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Latihan UAS Teori Farmasi

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The abbreviation “bid” on a prescription means:

a)

Once a day

b)

Twice a day

c)

Three times a day

d)

Every hour

e)

As needed

2.

In a prescription, “prn” indicates that the medication is taken:

a)

Before meals

b)

After meals

c)

At bedtime

d)

As needed

e)

Immediately

3.

The abbreviation “po” means the drug is administered:

a)

By injection

b)

By rectum

c)

By mouth

d)

Topically

e)

Intravenously

4.

What does “NPO” instruct the patient to do?

a)

Take medication at night

b)

Take medication orally

c)

Nothing by mouth

d)

No prescription order

e)

No repeat dose

5.

The abbreviation “ac” means:

a)

After meals

b)

At night

c)

Before meals

d)

With meals

e)

Every morning

6.

“tid” in a medication order means:

a)

Twice daily

b)

Three times daily

c)

Four times daily

d)

Every two hours

e)

Once daily

7.

Which abbreviation means “immediately”?

a)

prn

b)

stat

c)

sos

d)

qh

e)

hs

8.

The abbreviation “qs” is best translated as:

a)

Quantity sufficient

b)

Quickly swallowed

c)

Quality standard

d)

Quarter strength

e)

Qualified solution

9.

“IM” refers to which route of administration?

a)

Intravenous

b)

Intradermal

c)

Intramuscular

d)

Inhalation

e)

Intraoral

10.

The abbreviation “gtt” means:

a)

Gram

b)

Drop

c)

Glass

d)

Graft

e)

Gland

11.

“pc” on a prescription means:

a)

Before meals

b)

After meals

c)

With water

d)

At bedtime

e)

Every night

12.

The abbreviation “supp” stands for:

a)

Suspension

b)

Suppository

c)

Supply

d)

Support

e)

Syrup

13.

“top” in a prescription means:

a)

Taken orally

b)

Injected

c)

Applied topically

d)

Taken at night

e)

Taken sublingually

14.

“q4h” means the medication should be taken:

a)

Four times daily

b)

Every four hours

c)

Once every night

d)

Before sleep

e)

Twice every hour

15.

The main purpose of decoding the “sig” is to:

a)

Identify drug price

b)

Translate instructions for use

c)

Determine drug source

d)

Choose brand name

e)

Calculate dose strength

16.

Which drug name is universally accepted and nonproprietary?

a)

Trade name

b)

Chemical name

c)

Generic name

d)

Brand name

e)

Manufacturer name

17.

Paracetamol is classified as a:

a)

Trade name

b)

Chemical name

c)

Generic name

d)

Manufacturer code

e)

Patent name

18.

Panadol® is an example of a:

a)

Generic name

b)

Chemical name

c)

Trade name

d)

Scientific name

e)

Compound name

19.

Which drug name is least used in daily pharmacy practice?

a)

Generic

b)

Trade

c)

Chemical

d)

Brand

e)

Nonproprietary

20.

One generic drug may have:

a)

Only one brand

b)

No brand

c)

Many trade names

d)

One chemical structure only

e)

No therapeutic effect

21.

The main risk of confusing trade names is:

a)

Drug instability

b)

Double dosing

c)

Drug expiration

d)

Packaging damage

e)

Color variation

22.

The chemical name of paracetamol is:

a)

Acetylsalicylic acid

b)

N-acetyl-para-aminophenol

c)

Ibuprofen acid

d)

Propylthiouracil

e)

Acetaminophen sulfate

23.

Which name is used in prescriptions and formularies?

a)

Trade name

b)

Chemical name

c)

Generic name

d)

Manufacturer name

e)

Marketing name

24.

Trade names are legally:

a)

Universal

b)

Non-copyrighted

c)

Owned by one company

d)

Used in research

e)

Assigned by WHO

25.

