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CCS CCA Rules 1965

Total questions: 118

Worksheet time: 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965 came into force on:

a)

26 Jan 1950

b)

15 Aug 1947

c)

1 April 1966

d)

1 Dec 1965

2.

Which authority has the final power to decide doubts regarding applicability of CCS (CCA) Rules?

a)

Supreme Court

b)

President

c)

DoPT

d)

UPSC

3.

Which of the following is NOT covered under “Government servant”?

a)

Civil post holder under Union

b)

Person on foreign service

c)

Person whose services are lent to State Govt

d)

Railway servant

4.

Central Civil Services are classified into:

a)

Grade A–D

b)

Category I–IV

c)

Group A–D

d)

Class I–IV

5.

Appointments to Group ‘A’ posts are made by:

a)

President

b)

Cabinet Secretary

c)

Prime Minister

d)

UPSC

6.

President may delegate appointment power:

a)

Only once

b)

Never

c)

Only to UPSC

d)

By general or special order

7.

Appointments to Group C posts in Defence Services may be made by:

a)

Comptroller & Auditor General

b)

Officers empowered by authorities

c)

UPSC

d)

President only

8.

“Schedule” under CCS (CCA) Rules refers to:

a)

Authorities

b)

List of Services & Posts

c)

Inquiry procedure

d)

Penalties

9.

Civil posts are classified by:

a)

Parliament

b)

UPSC

c)

President

d)

Ministry

10.

Which service is excluded from CCS (CCA) Rules?

a)

All India Services

b)

Casual employee

c)

Defence civilian

d)

Temporary employee

11.

President can exclude a group of employees from CCS (CCA) Rules by:

a)

UPSC advice

b)

Act of Parliament

c)

Order

d)

Gazette only

12.

Deemed suspension occurs when detention exceeds:

a)

24 hours

b)

48 hours

c)

72 hours

d)

96 hours

13.

Suspension can be ordered when:

a)

Retirement pending

b)

Promotion due

c)

Inquiry contemplated or pending

d)

Inquiry completed

14.

Deemed suspension occurs when detention exceeds:

a)

24 hours

b)

48 hours

c)

72 hours

d)

7 days

15.

Suspension must be reviewed within:

a)

90 days

b)

120 days

c)

60 days

d)

180 days

16.

Suspension order not reviewed within 90 days becomes:

a)

Valid

b)

Permanent

c)

Final

d)

Invalid

17.

Suspension after conviction applies if imprisonment exceeds:

a)

1 month

b)

7 days

c)

48 hours

d)

24 hours

18.

Deemed suspension continues until:

a)

Further orders

b)

Appeal decided

c)

Acquittal

d)

Charge sheet issued

19.

Suspension order can be revoked by:

a)

UPSC

b)

Authority which made it or higher authority

c)

Disciplinary authority only

d)

Appointing authority only

20.

Review committee is constituted by:

a)

CAG

b)

Competent authority

c)

Parliament

d)

UPSC

21.

Suspension is a:

a)

Penalty

b)

Not a penalty

c)

Major punishment

d)

Minor punishment

22.

Suspension can be ordered for activities prejudicial to:

a)

Security of State

b)

Morale

c)

Discipline

d)

Efficiency

23.

How many major penalties are there?

a)

6

b)

4

c)

5

d)

3

24.

Compulsory retirement is:

a)

Minor penalty

b)

Major penalty

25.

Dismissal from service:

a)

Minor penalty

b)

Ordinarily disqualifies future employment

c)

No future bar

d)

Temporary action

26.

Withholding increment for not passing exam is:

a)

Minor penalty

b)

Major penalty

c)

Not a penalty

d)

Penalty

27.

Who can impose any penalty on any Govt servant?

a)

PM

b)

President

c)

Cabinet Secretary

d)

UPSC

28.

Major penalties cannot be imposed by:

a)

President

b)

Appointing authority

c)

CAG

d)

Authority subordinate to appointing authority

29.

