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Muscle System Quiz

Total questions: 29

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which best describes the primary function of skeletal muscle in the musculoskeletal system?

a)

Produce movement and stabilize joints

b)

Secrete hormones into blood

c)

Generate electrical impulses for the heart

d)

Filter metabolic waste from blood

2.

Which muscle property refers to the ability to generate force?

a)

Contractility

b)

Excitability

c)

Conductivity

d)

Compliance

3.

Which muscle property refers to the ability to respond to a stimulus (e.g., neural input)?

a)

Excitability

b)

Elasticity

c)

Extensibility

d)

Viscosity

4.

Which muscle property is the ability to be stretched without damage (within normal limits)?

a)

Extensibility

b)

Elasticity

c)

Contractility

d)

Excitability

5.

Which muscle property refers to returning to original length after being stretched?

a)

Elasticity

b)

Extensibility

c)

Excitability

d)

Contractility

6.

The connective tissue layer that surrounds an individual muscle fiber is the:

a)

Endomysium

b)

Perimysium

c)

Epimysium

d)

Fascia lata

7.

The connective tissue layer that surrounds a fascicle is the:

a)

Perimysium

b)

Endomysium

c)

Epimysium

d)

Retinaculum

8.

The connective tissue layer that surrounds the entire muscle is the:

a)

Epimysium

b)

Perimysium

c)

Endomysium

d)

Deep fascia

9.

A sarcomere is best defined as:

a)

The functional contractile unit between Z-discs

b)

A bundle of muscle fibers

c)

The membrane around a muscle fiber

d)

The tendon connecting muscle to bone

10.

During contraction, which filament slides past the other?

a)

Thin (actin) slides over thick (myosin)

b)

Thick (myosin) slides over thin (actin)

c)

Both filaments shorten in length

d)

Neither filament moves

11.

According to sliding filament theory, the I-band during contraction:

a)

Shortens

b)

Lengthens

c)

Stays the same

d)

Disappears and reappears

12.

According to sliding filament theory, the A-band during contraction:

a)

Stays the same length

b)

Shortens

c)

Lengthens

d)

Disappears

13.

What directly binds to actin to allow cross-bridge cycling to begin?

a)

Myosin head

b)

Troponin

c)

Calcium

d)

Sodium

14.

Calcium’s key role in initiating contraction is to:

a)

Bind troponin and shift tropomyosin to expose binding sites

b)

Bind myosin and split ATP directly

c)

Bind actin to shorten thin filaments

d)

Block myosin from binding to actin

15.

ATP is required during cross-bridge cycling primarily to:

a)

Detach myosin from actin and re-cock the myosin head

b)

Allow calcium to enter the sarcomere

c)

Create action potentials in the muscle membrane

d)

Lengthen the thick filament

16.

Where is calcium stored in skeletal muscle fibers prior to contraction?

a)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

b)

Nucleus

c)

Sarcolemma

d)

T-tubule

17.

T-tubules primarily function to:

a)

Conduct action potentials deep into the muscle fiber

b)

Store glycogen for ATP production

c)

Synthesize actin and myosin

d)

Attach muscle to tendon

18.

Which fiber type is generally most fatigue resistant and rich in mitochondria?

a)

Type I

b)

Type IIx

c)

Type IIb

d)

Type IIa

19.

Which fiber type is generally fastest and most fatigable (in humans)?

a)

Type IIx

b)

Type I

c)

Type IIa

d)

Type III

20.

A muscle with fibers oriented at an angle to the tendon (e.g., pennate) generally has greater:

a)

Physiological cross-sectional area and force potential

b)

Fiber length and shortening velocity

c)

Range of motion and excursion

d)

Elastic recoil from tendon only

21.

A fusiform (parallel) muscle is typically better suited for:

a)

Large excursion and faster shortening

b)

Highest maximal force at low velocity

c)

Minimal change in length during contraction

d)

Only isometric stabilization

22.

Which is the best example of a muscle acting as a fixator?

a)

Rotator cuff stabilizing the humeral head during arm elevation

b)

Biceps brachii flexing the elbow

c)

Gastrocnemius plantarflexing the ankle

d)

Rectus femoris extending the knee

23.

In an open-chain movement, the distal segment is typically:

a)

Free to move

b)

Fixed to a surface

c)

Unable to accelerate

d)

Always weight-bearing

24.

Preloading a muscle (countermovement) prior to a concentric action is most associated with the:

a)

Stretch-shortening cycle

b)

Reciprocal inhibition

c)

Fatigue failure principle

d)

All-or-none law

25.

Which statement best describes “preloading” in functional movement?

a)

A rapid eccentric phase that prepares for a stronger concentric action

b)

A prolonged concentric phase to reduce force output

c)

A technique that eliminates elastic energy storage

d)

A strategy that prevents motor unit recruitment

26.

On the force–velocity relationship, concentric force tends to:

a)

Decrease as shortening velocity increases

b)

Increase as shortening velocity increases

c)

Remain constant across velocities

d)

Be higher than eccentric at all velocities

27.

Which contraction type typically produces the greatest force capacity?

a)

Eccentric

b)

Concentric

c)

Isometric

d)

Passive only

28.

Power is defined as:

a)

Force multiplied by velocity

b)

Force divided by time

c)

Work divided by distance

d)

Velocity divided by acceleration

29.

In general, EMG amplitude is best interpreted as an indicator of:

a)

Neural activation level (with context)

b)

Direct muscle force output only

c)

ATP concentration in the fiber

d)

Length–tension curve peak