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OS UNIT-1 PVPSIT

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best captures one primary purpose of an operating system?

a)

Eliminate all user errors automatically

b)

Increase raw processor clock frequency

c)

Transform compiled code into machine hardware

d)

Provide a convenient program execution environment

2.

What role does an operating system play in resource allocation?

a)

Schedules network packets across routers

b)

Distributes hardware resources fairly and efficiently

c)

Encrypts all stored data by default

d)

Compiles programs into binary executables

3.

Which control function is commonly attributed to an operating system?

a)

Supervision of program execution to prevent errors

b)

Automatic debugging of all source code

c)

Dynamic overclocking of the CPU cores

d)

Guaranteed elimination of I/O latency

4.

Why might a GUI be considered to “waste” CPU cycles on a single-user system?

a)

It blocks access to system memory permanently

b)

It forces all programs to run in kernel mode

c)

It disables multitasking on modern processors

d)

It prioritizes user interaction over raw utilization

5.

In a single-user system, what is the recommended optimization goal for the operating system?

a)

Maximize server throughput

b)

Maximize compiler optimization

c)

Maximize usability for the user

d)

Minimize network jitter

6.

Which statement best explains why a system that appears to “waste” resources might not be wasteful?

a)

Higher CPU usage guarantees faster performance

b)

All resources should remain idle to prevent wear

c)

Improved interaction can enhance overall efficiency

d)

Unused cycles always reduce battery drain

7.

What is the main difficulty in designing a real-time operating system?

a)

Meeting fixed time constraints for tasks

b)

Achieving the highest benchmark scores

c)

Providing perfect graphical fidelity

d)

Supporting unlimited concurrent users

8.

If a real-time task misses its deadline, what is a likely consequence for the system?

a)

Increased screen resolution for graphics

b)

Automatic rescheduling with no impact

c)

Compilation of tasks into faster binaries

d)

Breakdown of the entire system behavior

9.

Which pair of functions together describes OS control responsibilities mentioned in the material?

a)

Supervision of execution and I/O device management

b)

Packet routing and network cable testing

c)

Application design and code refactoring

d)

Battery calibration and power-supply design

10.

Which scenario best justifies allowing apparent resource “waste” on a desktop OS?

a)

Enabling rich GUI features to improve user experience

b)

Disabling virtual memory to reduce disk usage

c)

Running all tasks in real mode for simplicity

d)

Reducing thread counts to avoid context switches

11.

Which statement best describes why kernel mode enforces protection of critical resources?

a)

Kernel mode runs slower than user mode for safety

b)

Kernel mode disables all device communication

c)

User mode lacks access to certain CPU instructions

d)

User mode has larger memory than kernel mode

12.

Which operation is typically restricted to kernel mode to protect hardware devices?

a)

Reading the wall-clock time

b)

Issuing a user-level function call

c)

Accessing an I/O device

d)

Starting an application process

13.

Which of the following is a privileged instruction that should not execute in user mode?

a)

Read the clock

b)

Issue a trap instruction

c)

Switch from kernel to user mode

d)

Modify entries in device-status table

14.

What is the primary reason interrupts can be enabled or disabled only in kernel mode?

a)

To prevent untrusted code from blocking critical events

b)

Because user programs always run faster

c)

To save battery on mobile devices

d)

Because hardware cannot signal in user mode

15.

Which operation can be safely performed in user mode?

a)

Set value of timer

b)

Clear memory globally

c)

Turn off interrupts

d)

Issue a trap instruction

16.

Why might embedding popular applications inside an operating system be argued against?

a)

It prevents kernel-mode execution entirely

b)

It guarantees better performance for all apps

c)

It reduces memory fragmentation only

d)

It introduces security vulnerabilities and bloat

17.

Which capability difference between kernel and user mode most limits what CPU can do in user mode?

a)

Different compiler optimizations

b)

Larger virtual address space in kernel mode

c)

Higher cache latency in user mode

d)

Restricted execution of certain instructions

18.

Choose the list that contains only privileged operations.

a)

Read clock, issue trap, start thread

b)

Set timer, clear memory, access I/O

c)

Open file, print text, create socket

d)

Increment variable, branch, call function

19.

If a user-mode program could disable interrupts, what risk would most likely occur?

a)

Virtual memory would stop mapping pages

b)

Cache would become permanently incoherent

c)

System could miss critical device events

d)

Files would always open read-only

20.

