reinforcement in behavior analysis?

a)

Reinforcing all responses regardless of criteria

b)

Withholding reinforcement across entire sessions

c)

Reinforcing responses meeting a specific criterion

d)

Punishing responses that exceed a time limit

56.

Fixed Interval DRO requires reinforcement at what time relative to the interval?

a)

At the start of each variable interval

b)

At the end of each fixed-duration interval

c)

Continuously throughout the interval

d)

At random points during the interval

57.

Variable Interval DRO differs from Fixed Interval DRO because the interval duration is

a)

Determined by response rate

b)

Shorter than the fixed interval

c)

Constant across sessions

d)

Variable across intervals

58.

Momentary DRO delivers reinforcement when the absence of the problem behavior occurs

a)

Immediately after every response

b)

Only at session midpoint

c)

Across the entire interval

d)

Only when each interval ends

59.

DRA targets a behavior that

a)

Competes physically with the problem behavior

b)

Is any behavior other than the problem behavior

c)

Occurs at high rates across intervals

d)

Is a desirable alternative to the problem behavior

60.

DRI specifies reinforcement for a behavior that is

a)

Occurring at a preset low rate

b)

A variable alternative to the problem behavior

c)

Topographically incompatible with the problem behavior

d)

Functionally equivalent to the problem behavior

61.

Which statement describes the main use of DRL schedules?

a)

Decrease behaviors that should be maintained but are too frequent

b)

Eliminate behaviors via extinction across sessions

c)

Reinforce absence of behavior at interval ends

d)

Increase behaviors occurring too infrequently

62.

Full Session DRL delivers reinforcement when the target behavior

a)

Is completely absent during the session

b)

Occurs at or below a predetermined session total

c)

Meets a high-rate criterion across intervals

d)

Is incompatible with an alternative response

63.

Interval DRL requires reinforcement when, within each interval, the number of occurrences is

a)

Equal to or below a criterion limit

b)

Higher than the previous interval

c)

Greater than a gradually increasing criterion

d)

Exactly zero regardless of duration

64.

Spaced Responding DRL delivers reinforcement following an occurrence that is

a)

Distributed variably across fixed intervals

b)

Immediately followed by an alternative response

c)

Emitted faster than a target pace

d)

Separated by at least a minimum interresponse time

65.

DRH schedules are designed primarily to

a)

Reduce high-rate behaviors to zero

b)

Increase the rate of behaviors occurring too infrequently

c)

Maintain moderate rates of alternative behaviors

d)

Reinforce the absence of the problem behavior

66.

In DRH, reinforcement is contingent on responses within an interval being

a)

Less than a predetermined criterion

b)

Equal across fixed and variable intervals

c)

Absent during the entire interval

d)

Greater than a gradually increasing criterion

67.

Which pair correctly matches procedure with its core contingency?

a)

DRL: reinforce high counts per interval

b)

DRO: reinforce absence at interval ends

c)

DRA: reinforce alternative desirable response

d)

DRH: reinforce greater-than criterion counts

e)

DRI: reinforce topographically incompatible response

68.

Which procedure involves physically intervening as soon as a learner begins a problem behavior to prevent completion?

a)

Response cost with contingent reinforcer removal

b)

Response blocking by immediate physical intervention

c)

Contingent exercise requiring nonrelated tasks

d)

Overcorrection with effortful restitution behavior

e)

Time out with temporary reinforcement loss

69.

Contingent exercise is best described as what kind of intervention?

a)

Require a non-topographical response to problem behavior

b)

Present brief electrical stimulation after each problem

c)

Physically block completion of target behavior

d)

Remove specific amounts of earned reinforcers

e)

Withdraw opportunity to earn positive reinforcement

70.

Which tactic presents a brief electrical stimulus immediately following the problem behavior?

a)

Response blocking physical intervention

b)

Bonus response cost removal method

c)

Generalized conditioned punisher use

d)

Contingent electrical stimulation procedure

e)

Non-exclusionary time out process

71.

Negative punishment occurs when a behavior is followed by which consequence?

a)

Addition of effortful restitution requirements

b)

Presentation of a stimulus increasing future rate

c)

Blocking the response before completion

d)

Delivering generalized conditioned punishers

e)

Removal of a stimulus decreasing future frequency

72.

Time out is the contingent withdrawal of what?

a)

Exposure to generalized reinforcement schedules

b)

Access to conditioned punishers or fines

c)

Ability to emit the target response effectively

d)

Opportunity to earn or access positive reinforcement

e)

Use of surrogate motivating operations

73.

