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WorksheetsDementia
Total questions: 52
Worksheet time: 26mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Dementia is best defined as which of the following?
a)
Congenital intellectual disability
b)
Acquired cognitive decline impairing activities of daily living
c)
Acute confusional state with fluctuating consciousness
d)
Isolated memory loss without functional impact
2.
The cognitive domain MOST commonly affected early in dementia is:
a)
Procedural memory
b)
Episodic memory
c)
Semantic memory
d)
Working memory
3.
Word-finding difficulty in dementia is termed:
a)
Dysarthria
b)
Apraxia
c)
Anomia
d)
Alexia
4.
Visuospatial dysfunction primarily affects which ability?
a)
Emotional regulation
b)
Language comprehension
c)
Navigation and face recognition
d)
Motor strength
5.
Praxis refers to the ability to:
a)
Recall recent events
b)
Perceive spatial relationships
c)
Execute learned purposeful movements
d)
Perform calculations
6.
Which neuropsychiatric symptom is commonly seen in dementia?
a)
Euphoria
b)
Hallucinations
c)
Catatonia
d)
Mania
7.
A dementia with day-to-day or minute-to-minute fluctuation is characteristic of:
a)
Alzheimer disease
b)
Vascular dementia
c)
Dementia with Lewy bodies
d)
Frontotemporal dementia
8.
The MOST common cause of dementia is:
a)
Vascular dementia
b)
Frontotemporal dementia
c)
Alzheimer disease
d)
Dementia with Lewy bodies
9.
Memory loss is NOT a typical early feature of:
a)
Alzheimer disease
b)
LATE
c)
Frontotemporal dementia
d)
Vascular dementia
10.
Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is characterized by cognitive decline with:
a)
Loss of independence
b)
Prominent behavioral symptoms
c)
Preservation of daily functioning
d)
Acute onset
11.
Which neurotransmitter system is MOST associated with attention and memory?
a)
Dopaminergic
b)
Serotonergic
c)
Cholinergic
d)
GABAergic
12.
Alzheimer disease pathology typically begins in the:
a)
Frontal lobe
b)
Parietal cortex
c)
Entorhinal cortex
d)
Basal ganglia
13.
Early Alzheimer disease MOST commonly presents with:
a)
Executive dysfunction
b)
Episodic memory loss
c)
Personality change
d)
Visual hallucinations
14.
Executive dysfunction with poor planning suggests involvement of the:
a)
Cerebellum
b)
Caudate–dorsolateral prefrontal circuit
c)
Hippocampus
d)
Occipital cortex
15.
Disinhibition and impulsivity are linked to damage of the:
a)
Anterior cingulate cortex
b)
Lateral orbital frontal cortex
c)
Primary motor cortex
d)
Thalamus
16.
Apathy and akinetic mutism are associated with lesions of the:
a)
Amygdala
b)
Anterior cingulate cortex
c)
Occipital lobe
d)
Cerebellum
17.
The SECOND most common cause of dementia in Western countries is:
a)
Dementia with Lewy bodies
b)
Frontotemporal dementia
c)
Vascular dementia
d)
LATE
18.
Mixed dementia commonly refers to coexistence of:
a)
AD and FTD
b)
AD and vascular pathology
c)
DLB and CJD
d)
FTD and HD
19.
Dementia developing concurrently with parkinsonism suggests:
a)
Parkinson disease dementia
b)
Alzheimer disease
c)
Dementia with Lewy bodies
d)
Vascular dementia
20.
Limbic-predominant aging-related TDP-43 encephalopathy (LATE) primarily affects:
a)
Executive function
b)
Visuospatial skills
c)
Episodic memory
d)
Motor control
21.
Chronic traumatic encephalopathy is associated with:
a)
Single severe head injury
b)
Repetitive head impacts
c)
CNS infection
d)
Genetic mutations
22.
In patients <65 years old, the MOST common dementia causes are:
a)
AD and DLB
b)
AD and FTD
c)
Vascular dementia and AD
d)
LATE and AD
23.
The MOST common potentially reversible causes of dementia include ALL EXCEPT:
a)
Depression
b)
Alcohol dependence
c)
Normal pressure hydrocephalus
d)
Huntington disease
24.
Rapidly progressive dementia with myoclonus suggests:
a)
Alzheimer disease
b)
Autoimmune encephalitis
c)
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
d)
Vascular dementia
25.
Benign forgetfulness of aging is characterized by:
a)
Progressive functional decline
b)
Severe executive dysfunction
c)
Non-progressive memory changes
d)
Early visuospatial loss
26.