Which design benefit is cited in favor of including applications within the operating system?

a)

Simpler distinction between modes

b)

Automatic hardware compatibility

c)

Guaranteed elimination of security flaws

d)

Better access to kernel features for performance

21.

Which difficulty arises when an operating system stores sensitive data in unprotected memory while using a protected OS partition?

a)

User mode cannot call device drivers directly

b)

Kernel timers fail due to lost interrupts

c)

Unauthorized access to OS data becomes possible

d)

Cache lines evict faster components’ data

22.

What is one possible use of CPUs that support more than two modes of operation?

a)

Guarantee real-time scheduling for all threads

b)

Provide finer-grained security among user groups

c)

Increase disk cache size beyond main memory

d)

Eliminate the need for kernel and user modes

23.

A CPU has multiple user modes distinguishing groups. What capability could this enable?

a)

Users in the same group execute each other’s code

b)

USB devices bypass all driver software

c)

Caches automatically synchronize component clocks

d)

Timers never need periodic interrupts

24.

How could USB device drivers benefit from an additional CPU mode besides user and kernel?

a)

Store passwords inside device firmware

b)

Run in a quasi-user/kernel mode for service

c)

Replace hardware interrupts with polling

d)

Avoid consistency between cache and components

25.

Which approach can a program use to compute current time using timer interrupts?

a)

Continuously busy-wait and count loop iterations

b)

Set a future timer, sleep, update state on interrupt

c)

Query disk controller for timestamp values

d)

Use cache size to store the latest clock ticks

26.

When using timer interrupts to track time, what repeated process helps maintain accuracy?

a)

Continually set interrupts and update local state

b)

Increase CPU modes until drift is eliminated

c)

Flush caches each time data is exchanged

d)

Switch USB drivers to kernel-only execution

27.

Why are caches useful when two components transfer data at differing speeds?

a)

They eliminate the need for interrupts entirely

b)

They buffer with intermediate speed between components

c)

They convert all devices to identical clock rates

d)

They move operating system into protected memory

28.

What problem do caches help solve in multi-component systems?

a)

Preventing USB devices from loading drivers

b)

Creating new CPU execution privilege levels

c)

Guaranteeing monotonic timer scheduling

d)

Bridging speed mismatch during data transfers

29.

What is a key requirement for data stored in a cache relative to component data?

a)

Maintain consistency with component data

b)

Be encrypted with kernel-only keys

c)

Use only user-mode read operations

d)

Remain longer than all disk blocks

30.

If a cache were made as large as the device it caches, what remains a concern?

a)

Reducing CPU modes to a single level

b)

Keeping cached data consistent with device

c)

Running drivers entirely in user space

d)

Eliminating all timer interrupts forever

31.

Which statement best characterizes the client-server model in distributed systems?

a)

Roles are fluid without strict separation

b)

Nodes act as peers with equal responsibilities

c)

Clients request services that servers provide

d)

Any node may serve or request for others

32.

In a peer-to-peer model, how are the roles of nodes typically defined?

a)

Strictly as clients and servers only

b)

As peers that may act as client or server

c)

Clients cannot provide services to others

d)

Only servers provide services to clients

33.

Which scenario best illustrates client-server behavior in the recipe-sharing example?

a)

All recipes stored on a central server node

b)

A node requests a recipe from any peer node

c)

Peers exchange recipes without a central role

d)

Recipes stored on every node equally

34.

What is a key property of peer nodes in the peer-to-peer recipe system?

a)

They can only store local recipes

b)

They may both request and provide recipes

c)

They always forward requests to a server

d)

They never communicate directly with peers

35.

Which issue arises when a cached datum changes in a multiprocessor system?

a)

No update is needed anywhere

b)

All caches must be invalidated instantly

c)

Only main memory needs modification

d)

The cache containing the datum must be updated

36.

Under what conditions can a component be eliminated by an equal-sized cache?

a)

Component retains data only when powered

b)

Cache and component have equal state-saving capacity

c)

Cache is larger but slower than component

d)

Cache is cheaper but volatile only

37.

Why is cache retention after power removal relevant?

a)

It ensures data persists without electricity

b)

It increases network throughput

c)

It speeds up cache write operations

d)

It lowers the cost of faster storage

38.

What affordability trade-off is noted regarding caches?

a)

Equal-sized caches are universally economical

b)

Faster storage tends to be more expensive

c)

Cheaper caches are always faster

d)

Slow storage tends to be unaffordable

39.