In non-exclusionary time out, what happens after the target behavior?

a)

A brief electrical stimulus is delivered immediately

b)

Person is physically removed to another environment

c)

Therapist blocks further responding

d)

Tokens are removed from a predetermined reservoir

e)

Person remains in setting without reinforcement access

74.

Exclusionary time out requires which action?

a)

Physical removal from the current environment

b)

Contingent exercise unrelated to topography

c)

Remaining in setting without reinforcement access

d)

Immediate presentation of electrical stimulation

e)

Fines deducted from available reinforcers

75.

Response cost is defined as which contingency?

a)

Requirement of effortful restitution activities

b)

Presentation of brief electrical stimulation following

c)

Withdrawal from setting without reinforcement access

d)

Blocking the initiation of the target response

e)

Loss of reinforcers producing behavior decrease

76.

Fines represent what form of response cost?

a)

Removal of a specific amount of a reinforcer

b)

Loss of access to the entire reinforcement schedule

c)

Delivery of a brief aversive electrical stimulus

d)

Requirement to perform nonrelated exercises

e)

Immediate blocking before behavior completion

77.

Bonus response cost provides what contingency arrangement?

a)

Generalized conditioned punishers across contexts

b)

Electric stimulation contingent on problem act

c)

Overcorrection with restitutional activities

d)

Non-exclusionary time out maintaining setting

e)

Reservoir of reinforcers removed in set amounts

78.

A punisher is best defined as what kind of stimulus change?

a)

Decreases future frequency of immediately preceding behavior

b)

Increases current frequency of reinforced behavior

c)

Alters value of reinforcement without learning history

d)

Blocks completion of a target response quickly

e)

Removes access to positive reinforcement period

79.

Which statement describes an unconditioned punisher?

a)

Functions after pairing with other punishers over time

b)

Requires physical removal from the environment

c)

Increases the value of reinforcement reservoirs

d)

Decreases behavior frequency independent of learning history

e)

Operates under generalized motivating conditions

80.

A conditioned punisher is a previously neutral stimulus that does what?

a)

Blocks completion before response finishes

b)

Functions as a punisher due to pairing history

c)

Evokes behavior reinforced by deprivation

d)

Decreases behavior independent of learning history

e)

Acts as a generalized conditioned reinforcer

81.

Generalized conditioned punishers have which property?

a)

Lose value when paired with surrogate CMOs

b)

Effective under many conditions due to multiple pairings

c)

Increase responding on the punished schedule

d)

Require immediate physical removal from environment

e)

Depend solely on biological deprivation states

82.

Behavioral contrast refers to what phenomenon?

a)

Change in responding on one component alters rate on another

b)

Blocking target response increases alternative task completion

c)

Generalized punishment independent of motivating operations

d)

Immediate decrease from unconditioned punishers delivered

e)

Time out procedures lead to permanent response decline

83.

Motivating operations alter which two aspects?

a)

Reinforcing effectiveness of stimuli or events

b)

Punishing effectiveness of stimuli or events

c)

Topography of the targeted problem behavior

d)

Current frequency of relevant behaviors

e)

Future frequency independent of consequences

84.

Which scenario exemplifies an establishing operation?

a)

Food deprivation increases food as effective reinforcer

b)

Non-exclusionary time out removes reinforcement access

c)

Response cost deducts tokens after target behavior

d)

Overcorrection requires restitutional activities

e)

Food ingestion decreases food as effective reinforcer

85.

An abolishing operation has which effect on a reinforcer?

a)

Creates generalized conditioned punishment

b)

Alters the topography of that behavior

c)

Evokes behavior previously reinforced by it

d)

Increases reinforcing effectiveness of that stimulus

e)

Decreases reinforcing effectiveness of that stimulus

86.

Evocative effect refers to what change in behavior?

a)

Change in long-term future frequency globally

b)

Decrease in current frequency under an MO

c)

Creation of conditioned punisher through pairing

d)

Increase in current frequency under an MO

e)

Shift in topography across different settings

87.

Abative effect refers to what change in behavior?

a)

Requirement to perform restitutional activities

b)

Presentation of brief electrical stimulation

c)

Removal of access to reinforcement opportunities

d)

Increase in current frequency under an MO

e)

Decrease in current frequency under an MO

88.

Value-altering effects change what feature of stimuli?

a)

Generalized punishment across contexts

b)

Immediate physical ability to respond

c)

Token reservoir amounts available

d)

Topographical form of emitted behavior

e)

Reinforcing effectiveness due to MO influence

89.

