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Worksheets

Block 4

Total questions: 124

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a server?

a)

A server is a system that provides resources or services to users

b)
A server is a software application that runs on personal computers.
c)
A server is a device that connects to the internet for browsing.
d)
A server is a type of computer that only stores data locally.
2.

What is the difference between Single-purpose servers and Multipurpose servers?

a)

Single Purpose servers can provide multiple resources and services at once. Highly flexible

b)

Multipurpose servers can provide multiple resources and services at once. Highly flexible

c)

Single Purpose servers can only provide one service at a time.

More efficient

d)

Multipurpose servers can only provide one service at a time.

More efficient

3.

Which network model allows every computer to communicate with every other computer?

a)

Peer-to-Peer network

b)
Client-Server network
c)
Hybrid network model
d)
Broadcast network system
4.

Which network model has no dedicated servers and by default no computer has more authority than another?

a)
Client-server network
b)
Hybrid network model
c)
Centralized network system
d)

Peer-to-peer network

5.

Which network model has a server used to facilitate communications and resource sharing between other computers on the network known as “clients”

a)

Peer-to-Peer network model

b)

Hybrid network model

c)

Client-Server network model

d)
Mesh network model
6.

A computer on the client-server network managing shared resources for other systems on the network

a)
client
b)
router
c)
switch
d)
server
7.

A computing device that initiates contact with a server in order to make use of a shared resource

a)
Server
b)
Router
c)
Switch
d)
Client
8.

What is a desk top terminal that has no hard drive

a)
Desktop computer
b)

Thick client

c)
Virtual machine
d)
Thin client
9.

A ______ refers to a computer relying heavily on another system to perform its operations.

a)

Server

b)

Thin client

c)

Thick client

d)

Host

10.

What type of workstation computer is also known as a fat or rich client?

a)

Thick client

b)

Thin client

c)
Laptop workstation
d)
Virtual machine setup
11.

What type of workstation computer in a client-server configuration functions independently of the server and only occasionally needs to connect to the central server

a)
Standalone workstation
b)

Thick client

c)
Remote desktop client
d)

Thin client

12.

What type of workstation computer in a client server configuration has many applications installed locally on the client hard drive

a)
thick client
b)
remote workstation
c)
virtual desktop
d)
thin client
13.

What is a personal computer that may or may not be connected to a network and can function independently of a server

a)
Standalone computer
b)
Networked device
c)
Server-based system
d)

Workstation

14.

What are the advantages of a client-server network model

a)

Easier organization and management of resources

b)

Limited to certain areas

c)

Central management of the server

d)

Security

15.

What are the disadvantages of a client-server network model

a)

Security

b)

More expensive in set up and maintenance

c)

Extremely reliant on centralized server/ single point failure

d)

Server performance impacts entire network

16.

What are the two methods of network control

a)
Hierarchical Control and Autonomous Control
b)
Static Control and Dynamic Control
c)

Workgroups

and

Domains

d)
Local Control and Global Control
17.

Work groups are commonly known as ______________ networks.

a)

client

b)
virtual
c)

peer-to-peer

d)
social
18.

Domains are commonly known as ______________ networks

a)
static
b)

client/server

c)
dynamic
d)
managed
19.

What type of server automatically assigns each computer an internet protocol (IP)address from a list of available addresses

a)
Web server
b)
DHCP server
c)
Proxy server
d)
DNS server
20.

What type of server provides a translation or resolution of domain names to IP addresses

a)
Proxy server
b)
Web server
c)
DNS server
d)
FTP server
21.

What type of server acts as a mediator between a client and an external server

a)
Proxy server
b)
Gateway server
c)
Load balancer
d)
Application server
22.

What type of server is used to hide the addresses of all devices on the network from the internet

a)
Firewall server
b)
Proxy server
c)
Web server
d)
Network Address Translation (NAT) server
23.

What type of server is at another location and is shared by multiple web site owners

a)
Dedicated hosting server
b)
Virtual private server
c)

Cloud server

d)
Shared hosting server
24.