Amnestic MCI is defined by predominant impairment in:
a)
Executive function
b)
Language
c)
Episodic memory
d)
Visuospatial ability
27.
Dysexecutive MCI primarily affects:
a)
Episodic memory
b)
Attention and executive control
c)
Language comprehension
d)
Praxis
28.
Which factor predicts progression from MCI to AD?
a)
Normal hippocampal volume
b)
Absence of family history
c)
Apo ε4 allele
d)
Intact biomarkers
29.
Early personality change and disinhibition suggest:
a)
Alzheimer disease
b)
Dementia with Lewy bodies
c)
Frontotemporal dementia
d)
LATE
30.
REM behavior disorder is a characteristic feature of:
a)
AD
b)
FTD
c)
DLB
d)
Vascular dementia
31.
Stepwise cognitive decline with stroke history suggests:
a)
AD
b)
DLB
c)
Vascular dementia
d)
FTD
32.
Early-onset dementia (<65 years) is MOST commonly due to:
a)
AD or FTD
b)
DLB or vascular dementia
c)
LATE or AD
d)
CJD or AD
33.
Prominent myoclonus and akinetic mutism on exam suggest:
a)
PSP
b)
CBS
c)
CJD
d)
DLB
34.
Dementia with myelopathy and peripheral neuropathy suggests deficiency of:
a)
Folate
b)
Vitamin B12
c)
Vitamin D
d)
Thiamine
35.
Severe amnesia with mesial temporal MRI hyperintensities suggests:
a)
AD
b)
Autoimmune encephalitis
c)
DLB
d)
Vascular dementia
36.
Faciobrachial dystonic seizures are associated with antibodies against:
a)
NMDA receptor
b)
LGI1
c)
Caspr2
d)
AMPA receptor
37.
Dry skin, hair loss, and bradycardia suggest:
a)
Hyperthyroidism
b)
Hypothyroidism
c)
Cushing syndrome
d)
Addison disease
38.
The MMSE is BEST described as:
a)
Highly sensitive for early dementia
b)
Definitive for dementia subtype
c)
A 30-point screening test
d)
A test of executive function only
39.
Early AD cognitive deficits typically involve:
a)
Attention and alertness
b)
Episodic memory and category fluency
c)
Motor planning
d)
Language comprehension only
40.
Better episodic memory than AD with worse executive function suggests:
a)
LATE
b)
DLB
c)
PDD
d)
Vascular dementia
41.
Routine dementia laboratory evaluation includes ALL EXCEPT:
a)
Vitamin B12
b)
Thyroid function
c)
CSF tau
d)
Electrolytes
42.
MRI finding characteristic of AD is:
a)
Occipital atrophy
b)
Hippocampal and posterior cortical atrophy
c)
Frontal pole atrophy
d)
Basal ganglia lesions
43.
The “cingulate island sign” on FDG-PET is characteristic of:
a)
AD
b)
FTD
c)
DLB
d)
LATE
44.
Amyloid PET is MOST useful for:
a)
Confirming AD in all cases
b)
Excluding AD when negative
c)
Diagnosing FTD
d)
Staging vascular dementia
45.
Low CSF Aβ42 with elevated phosphorylated tau suggests:
a)
DLB
b)
AD
c)
FTD
d)
CJD
46.
EEG periodic sharp wave complexes are MOST suggestive of:
a)
AD
b)
DLB
c)
CJD
d)
Autoimmune encephalitis
47.
First-line pharmacologic agents for agitation in dementia should be used:
a)
Before correcting medical causes
b)
Only after non-pharmacologic measures
c)
At high doses
d)
With anticholinergics
48.
Cholinesterase inhibitors are used in ALL EXCEPT:
a)
AD
b)
DLB
c)
PDD
d)
FTD
49.
Memantine should be used with caution in:
a)
Moderate AD
b)
Severe AD
c)
DLB
d)
Vascular dementia
50.
Anti-amyloid monoclonal antibodies are indicated in:
a)
Severe AD
b)
MCI due to AD
c)
Vascular dementia
d)
FTD
51.
ARIA is a known adverse effect of:
a)
Cholinesterase inhibitors
b)
SSRIs
c)
Anti-amyloid antibodies
d)
Memantine
52.
The PRIMARY goal of non-drug therapy in dementia is:
a)
Cure
b)
Cognitive restoration
c)
Comfort and safety
d)
Symptom elimination
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