Which statement defines unconditioned motivating operations?

a)

Value-altering effects independent of learning history

b)

Alter the value of another stimulus indirectly

c)

Effects dependent on pairing with other MOs

d)

Systematically precede worsening or improvement

e)

Create generalized conditioned punisher functions

90.

Conditioned motivating operations depend on what factor?

a)

Generalized punishment under many conditions

b)

Immediate physical blocking by therapist

c)

Biological deprivation without prior experience

d)

Token reservoir with predetermined amounts

e)

Learning history relating stimuli and events

91.

Which is correctly matched to its CMO subtype description?

a)

CMO-R alters value only via deprivation states

b)

CMO-S paired with another motivating operation

c)

CMO-R precedes worsening or improvement systematically

d)

CMO-T alters the value of another stimulus

e)

CMO-S functions as an unconditioned punisher

92.

Which statement best defines operant extinction in behavior analysis?

a)

Adding reinforcement to reduce response variability

b)

Stopping reinforcement so responding decreases over time

c)

Providing intermittent reinforcement to maintain responding

d)

Removing punishment so responding increases rapidly

93.

During the initial implementation of extinction, what pattern of responding is most likely?

a)

An immediate drop below baseline levels

b)

Gradual oscillation without change

c)

A temporary surge above baseline levels

d)

Stable rates equal to baseline levels

94.

Which scenario exemplifies escape extinction for behavior maintained by negative reinforcement?

a)

Giving extra praise after escape responses

b)

Blocking escape so the aversive event continues

c)

Switching to fixed-interval reinforcement

d)

Presenting a novel cue before escape occurs

95.

Resistance to extinction refers to what characteristic of behavior under extinction?

a)

High response variability under continuous reinforcement

b)

Low response frequency despite no reinforcement

c)

Steady response rate with dense reinforcement

d)

Rapid recovery after punishment procedures

96.

Spontaneous recovery in extinction involves which outcome after response rates have decreased?

a)

Behavior generalizes to novel stimuli consistently

b)

Behavior escalates due to added punishment

c)

Behavior permanently stops across all settings

d)

Behavior reappears temporarily without reinforcement

97.

Which description captures a stimulus class in this context?

a)

Stimuli sharing common elements along defined dimensions

b)

Responses emitted under fixed interval schedules

c)

Reinforcers delivered on variable ratio programs

d)

Punishers applied contingent on target responses

98.

Antecedent stimulus class is best described as what?

a)

Consequences that differentially reinforce varied responses

b)

Stimuli with a common relation that evoke similar operants

c)

Neutral stimuli paired repeatedly with appetitive events

d)

Motivating operations altering reinforcer effectiveness

99.

Which example illustrates an arbitrary stimulus class?

a)

Red, blue, green as shared color features

b)

Peanuts, cheese, chicken as sources of protein

c)

Tall, short, medium as dimensional sizes

d)

Wood, metal, plastic as material categories

100.

What distinguishes a discriminative stimulus (SD)?

a)

It eliminates spontaneous recovery effects

b)

It produces extinction bursts reliably

c)

It signals that punishment will be delivered

d)

Responses in its presence have been reinforced

101.

Which statement defines stimulus delta (SΔ)?

a)

A stimulus correlated with intense punishment contingencies

b)

A stimulus producing automatic reinforcement effects

c)

A stimulus correlated with no reinforcement for a response

d)

A stimulus establishing operations for deprivation states

102.

Stimulus equivalence emerges when accurate responding occurs to which relations?

a)

Only trained stimulus–response relations during shaping

b)

Punisher–stimulus pairings under avoidance schedules

c)

Untrained stimulus–stimulus relations after training

d)

Motivating operation–stimulus pairings without history

103.

Which option correctly matches the three defining properties of stimulus equivalence?

a)

Reflexivity: A = A

b)

Symmetry: A = B then B = A

c)

Transitivity: A = B and B = C then A = C

d)

Generalization: A similar to A then A = B

104.

Reflexivity requires the learner to do what without prior training?

a)

Derive relations across three linked stimuli

b)

Select a comparison identical to the sample

c)

Reverse trained sample–comparison relations

d)

Emit escape behavior to avoid aversive events

105.

Symmetry is demonstrated when a learner shows which pattern?

a)

If A predicts reinforcement under SD

b)

If A = A across varying modalities

c)

If A = B and B = C then A = C

d)

If A = B then B = A without training

106.

Transitivity in equivalence is shown by which derived relation?

a)

If B suppresses responding under SΔ

b)

If A leads to reinforcement under SD

c)

If A = A in identity matching

d)

If A = B and B = C then A = C

107.