What type of server enables users to remotely log on to a host computer and execute tasks

a)
File Transfer Protocol
b)
Remote Access Server
c)

Telnet Server

d)
Web Hosting Server
25.

What type of server allows administrators to manage and store information about resources from a network and application data in a distributed database

a)
File Server
b)
Web Server
c)
Mail Server
d)

Active Directory Server

26.

What type of server is used to store, process and transfer web site data upon request of a visitor’s browser using the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

a)
Database server
b)
Web server
c)
File server
d)
Proxy server
27.

What is a combination of software applications and an operating system tricked into thinking it has dedicated hardware

a)
cloud instance
b)
hardware emulator
c)
system container
d)
virtual machine
28.

Do VMs have a BIOS, hard disk, memory, applications, CPU, and Operating System

a)

Yes

b)

No

29.

The____is the physical computer hardware on which the virtualized environment resides

a)
Cloud platform
b)

Host server

c)
Server instance
d)
Virtual machine
30.

The __________ or __________ is the link managing communications between the host server and virtualized environment

a)
host controller, network interface
b)
data center, storage array
c)
server cluster, application layer
d)
hypervisor, virtual machine monitor (VMM)
31.

 A single virtual environment consists of only one guest OS

a)

True

b)

False

32.

______virtualization is a method of simulating a user workstation so it can be accessed from a remotely connected device

a)
Application
b)
Network
c)
Server
d)
Desktop
33.

Name the three types of desktop virtualization architectures

a)

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure

b)

Presentation virtualization

c)

User Profile Virtualization

d)

Para-Virtualization

34.

What is the most common type of virtualization, partitioning the physical server into smaller virtual servers

a)
Network virtualization
b)
Storage virtualization
c)
Application virtualization
d)
Server virtualization
35.

What are the three main types of server virtualization

a)
Network Virtualization
b)

OS-level Virtualization

c)

Full Virtualization

d)

Para-Virtualization

36.

_________ virtualization allows multiple users to simultaneously access the same application installed on a central server

a)
Network virtualization
b)
Storage virtualization
c)
Application virtualization
d)
Server virtualization
37.

What type of virtualization is used to pool physical storage from multiple, often separate, network storage devices into one logical storage device that is centrally controlled

a)
Network Virtualization
b)
Data Virtualization
c)
Application Virtualization
d)

Storage Virtualization

38.

What are the common applications of virtualization technologies

a)

User interface design tools, Network bandwidth optimization, Security and control

b)

Development and testing, Server pooling

c)

Training, Server consolidation

d)

Load balancing, Disaster recovery

39.

What type of hypervisor has the virtualization software installed directly on the machine hardware? Is also known as the “Bare-Metal” hypervisor

a)
Type 1 hypervisor
b)
Type 2 hypervisor
c)
Type 3 hypervisor
d)
Type 4 hypervisor
40.

What type of hypervisor is installed onto an operating system

a)
Type 1 hypervisor
b)
Type 3 hypervisor
c)
Bare-metal hypervisor
d)
Type 2 hypervisor
41.

What is a disadvantage of a Bare-Metal hypervisor

a)
High performance and efficiency.
b)
Broad support for various operating systems.
c)
Enhanced security features and isolation.
d)
Limited hardware compatibility and flexibility.
42.

What are the four main benefits of virtualization

a)

Environmental issues

b)

Improvised responsiveness

c)

Infrastructure simplification

d)

Total cost of ownership

43.

Server consolidation allows one server to virtually host many once-dedicated servers that may have been underutilized in their stand-alone state.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

A Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) benefit increases a business’s return on investment (ROI) and is achieved by __________, __________, and _________

a)

Utilization of customer value

b)

Increased server utilization

c)

Investing in product outcomes

d)

Decreased management infrastructure costs

e)

Lower costs to deploy new environments

45.