Group C employees’ penalties can be imposed by:

a)

President only

b)

Parliament

c)

Head of office

d)

UPSC

30.

Probationer at LBSNAA – minor penalties imposed by:

a)

Director, LBSNAA

b)

UPSC

c)

President

d)

Secretary DoPT

31.

Authority to institute disciplinary proceedings lies with:

a)

UPSC

b)

President or empowered authority

c)

Head of Office only

d)

Appellate Authority

32.

Legal practitioner can assist charged officer when:

a)

In all major penalties

b)

Always

c)

Never

d)

PO is legal practitioner or DA permits

33.

Max time for filing defence statement is:

a)

90 days

b)

30 days

c)

60 days

d)

45 days

34.

Findings different from charge can be recorded only if:

a)

President approves

b)

UPSC agrees

c)

Opportunity of defence given

d)

DA orders

35.

Which element is part of the minor penalty procedure?

a)

Sanction of President is compulsory

b)

Mandatory inquiry in all cases

c)

Prior approval of UPSC always needed

d)

Inquiry if Disciplinary Authority thinks necessary

36.

Communication of orders must include which components?

a)

Findings with reasons and UPSC advice

b)

A fresh charge sheet document

c)

An enclosed appeal form only

d)

Only the penalty imposed

37.

Who may condone delay in filing an appeal?

a)

Union Public Service Commission

b)

President of India only

c)

Competent court of law

d)

Appellate authority concerned

38.

Appeal against an order of suspension is examined under which rule?

a)

Rule 15 of CCS (CCA)

b)

Rule 14 of CCS (CCA)

c)

Rule 10 of CCS (CCA)

d)

Rule 11 of CCS (CCA)

39.

Which of the following is within the appellate authority’s power?

a)

Only confirm the penalty

b)

Only reduce the penalty

c)

Confirm, enhance, or set aside

d)

Only cancel the penalty

40.

Enhancement of a major penalty at appeal requires what precondition?

a)

No inquiry is necessary

b)

Inquiry if not already held

c)

President’s approval alone

d)

Automatic without procedure

41.

In common proceedings, appeal lies to whom?

a)

Authority to which DA is subordinate

b)

President in all cases

c)

Union Public Service Commission

d)

Head of the Office concerned

42.

Revision of disciplinary orders can be undertaken by whom?

a)

President of India only

b)

Specified authorities including CAG

c)

Courts exercising writ powers

d)

Union Public Service Commission

43.

Which power does the revision authority possess?

a)

Only set aside the penalty

b)

Only confirm existing penalty

c)

Enhance the existing penalty

d)

Only remit the entire penalty

44.

Review power in disciplinary matters lies with whom?

a)

President under rules

b)

Appellate authority concerned

c)

Comptroller and Auditor General

d)

Union Public Service Commission

45.

What must the appellate authority consider while deciding an appeal?

a)

Procedure, evidence, and penalty

b)

Only the evidentiary record

c)

Advice obtained from UPSC

d)

Only the prescribed procedure

46.

Commission consultation during appeal decision-making is:

a)

Only for Group ‘A’ officers

b)

Optional in most cases

c)

Never required in practice

d)

Mandatory where required

47.

For a borrowed officer, who is the disciplinary authority?

a)

Union Public Service Commission

b)

President in all cases

c)

Lending authority department

d)

Borrowing authority entity

48.

Major penalty for a borrowed officer is imposed by whom?

a)

Jurisdictional court only

b)

Union Public Service Commission

c)

Lending authority competent

d)

Borrowing authority itself

49.

Conviction-based penalty requires which procedural step?

a)

Needs inquiry

b)

Needs UPSC

c)

Does not need inquiry

d)

Needs appeal first

50.

Common proceedings are ordered by whom?

a)

UPSC

b)

President or competent authority

c)

Disciplinary authority only

d)

Court

51.

Reduction in rank with bar on promotion is classified as what?

a)

Administrative

b)

Not a penalty

c)

Minor penalty

d)

Major penalty

52.