Which statement best describes Match to Sample (MTS)?

a)

A tactic for thinning reinforcement to reduce bursts

b)

A procedure selecting comparison stimuli that match a sample

c)

A schedule delivering reinforcement after fixed intervals

d)

A method pairing neutral stimuli with reinforcers

108.

In MTS, what contingency produces reinforcement?

a)

Avoiding contact with the aversive stimulus

b)

Emitting more responses during extinction bursts

c)

Choosing any comparison at random under SΔ

d)

Selecting the comparison that matches the sample

109.

Stimulus discrimination training typically involves which arrangement?

a)

Multiple behaviors, multiple consequences

b)

Two behaviors, one antecedent condition

c)

One behavior, two antecedent stimulus conditions

d)

One behavior, one antecedent condition

110.

Concept formation is best described as:

a)

Generalization only within identical exemplars

b)

Complex stimulus control combining generalization and discrimination

c)

Simple reinforcement without stimulus control

d)

Response maintenance after intervention ends

111.

Response generalization refers to:

a)

Stopping behavior in the absence of reinforcement

b)

The same response across different settings

c)

Discriminating between identical stimuli

d)

Untrained responses that are functionally equivalent

112.

Setting/situational generalization is demonstrated when:

a)

The target behavior occurs in a different setting

b)

Only the trained response is emitted

c)

Reinforcement schedules are increased

d)

The learner stops responding in novel contexts

113.

Instructional setting is the environment where instruction occurs and includes:

a)

Unplanned aspects affecting generalization

b)

All elements shaping learning and transfer

c)

Planned aspects that influence acquisition

d)

Only the physical room layout

114.

Generalization setting is defined as:

a)

A context where training cannot be performed

b)

Any location identical to instructional setting

c)

Only clinical environments supervised by practitioners

d)

A place differing meaningfully from instructional setting

115.

Generalization across subjects means:

a)

Changes occur only within a single individual

b)

Behavior changes in untreated people due to contingencies applied to others

c)

Each person receiving direct reinforcement experiences change

d)

Only the practitioner’s behavior changes across clients

116.

Which term describes behavior whose reinforcement is mediated by a listener and includes vocal and non-vocal forms?

a)

Generalized conditioned reinforcement

b)

Formal properties of topography

c)

Functional analysis of contingencies

d)

Verbal behavior mediated by a listener

117.

Which best defines formal properties of language?

a)

Audience effects on speakers

b)

Consequences following responses

c)

Form and structure of a response

d)

Causes controlling a response

118.

Functional properties of language involve which focus?

a)

Topography of speech

b)

Syntax and composition

c)

Causes of the response

d)

Phonology and articulation

119.

Formal similarity occurs when what condition is met?

a)

Equivalent motivating operations

b)

Shared audience and reinforcement

c)

Matching consequences across responses

d)

Same sense mode and physical resemblance

120.

Point-to-point correspondence requires which relation?

a)

Equivalent motivating operation

b)

Beginning, middle, end each match

c)

Identical reinforcement schedule

d)

Shared audience and setting

121.

Which operants commonly have point-to-point correspondence?

a)

Echoic responses

b)

Textual behavior

c)

Intraverbal exchanges

d)

Transcription products

122.

Multiple control describes what phenomenon?

a)

Audience solely evokes behavior

b)

Consequences shape topography only

c)

Multiple variables influence a response

d)

Single variable controls one response

123.

Which example illustrates convergent multiple control?

a)

A response produces many reinforcers

b)

One cue evokes several responses

c)

Several cues evoke one response

d)

A single MO suppresses responding

124.

Which example illustrates divergent multiple control?

a)

Single variable controls varied responses

b)

Many stimuli control one response

c)

Audience feedback matches topography

d)

Consequences determine form only

125.

Who provides reinforcement for verbal behavior and may serve as an audience?

a)

Speaker emitting operants

b)

Listener delivering reinforcement

c)

Observer recording topography

d)

Mediator scheduling contingencies

126.

Which statement best defines a verbal operant?

a)

Unit relating response to MO, SD, consequences

b)

Topographical class defined by phonology

c)

Audience-dependent vocalization category

d)

Generalized reinforced speaking behavior

127.

Which description matches a mand?

a)

Evoked by textual antecedents only

b)

Evoked by a motivating operation

c)

Evoked by a verbal discriminative stimulus

d)

Evoked by a nonverbal discriminative stimulus

128.

Which description matches a tact?

a)

Evoked by spoken SD, produces writing

b)

Evoked by verbal SD, no point-to-point

c)

Evoked by nonverbal SD, generalized reinforcement

d)

Evoked by MO, reinforced specifically

129.