In peer-to-peer systems, what may a node do besides requesting a service?

a)

Provide a service to other peers

b)

Act only as a client forever

c)

Forward requests to a central server

d)

Reject all incoming peer requests

40.

What distinction is emphasized in the client-server model?

a)

Fluid node roles without separation

b)

Decentralized storage of all data

c)

Random selection of service providers

d)

Strict roles separating client and server

41.

What is the primary purpose of system calls in an operating system?

a)

Allow user processes to request OS services

b)

Encrypt inter-process messages for security

c)

Schedule processes using preemptive algorithms

d)

Provide device drivers direct hardware control

42.

Which statement best describes the role of a command interpreter (shell)?

a)

Reads commands and invokes system calls

b)

Compiles kernel modules dynamically

c)

Maintains the process table entries

d)

Implements virtual memory paging

43.

Why is the command interpreter usually separate from the kernel?

a)

It stores user passwords securely

b)

It changes frequently compared to kernel

c)

It must run in privileged kernel mode

d)

It requires hardware interrupts to execute

44.

On UNIX systems, which pair of system calls starts a new process from a shell?

a)

init() followed by kill()

b)

spawn() followed by wait()

c)

open() followed by read()

d)

fork() followed by exec()

45.

What does fork() do when invoked by a running process?

a)

Overlays memory with a new executable

b)

Terminates the parent process immediately

c)

Clones the current executing process

d)

Allocates a new kernel thread only

46.

What is the effect of exec() after a successful fork()?

a)

Flushes all open file descriptors

b)

Creates an additional child process copy

c)

Replaces the process image with executable

d)

Switches the process to kernel-only mode

47.

How are system programs characterized in relation to system calls?

a)

Bundles of useful system calls

b)

Independent of kernel interfaces

c)

Primarily graphics libraries

d)

Exclusive to device manufacturers

48.

What benefit do system programs provide to users?

a)

Direct access to hardware registers

b)

Guaranteed real-time performance

c)

Basic functionality without writing code

d)

Automatic recovery from kernel panics

49.

What is a main advantage of a layered OS design?

a)

Guarantees zero latency interrupts

b)

Eliminates need for system calls

c)

Faster context switching overall

d)

Easier debugging and modification

50.

Which is a potential disadvantage of layered OS design?

a)

Potential performance overhead across layers

b)

Inability to port between architectures

c)

Lack of modularity in components

d)

No support for multiuser environments

51.

Which operating-system service ensures a program’s code is loaded into memory and begins running?

a)

Program execution

b)

I/O operations

c)

Communications

d)

Error detection

e)

File manipulation

52.

Which service manages low-level interactions with disks, tapes, and devices through controller-specific commands?

a)

File manipulation

b)

Error detection

c)

Communications

d)

Program execution

e)

I/O operations

53.

Which service handles creation, deletion, naming, allocation, and deallocation of files and blocks?

a)

Program execution

b)

File manipulation

c)

Communications

d)

Error detection

e)

I/O operations

54.

Which service turns messages into packets, sends them over a medium, and reassembles them at the destination?

a)

File manipulation

b)

Error detection

c)

Program execution

d)

I/O operations

e)

Communications

55.

At which levels does error detection occur according to the described operating-system service?

a)

Compiler and linker

b)

Network only

c)

Hardware and software

d)

Application only

e)

Firmware only

56.

Why can’t user-level programs be trusted to allocate CPU time properly during program start?

a)

They lack scheduling control

b)

They have excess memory

c)

They cannot create files

d)

They reorder packets

e)

They detect all hardware faults

57.

Which statement best explains why user programs should not access devices directly?

a)

They always run faster

b)

They might bypass protection

c)

They cannot open files

d)

They guarantee integrity checks

e)

They eliminate packet loss

58.

During file deletion, which step ensures previously allocated blocks become available?

a)

Allocating CPU quanta

b)

Formatting controller tapes

c)

Deallocating file blocks

d)

Caching device registers

e)

Reordering network packets

59.

Which duty in communications requires coordination to avoid packets meant for other processes?

a)

CPU register saving

b)

Disk head scheduling

c)

File renaming policy

d)

Media consistency checks

e)

Device access control

60.

What global responsibility must the operating system perform when errors are process-independent, such as disk corruption?

a)

Centralized error handling

b)

User-level packet routing

c)

Application-managed storage

d)

Direct device programming

e)

Per-file CPU allocation

61.