Name the three environmental issues that virtualization addresses

a)

Decreased physical space requirments

b)

Reduced electrical energy consumption

c)

Decreased cooling requirements

d)

Increased area coverage

46.

Dynamically allocating resources to workloads is __________ balancing and improves the efficiency and autonomy of resource management

a)
volume
b)

automatic load

c)
pressure
d)
weight
47.

What are the six main areas of concern regarding virtualization security

a)

Server policies, Applications, Accountability management

b)

Change control, Asset management, Authentication and authorization

c)

Training and education, Patch management, Logging and auditing

d)

Security training, Network capability, Server ownership

48.

When should changes be made to virtualization

a)

When the error text/code is received

b)

Before the virtual session expires

c)

Within approved change control window

d)

Immediately

49.

Organization should create and maintain detailed inventories of software and hardware. This applies to physical and virtual software and falls under the virtualization security concern of __________ and _________

a)

Patch Management

b)

Logging and Auditing

c)

Asset tracking and Management

d)

Education and Training

50.

Define Patch Management

a)

the process of deleting outdated software.

b)

the installation of new hardware components.

c)

the method of creating software from scratch.

d)

the process of managing updates and patches for software and systems to maintain security and protect data.

51.

What shared operating system makes use of container-based virtualization and allows applications on the same server to share the kernel

a)
Windows
b)
macOS
c)

Linux Kernal

d)

Host OS

52.

What are the logical partitions used to separate applications on the same server

a)
server clusters
b)
database instances
c)
load balancers
d)

containers

53.

The main factors limiting the number of virtual machines (VMs) that a host can support are ________ and _________

a)
Storage capacity and power supply
b)
CPU resources and RAM
c)
Operating system and software licenses
d)
Disk space and network bandwidth
54.

For host servers without on-board graphics processing units (GPUs), an adaptor card will be required to be installed on the motherboard utilizing the PCI Express port

a)

True

b)

False

55.

What is a directory

a)
A directory is a protocol for transferring files over the internet.
b)

A directory is a list organizing resources and associates’ characteristics

c)
A directory is a physical location for storing hardware components.
d)
A directory is a type of software application for managing tasks.
56.

What is an advanced hierarchical directory service (proprietary to Microsoft) used for managing permissions and user/group access to network resource

a)
User Access Control
b)
Network Resource Manager
c)
Active Directory
d)
Group Policy Object
57.

Active Directory has a tree-like structure (like the hierarchy of folders and subfolders) consisting of forests, trees, domains, organizational units, objects, and sites.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Active Directory is divided into __________ and _________ structures for grouping network components

a)
units and categories
b)

logical and physical

c)
groups and containers
d)
sections and divisions
59.

What are the ten components of Active Directory’s logical structure

a)

Partition, Configuration, Schema, Objects

b)

Domain, Domain Tree, Forest, Leaf

c)

Forest Root, Forest, Organizational Unit

d)

Sites, Domain Controller, Forest

60.

Where is the Active Directory information segregated and logically stored

a)

Domain

b)

Partition

c)

Configuration

d)

Forest Root

61.

What are the three partitions of the domain controller

a)

Configuration

b)

Network

c)

Domain

d)

Schema

62.

What Active Directory container consists of a set of object classes, attributes and syntaxes

a)

Forest

b)

Partition

c)

Domain

d)

Schema

63.

__________ containers define the rules that ensure objects are created and modified with consistency

a)

Virtual

b)

Domain

c)

Configuration

d)

Schema

64.

What Active Directory resource defines the rules that ensure objects are created and modified with consistency

a)
Active Directory Users and Computers
b)
Active Directory Group Policy
c)
Active Directory Schema
d)
Active Directory Domain
65.

What is an attribute

a)
An attribute is a function that processes data.
b)
An attribute is a characteristic or property of an object.
c)
An attribute is a method for data manipulation.
d)
An attribute is a type of data structure.
66.