Why are generic names prioritized in healthcare systems?

a)

They are easier to pronounce

b)

They are cheaper and standardized

c)

They are shorter

d)

They change frequently

e)

They are patient-created

26.

Which pair refers to the same drug?

a)

Paracetamol – Ibuprofen

b)

Panadol – Paracetamol

c)

Amoxicillin – Ibuprofen

d)

Cetirizine – Loratadine

e)

Omeprazole – Ranitidine

27.

Which drug name focuses on marketing and branding?

a)

Chemical

b)

Generic

c)

Trade

d)

Scientific

e)

Pharmacological

28.

A pharmacy technician should always think in:

a)

Trade names

b)

Chemical names

c)

Generic names

d)

Brand slogans

e)

Manufacturer codes

29.

Which name is followed by the symbol ®?

a)

Chemical

b)

Generic

c)

Trade

d)

Scientific

e)

Clinical

30.

Drug name confusion primarily impacts:

a)

Inventory design

b)

Patient safety

c)

Drug color

d)

Label printing

e)

Storage temperature

31.

Tablets are produced by:

a)

Melting drug substances

b)

Compressing powdered drugs

c)

Dissolving drugs in solvent

d)

Mixing oil and water

e)

Freezing suspensions

32.

Which tablet dissolves under the tongue?

a)

Chewable

b)

Enteric-coated

c)

Sublingual

d)

Buffered

e)

Film-coated

33.

Enteric-coated tablets dissolve in the:

a)

Mouth

b)

Stomach

c)

Intestine

d)

Bloodstream

e)

Liver

34.

Capsules primarily function to:

a)

Increase bitterness

b)

Mask taste and odor

c)

Delay manufacturing

d)

Reduce dose accuracy

e)

Prevent absorption

35.

A gelcap contains:

a)

Powder only

b)

Granules only

c)

Oil-based medication

d)

Dry solids

e)

Gas

36.

Troches are designed for:

a)

Injection

b)

Inhalation

c)

Local oral action

37.

Which is a semisolid dosage form?

a)

Tablet

b)

Capsule

c)

Ointment

d)

Syrup

e)

Solution

38.

Ointments are characterized by:

a)

Water base

b)

Alcohol base

c)

Oil base

d)

Gas base

e)

Sugar base

39.

Creams are generally:

a)

Greasy

b)

Oil-based

c)

Water-based

d)

Powdered

e)

Alcoholic

40.

Suppositories melt at:

a)

Room temperature

b)

Freezing point

c)

Body temperature

d)

High pressure

e)

Boiling point

41.

Granules are often used for:

a)

Immediate action

b)

Extended release

c)

Injection

d)

Gas therapy

e)

Sublingual use

42.

Powders are commonly used:

a)

Intravenously

b)

Orally only

c)

Topically to keep skin dry

d)

Intrathecally

e)

Subcutaneously

43.

Transdermal patches deliver drugs:

a)

Through the liver

b)

Via the lungs

c)

Through the skin

d)

Through the stomach

e)

Via oral mucosa

44.

One advantage of transdermal patches is:

a)

Rapid metabolism

b)

GI irritation

c)

Controlled drug release

d)

Frequent dosing

e)

Short duration

45.

Which dosage form is least common in modern pharmacy?

a)

Tablet

b)

Capsule

c)

Pill

d)

Patch

e)

Cream

46.

A solution is defined as:

a)

Drug mixed but not dissolved

b)

Drug completely dissolved

c)

Oil mixed with water

d)

Thick semisolid

e)

Powdered drug

47.

Suspensions must be:

a)

Heated

b)

Filtered

c)

Shaken before use

d)

Frozen

e)

Injected

48.

Syrups contain a high concentration of:

a)

Alcohol

b)

Oil

c)

Sugar

d)

Acid

e)

Protein

49.

Elixirs contain:

a)

Only water

b)

Water and oil

c)

Water, alcohol, and sugar

d)

Powder only

e)

Gas

50.