Appeal about subsistence allowance lies under which rule?

a)

Rule 27

b)

Rule 22

c)

Rule 23

d)

Rule 24

53.

Ex-parte inquiry means what?

a)

Without charged officer

b)

Fast-track inquiry

c)

Secret inquiry

d)

Closed inquiry

54.

Non-acceptance of UPSC advice requires what?

a)

Gazette

b)

PM approval

c)

Reasons to be recorded

d)

No reason

55.

Appeal authority can remit a case for what?

a)

Punishment

b)

Fresh inquiry

c)

Dismissal

d)

Recovery only

56.

Review differs from revision because of what?

a)

Lower authority

b)

Only President can review

c)

Automatic

d)

Time bound

57.

Disciplinary authority disagreement with IO requires what?

a)

No reasons

b)

Tentative reasons

c)

Final order

d)

Court permission

58.

CCS (CCA) Rules deal with which area?

a)

Recruitment

b)

Conduct only

c)

Pay and allowance

d)

Classification, control and appeal

59.

Efficiency bar stoppage is considered what?

a)

Penalty

b)

Major penalty

c)

Not penalty

d)

Minor penalty

60.

Inquiry report disagreement must be supplied:

a)

Not required

b)

Only report

c)

Only reasons

d)

Report and disagreement note

61.

Which is the MOST severe penalty?

a)

Removal

b)

Compulsory retirement

c)

Dismissal

d)

Reduction in rank

62.

Answer Key item 1 corresponds to option:

a)

D

b)

A

c)

B

d)

C

63.

Answer Key item 3 corresponds to option:

a)

B

b)

A

c)

D

d)

C

64.

Answer Key item 4 corresponds to option:

a)

C

b)

B

c)

A

d)

D

65.

Answer Key item 6 corresponds to option:

a)

C

b)

D

c)

B

d)

A

66.

Answer Key item 8 corresponds to option:

a)

D

b)

A

c)

B

d)

C

67.

Answer Key item 9 corresponds to option:

a)

D

b)

B

c)

A

d)

C

68.

Answer Key item 10 corresponds to option:

a)

C

b)

A

c)

B

d)

D

69.

Answer Key item 12 corresponds to option:

a)

B

b)

A

c)

C

d)

D

70.

Answer Key item 17 corresponds to option:

a)

B

b)

D

c)

A

d)

C

71.

Answer Key item 24 corresponds to option:

a)

B

b)

A

c)

C

d)

D

72.

Answer Key item 26 corresponds to option:

a)

D

b)

C

c)

B

d)

A

73.

Answer Key item 28 corresponds to option:

a)

D

b)

A

c)

B

d)

C

74.

Answer Key item 30 corresponds to option:

a)

C

b)

B

c)

A

d)

D

75.

Answer Key item 31 corresponds to option:

a)

D

b)

C

c)

B

d)

A

76.

Answer Key item 32 corresponds to option:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

77.

Answer Key item 37 corresponds to option:

a)

D

b)

A

c)

B

d)

C

78.

Answer Key item 38 corresponds to option:

a)

D

b)

C

c)

B

d)

A

79.

Answer Key item 41 corresponds to option:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

80.

Answer Key item 44 corresponds to option:

a)

D

b)

A

c)

B

d)

C

81.

Answer Key item 50 corresponds to option:

a)

B

b)

C

c)

A

d)

D

82.

Answer Key item 53 corresponds to option:

a)

D

b)

B

c)

A

d)

C

83.

Answer Key item 54 corresponds to option:

a)

A

b)

D

c)

B

d)

C

84.

Answer Key item 55 corresponds to option:

a)

B

b)

A

c)

C

d)

D

85.

Answer Key item 56 corresponds to option:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

86.

Answer Key item 59 corresponds to option:

a)

D

b)

C

c)

B

d)

A

87.

Answer Key item 60 corresponds to option:

a)

B

b)

A

c)

D

d)

C

88.