Which scenario most justifies storing an operating system in firmware rather than on disk?

a)

Laptop with multiple hard drives installed

b)

Desktop with a large RAID array configured

c)

Embedded device without a usable file system

d)

Server using network-attached storage volumes

62.

What is the primary role of a boot manager during system startup?

a)

Load user applications into main memory

b)

Encrypt the boot sector for security

c)

Scan hardware devices for drivers

d)

Select which operating system to boot

63.

Why might a system default to booting a specific operating system if the user makes no selection?

a)

Boot managers are designed with a default

b)

Operating systems require manual confirmation

c)

File systems always mark one partition active

d)

Firmware cannot display any boot menu

64.

Where are boot managers typically stored to be recognized during startup?

a)

In the GPU firmware memory

b)

On removable media like USB sticks

c)

At fixed locations on the hard disk

d)

Inside the CPU instruction cache

65.

If a machine runs Windows and several Linux distributions, what enables choosing among them at boot time?

a)

A scheduler allocating boot priorities

b)

A boot manager presenting selections

c)

A compiler generating multi-boot binaries

d)

A hypervisor switching kernels dynamically

66.

Which statement best explains storing an OS on disk for general-purpose computers?

a)

Disk storage allows flexible file systems

b)

Firmware always lacks address space

c)

Networks require disk-backed paging

d)

CPUs cannot execute firmware images

67.

A system must boot into a default OS unless the user intervenes. Which design choice ensures this behavior?

a)

Disable all non-default boot entries

b)

Configure firmware to bypass disk probes

c)

Place the default kernel in CPU registers

d)

Set the boot manager timeout and default

68.

During the bootstrap process, which component initially runs before any operating system is loaded?

a)

User-level shell interface

b)

Boot manager program

c)

Virtual memory subsystem

d)

Filesystem journaling module

69.

An embedded device lacks persistent disk storage. Which boot strategy is most appropriate?

a)

Store the OS image within firmware

b)

Mount a network filesystem at boot

c)

Install a boot manager on a DVD

d)

Compress the OS into swap space

70.

Which design feature helps a boot manager recognize installed operating systems on startup?

a)

GPU drivers enumerating kernels automatically

b)

Operating systems stored at known locations

c)

Filesystem journaling scanning application caches

d)

CPU microcode mapping partitions to processes

71.

Which component manages process scheduling and resource allocation in a modern operating system?

a)

Kernel and scheduler core

b)

Window compositor module

c)

Bootloader stage manager

d)

File system driver layer

72.

In CPU architecture, which unit primarily handles arithmetic and logical operations on integer data?

a)

Branch prediction unit

b)

Instruction decode queue

c)

Floating-point pipeline

d)

Arithmetic Logic Unit

73.

What is the main purpose of virtual memory in a computer system?

a)

Encrypt process memory pages

b)

Extend RAM using disk space

c)

Improve CPU clock stability

d)

Reduce network packet latency

74.

Which storage technology offers non-volatile memory with low latency and no mechanical parts?

a)

Magnetic tape reels

b)

Spinning hard disk

c)

Solid-state drive flash

d)

Optical Blu-ray disc

75.

Which protocol is commonly used to establish reliable, ordered communication between applications over IP networks?

a)

UDP datagram service

b)

TCP transmission control

c)

ICMP control messages

d)

ARP address resolution

76.

A hash function used in cryptography should primarily provide which property?

a)

Predictable output variance

b)

Guaranteed compression expansion

c)

Deterministic collision resistance

d)

Easy reversibility property

77.

When optimizing a parallel program, which bottleneck is best addressed using Amdahl’s Law analysis?

a)

Network jitter variability

b)

GPU memory bandwidth

c)

Serial fraction limitation

d)

I/O interrupt latency

78.

Which data structure offers average O(1) lookup time using key-based indexing?

a)

Linked list nodes

b)

Binary search tree

c)

Hash table mapping

d)

Priority queue heap

79.

In relational databases, which operation combines rows from two tables based on a matching condition?

a)

Projection column subset

b)

Union set merge

c)

Aggregation group sum

d)

Join relational match

80.

For secure web communication, which protocol layer provides end-to-end encryption between client and server?

a)

SSH for remote shells

b)

DNS over UDP queries

c)

TLS over HTTP connections

d)

SMTP with STARTTLS email