Which description matches an echoic?

a)

Spoken SD, produces written product

b)

Verbal SD, point-to-point and formal similarity

c)

Nonverbal SD, generalized reinforcement

d)

Verbal SD, no formal similarity

130.

Which description matches an intraverbal?

a)

Evoked by verbal SD, formal similarity

b)

Evoked by nonverbal SD, generalized

c)

Evoked by MO, specific reinforcement

d)

Evoked by verbal SD, without point-to-point

131.

Which description matches textual behavior?

a)

Nonverbal SD evokes labeling objects

b)

Verbal SD evokes reading aloud, point-to-point only

c)

Verbal SD evokes speech with formal similarity

d)

Spoken SD evokes writing or typing

132.

Which description matches transcription?

a)

Verbal stimulus evokes echoic imitation

b)

Nonverbal stimulus evokes generalized tacting

c)

Printed stimulus evokes spoken response

d)

Spoken stimulus evokes written response

133.

Which pair both lack formal similarity but have point-to-point correspondence?

a)

Textual behavior

b)

Echoic responses

c)

Transcription products

d)

Intraverbal exchanges

134.

Which feature distinguishes echoic from intraverbal responding?

a)

Presence of formal similarity

b)

Elicitation by motivating operations

c)

Specific reinforcement schedules

d)

Control by nonverbal stimuli

135.

A student hears “cat” and says “cat.” Which operant is demonstrated?

a)

Textual reading

b)

Intraverbal chaining

c)

Echoic imitation

d)

Tact labeling

136.

Which best defines stimulus equivalence in behavioral terms?

a)

Responding based solely on physical similarity of stimuli

b)

Reinforcing incorrect comparisons to shape new relations

c)

Selecting any comparison without prior reinforcement history

d)

Accurate responding to unreinforced relations after training

137.

Reflexivity in stimulus relations involves what selection pattern?

a)

Choosing a comparison previously reinforced

b)

Choosing a comparison more salient than the sample

c)

Choosing a comparison opposite to the sample

d)

Choosing a comparison identical to the sample

138.

Symmetry demonstrates which property of trained relations?

a)

Persistence despite extinction procedures

b)

Reversibility of the match between stimuli

c)

Generalization to novel but identical items

d)

Preference for physically similar stimuli

139.

Transitivity in stimulus equivalence is shown when which condition holds?

a)

If A = B and B = C, then A = C

b)

If A ≠ B and B ≠ C, then A ≠ C

c)

If A > B and B > C, then A > A

d)

If A = A without prior training

140.

In a match-to-sample procedure, what is reinforced?

a)

Naming the most salient comparison stimulus

b)

Selecting any comparison without feedback

c)

Selecting the comparison that matches the sample

d)

Avoiding the sample to reduce errors

141.

Derived stimulus relations are characterized by what feature?

a)

Requirement of continuous reinforcement schedules

b)

Restriction to identical objects and labels

c)

Dependence solely on physical properties of stimuli

d)

Emergence without direct training of the relation

142.

Which example illustrates combinatorial entailment?

a)

From A equals B, infer B equals A automatically

b)

Changing emotional response to C after training A with fear

c)

Selecting A when the sample is A without training

d)

From A larger than B and B larger than C, infer A larger than C

143.

Mutual entailment is most similar to which equivalence property?

a)

Symmetry between related stimuli

b)

Transitivity across linked stimuli

c)

Reflexivity within a single stimulus

d)

Generalization based on features

144.

Transformation of function refers to what change?

a)

Stable responding across identical contexts

b)

Altered behavioral effects of a stimulus via relations

c)

Random variation in responding without training

d)

Changed physical properties after conditioning procedures

145.

Generative learning in RFT involves what outcome?

a)

Restricting behavior to trained exemplars

b)

Producing novel responses from relational networks

c)

Memorizing fixed pairs without extension

d)

Avoiding new relations to reduce errors

146.

An arbitrary stimulus class is defined by what commonality?

a)

Shared functional relation, not physical similarity

b)

Shared physical form and structural features

c)

Common manufacturing materials only

d)

Identical sensory properties and colors

147.

Feature stimulus classes are grouped by what property?

a)

Random similarity inferred by the learner

b)

Shared reinforcement history only

c)

Common verbal labels regardless of form

d)

Common physical features or structures

148.

In MTS, how does the sample function in the procedure?

a)

As the stimulus that guides the correct comparison

b)

As the distractor to prevent selection bias

c)

As the reinforcer delivered for correct responses

d)

As the neutral stimulus unrelated to selections