Tinctures are usually prepared from:

a)

Minerals

b)

Animal glands

c)

Plant sources

d)

Synthetic polymers

e)

Metals

51.

Which preparation uses alcohol as a solvent?

a)

Suspension

b)

Solution

c)

Spirit

d)

Lotion

e)

Paste

52.

Fluidextracts are:

a)

Given directly to patients

b)

Very dilute

c)

Highly concentrated

d)

Gas-based

e)

Sugar-free

53.

Milk of Magnesia is an example of:

a)

Solution

b)

Emulsion

c)

Suspension

d)

Syrup

e)

Elixir

54.

Emulsions typically combine:

a)

Sugar and water

b)

Oil and water

c)

Alcohol and sugar

d)

Powder and gas

e)

Acid and base

55.

Liniments are used for:

a)

Injection

b)

Oral use

c)

External rubbing

d)

Eye drops

e)

Inhalation

56.

Aerosols deliver medication as:

a)

Tablets

b)

Fine mist

c)

Semisolid

d)

Powdered cake

e)

Liquid drops

57.

Ophthalmic preparations are used for:

a)

Ear

b)

Eye

c)

Nose

d)

Skin

e)

Throat

58.

Otic preparations are administered to the:

a)

Eye

b)

Nose

c)

Ear

d)

Skin

e)

Rectum

59.

The main risk of not shaking a suspension is:

a)

Overdosing

b)

Underdosing

c)

Wrong brand

d)

Drug allergy

e)

Label damage

60.

Liquid drugs may be administered:

a)

Only orally

b)

Only topically

c)

Through multiple routes

61.

Oral administration is considered:

a)

Most dangerous

b)

Least convenient

c)

Safest and most common

d)

Fastest onset

e)

Emergency-only

62.

Sublingual drugs bypass:

a)

Lungs

b)

Kidneys

c)

First-pass metabolism

d)

Skin

e)

Blood vessels

63.

Buccal administration places the drug:

a)

Under the tongue

b)

In the stomach

c)

Between cheek and gum

d)

In the vein

e)

On the skin

64.

Parenteral routes bypass the:

a)

Skin

b)

Lungs

c)

Gastrointestinal tract

d)

Liver

e)

Kidney

65.

Which route provides the fastest onset?

a)

Oral

b)

Topical

c)

Intravenous

d)

Rectal

e)

Transdermal

66.

IM injections are administered into:

a)

Veins

b)

Fat tissue

c)

Muscle

d)

Skin surface

e)

Spinal canal

67.

SC injections are given into:

a)

Muscle

b)

Fatty tissue

c)

Veins

d)

Bone

e)

Cartilage

68.

Needle gauge numbers indicate:

a)

Length

b)

Color

c)

Diameter

d)

Volume

e)

Material

69.

A higher gauge number means:

a)

Thicker needle

b)

Shorter needle

c)

Thinner needle

d)

Longer needle

e)

Curved needle

70.

An ampule is:

a)

Multidose container

b)

Plastic bottle

c)

Single-dose glass container

d)

Rubber-sealed vial

e)

Cartridge

71.

Vials differ from ampules because they:

a)

Are glass only

b)

Have rubber stoppers

c)

Are single-use only

d)

Contain powder only

e)

Cannot be reused

72.

Insulin syringes are designed for:

a)

IM injections

b)

IV injections

c)

Diabetic therapy

d)

Oral dosing

e)

Pediatric vaccines

73.

Tuberculin syringes are used for:

a)

Large volumes

b)

Intramuscular use

c)

Small-volume injections

d)

Oral dosing

e)

Transdermal delivery

74.

Contaminated injectable medication should be:

a)

Re-sterilized

b)

Diluted

c)

Discarded immediately

d)

Stored separately

e)

Re-labeled

75.

Correct route selection is crucial because it affects:

a)

Drug color

b)

Packaging

c)

Therapeutic effect and safety

d)

Manufacturer profit

e)

Shelf arrangement

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