_______________ is the container that stores configuration objects for the entire forest

a)

Configuration

b)
Forest Repository
c)
Schema Container
d)
Data Partition
67.

What Active Directory logical structure is a group of users, servers and other resources sharing a centralized database of account and security information

a)
Workgroup
b)
Forest
c)
Organizational Unit
d)
Domain
68.

A domain is a logical security boundary with access controlled by a/an

a)
security protocol
b)
data encryption method
c)
user authentication system
d)

access control list

69.

What is a domain tree

a)
A domain tree is a flat list of network devices.
b)
A domain tree is a type of web hosting service.
c)
A domain tree is a collection of email accounts.
d)

A domain tree is a collection of one or more domains that share a common namespace

70.

What is at the top of the Active Directory structure and consists of one or more domain trees

a)

Forest

b)
Domain
c)
Organizational Unit
d)

Tree

71.

Which logical Active Directory component provides the foundation for the active directory infrastructure and is the first domain to be created

a)
Organizational unit
b)

Forest root

c)
Domain controller
d)
Global catalog
72.

Domains created after the forest root are known as

a)
root domains
b)
child domains
c)
parent domains
d)
sibling domains
73.

What subdivision in Active Directory would you place users, groups, or computers

a)
Security Group
b)
Organizational Unit (OU)
c)
User Group
d)
Domain Controller
74.

What is an object in Active Directory

a)
An object in Active Directory is a distinct entity that represents a resource.
b)
An object in Active Directory is a network protocol.
c)
An object in Active Directory is a software application.
d)
An object in Active Directory is a type of user account.
75.

What is the end point of a branch in Active Directory

a)
Intermediate node
b)

Root

c)

Branch

d)

Leaf

76.

What is the difference between a site and a domain

a)
A domain refers to the server, and a site is the network connection.
b)

A domain maps the logical structure of an organization and a site maps the physical structure of a network

c)
A domain is a type of website, while a site is a web service.
d)
A domain is the content, and a site is the web address.
77.

Name the five components that make up the Active Directory physical structure

a)
Servers, Networks, User Accounts, Policies, Active Directory Users
b)
Domains, IP Addresses, Security Groups, Trusts, Active Directory Management
c)
Workstations, Firewalls, Backup Systems, Permissions, Active Directory Tools
d)

Sites, Domain Controllers, Domain Clients, Member Servers, Global Catalog Server

78.

What manages the domain security policy

a)
Domain Controller
b)
Web Server
c)
File Server
d)
Network Switch
79.

What are the responsibilities of the domain controller

a)

Enforcing policies

b)

Security

c)

Replication

d)

Authenticating

users

80.

Users can authenticate and log into the Air Force network if the domain controller is down

a)

True

b)

False

81.

The global catalog server is part of Active Directory’s physical structure and allows access to network resources in other domains within a forest or tree

a)

True

b)

False

82.

The ____________    server includes Active directory objects from all domains in a forest

a)
Active Directory Site
b)
Global Catalog
c)
Domain Controller
d)
Forest Root
83.

_____________ servers are usually used for dedicated purposes such as FTP, print servers, application servers, or web servers

a)
Shared servers
b)
Virtual servers
c)
Cloud servers
d)

Members servers

84.

What are some examples of member servers

a)

Database Servers

b)

Application Servers

c)

Print Servers

d)

File Servers

e)

Web Servers

85.

What is a domain client

a)

A domain client is a computer that has an account in Active Directory

b)
A domain client is a type of server that manages user accounts.
c)
A domain client is a network protocol for data transmission.
d)
A domain client is a hardware device that stores user data locally.
86.

What is the purpose of DNS

a)
The purpose of DNS is to manage server hardware.
b)
The purpose of DNS is to store website content.
c)
The purpose of DNS is to encrypt internet traffic.
d)
The purpose of DNS is to resolve domain names to IP addresses.
87.

What three components make up DNS

a)

Resolvers, Name servers, Resources records

b)

Gateway, Filters, Routers

c)

Servers, Records, Caching

d)

Client, Cache, Proxy

88.