Answer Key item 62 corresponds to option:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

D

d)

C

89.

Answer Key item 64 corresponds to option:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

90.

Answer Key item 65 corresponds to option:

a)

D

b)

C

c)

B

d)

A

91.

Answer Key item 68 corresponds to option:

a)

D

b)

A

c)

C

d)

B

92.

Answer Key item 69 corresponds to option:

a)

D

b)

C

c)

B

d)

A

93.

Answer Key item 73 corresponds to option:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

94.

Answer Key item 74 corresponds to option:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

95.

Answer Key item 75 corresponds to option:

a)

B

b)

C

c)

D

d)

A

96.

Answer Key item 78 corresponds to option:

a)

D

b)

C

c)

B

d)

A

97.

Answer Key item 79 corresponds to option:

a)

A

b)

D

c)

B

d)

C

98.

Answer Key item 81 corresponds to option:

a)

A

b)

C

c)

B

d)

D

99.

Answer Key item 83 corresponds to option:

a)

D

b)

C

c)

A

d)

B

100.

Answer Key item 89 corresponds to option:

a)

D

b)

C

c)

B

d)

A

101.

Answer Key item 91 corresponds to option:

a)

D

b)

A

c)

B

d)

C

102.

Answer Key item 94 corresponds to option:

a)

D

b)

C

c)

B

d)

A

103.

Answer Key item 95 corresponds to option:

a)

B

b)

D

c)

C

d)

A

104.

Answer Key item 96 corresponds to option:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

105.

Answer Key item 97 corresponds to option:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

D

d)

C

106.

Answer Key item 99 corresponds to option:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

D

d)

C

107.

Suspension of a Government servant may be ordered when:

a)

Promotion is due

b)

Disciplinary proceedings are contemplated

c)

Disciplinary proceedings are pending

d)

Criminal case is under investigation

108.

Deemed suspension occurs when:

a)

Convicted and sentenced to imprisonment exceeding 48 hours

b)

Conviction is set aside on technical grounds

c)

Acquitted honorably

d)

Government servant is detained in custody beyond 48 hours

109.

Which penalties ordinarily disqualify a Government servant from future employment?

a)

Compulsory retirement

b)

Dismissal

c)

Removal

d)

Reduction in rank

110.

Which statements regarding major penalties are correct?

a)

Inquiry under Rule 14 is mandatory

b)

Reduction to lower stage with cumulative effect is major penalty

c)

Removal and dismissal are major penalties

d)

UPSC consultation is compulsory in all cases

111.

Legal practitioner may be allowed to assist the charged officer when:

a)

Presenting Officer is a legal practitioner

b)

Disciplinary Authority permits

c)

Inquiry involves complicated questions of law

d)

Charged officer demands it as a right

112.

Which are duties of the Inquiry Authority?

a)

Examine witnesses

b)

Record findings charge-wise

c)

Decide penalty

d)

Allow cross-examination

113.

Revision under CCS (CCA) Rules may be exercised:

a)

Suo-motu

b)

On application

c)

By President

d)

By UPSC

114.

Which situations allow special procedure without inquiry?

a)

Minor penalty cases

b)

Impracticability of inquiry

c)

Security of State involved

d)

Conviction on criminal charge

115.

Which statements about common proceedings are correct?

a)

Saves duplication of inquiry

b)

Appeal lies to UPSC

c)

Single inquiry for multiple employees

d)

Ordered by President or competent authority

116.

Which is NOT a major penalty?

a)

Removal

b)

Compulsory retirement

c)

Dismissal

d)

Censure

117.

Which is NOT mandatory in major penalty proceedings?

a)

Inquiry report

b)

Second show-cause on penalty

c)

Supply of inquiry report

d)

Opportunity to defend

118.

Which is NOT a ground for deemed suspension?

a)

Conviction set aside on technical grounds

b)

Arrest without detention

c)

Conviction with imprisonment

d)

Detention beyond 48 hours

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