What is any host or client on the internet needing to look up domain information (can be software as well)

a)
DNS resolver
b)
IP address resolver
c)
Domain server
d)
DNS client
89.

What entry in the DNS database contains information regarding the domain names.

a)

Name Servers

b)

Caching

c)

Resolvers

d)

Resource Records

90.

Resource records are contained in files called __________

a)
data files
b)
zone files
c)
config files
d)
record files
91.

What are the name server roles

a)

Primary name server, Secondary name server, Caching

b)

Static name server, Dynamic name server, Primary name Server

c)

Dynamic name server, Caching name server, Primary name server

d)

Primary name server, Dominos pizza, Waffle house

92.

What zone in the DNS name space resolves a host name to an IP address

a)

Forward Lookup Zone

b)

Reserve Lookup Zone

93.

What zone in the DNS name space resolves IP addresses to host names

a)

Forward Lookup Zone

b)

Reverse Lookup Zone

94.

A DNS query is also known as a __________

a)
DNS request
b)
DNS response
c)
DNS query type
d)
DNS lookup
95.

What are the three types of DNS queries

a)
Recursive, Iterative, Non-recursive
b)
Static, Dynamic, Temporary
c)
Simple, Complex, Advanced
d)
Direct, Indirect, Hybrid
96.

What type of query occurs when a DNS client provides a host name and the DNS resolver “must” provide an answer or error message. Uses delegation

a)
Iterative query
b)
Recursive query
c)
Forwarding query
d)
Caching query
97.

What type of DNS query occurs when a DNS client provides a host name and the DNS resolver returns the “best” answer it can

a)
Iterative query
b)
Forwarding query
c)
Recursive query
d)
Caching query
98.

What type of DNS query occurs when a response is immediately returned to the client because the record is stored in a local cache

a)
Cache hit
b)

Non-recursive query

c)
DNS timeout
d)
Cache miss
99.

What is the purpose of DHCP

a)
DHCP is used to enhance network security and prevent unauthorized access.
b)
The purpose of DHCP is to manually configure IP addresses for each device.
c)

The purpose of DHCP is to automatically assign IP addresses to clients

d)
DHCP serves to monitor network traffic and optimize bandwidth usage.
100.

What protocol automatically assigns an IP address to clients during the log in process

a)
ICMP
b)
RARP
c)
DHCP
d)
ARP
101.

What is typically the time to live (TTL) for a leased IP address

a)

3 days

b)
48 hours
c)
12 hours
d)
1 week
102.

What is a DHCP scope

a)
A DHCP scope is a fixed IP address assigned to a device.
b)
A DHCP scope is a type of network protocol for data transfer.
c)
A DHCP scope is a configuration file for network settings.
d)
A DHCP scope is a range of IP addresses available for assignment by a DHCP server.
103.

What information is required to set up a DHCP scope

a)

Lease duration

b)

Exclusions and delay

c)

A subnet mask

d)

The starting and ending IP addresses

e)

Name the scope

104.

DHCP servers share their database of leased IP addresses with other DHCP servers.

a)
True
b)
False
105.

What is a DHCP lease

a)
A protocol for managing network traffic.
b)
A temporary assignment of an IP address by a DHCP server.
c)
A method for securing network connections.
d)
A permanent allocation of a static IP address.
106.

What is the four-step process for obtaining a DHCP lease for an IP address

a)
1) DHCP Initiate, 2) DHCP Response, 3) DHCP Approval, 4) DHCP Completion
b)
1) DHCP Signal, 2) DHCP Suggestion, 3) DHCP Inquiry, 4) DHCP Validation
c)
1) DHCP Start, 2) DHCP Proposal, 3) DHCP Confirmation, 4) DHCP Finalization
d)
1) DHCP Discover, 2) DHCP Offer, 3) DHCP Request, 4) DHCP Acknowledgment
107.

During which step in the DHCP process does the client broadcast a request for a DHCP server

a)
DHCP Acknowledge
b)
DHCP Offer
c)
DHCP Discover
d)
DHCP Request
108.

During which step in the DHCP process does the DHCP server offer an address to the client

a)
DHCPREQUEST
b)
DHCPDISCOVER
c)
DHCPACK
d)
DHCPOFFER
109.

What is the next step in the DHCP process after the client has been offered an IP address

a)
The client waits for a DHCP Lease time to expire.
b)
The server sends a DHCP Decline message.
c)
The client receives a DHCP Acknowledgment message.
d)
The client sends a DHCP Request message.
110.

During which step in the DHCP process does the DHCP server assign the IP address or other DHCP option

a)
DHCP Acknowledgment
b)
DHCP Discover
c)
DHCP Offer
d)
DHCP Request
111.

What are software solutions that improve speed, security, and operability of applications

a)
database management systems
b)
network monitoring tools
c)
user interface frameworks
d)

application services

112.

Services are utility programs that run silently in the background to monitor and take care of subsystems to ensure OS operability

a)

True

b)

False

113.

What Windows service was developed by Microsoft for Windows networks and is included in most Microsoft Windows Server systems

a)

Windows Firewall Services

b)

Group Policy Services

c)
Remote Desktop Services
d)

Active Directory Services

114.

What Windows service speeds up operating system and application startup by caching to RAM frequently used files, libraries, and application components

a)

Superfetch / Prefetch

b)

Daemons

c)
Disk Cleanup
d)
ReadyBoost
115.

What Windows service facilitates throttled, prioritized, and asynchronous file transfer between machines via idle bandwidth and plays a key role in the delivery of software updates from servers to clients

a)
File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
b)
Windows Update Service (WUS)
c)
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
d)
Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS)
116.

Define DNS Client Service

a)
The DNS Client Service monitors server performance and uptime.
b)
The DNS Client Service manages network traffic and bandwidth.
c)
The DNS Client Service encrypts data for secure transmission.
d)
The DNS Client Service translates domain names into IP addresses and caches results.
117.

What Windows service allows users to easily locate shared resources on neighboring computers

a)
Resource Locator
b)

Computer Browser Service

c)
File Sharing Service
d)
Network Discovery
118.

What does Internet Connection Sharing (ICS) Service enable

a)

ICS enables the use of one device on a network as an access point for other devices

b)
ICS restricts internet access to specific devices.
c)
ICS allows only one device to connect to the internet.
d)
ICS improves internet speed for all devices.
119.

What does the Routing and Remote Access Service make possible

a)
It makes remote access and routing of network traffic possible.
b)
It allows for local area network management.
c)
It provides a platform for web hosting services.
d)
It enables secure file sharing over the internet.
120.

What two ways can administrators view and manage services in Windows

a)

Service control management and Task management

b)
Task Manager and PowerShell
c)
Event Viewer and Registry Editor
d)
Control Panel and File Explorer
121.

A _________ is simply an executable program developed for the end user

a)
software
b)

process

c)
program
d)
application
122.

Which Processes should never be deleted because if terminated can cause a freeze or crash

a)

Windows Session Manager

(smss.exe)

Windows Shell Experience Host

(ShellExperienceHost.exe)

b)

Windows Start-Up Application

(wininit.exe)

Client Server Runtime Process

(csrss.exe)

c)

System (ntoskrnl.exe)

Windows Logon Application

(winlogon.exe)

d)

Windows Explorer (explorer.exe)

123.

Where can Processes be located

a)
Processes can be found in hardware devices, local networks, and web browsers.
b)
Processes are stored in databases, file systems, and user interfaces.
c)
Processes exist in programming languages, network protocols, and data warehouses.
d)

Processes can be located in Windows Task Manager On the processes tab

124.

Accessing the Processes tab via Task Manager and ending a web browser (Chrome, Edge) process will cause irreparable damage to your computer. True or false

a)
False
b)
True