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Page 1

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In the image, a list of roles is shown in Hindi. Suppose a committee has 6 distinct roles and 6 distinct people. How many one-to-one assignments of people to roles are possible?

a)

262^6

b)

626^2

c)

6!

d)

6

2.

The image displays multiple names under different headings. If there are 5 headings and each has exactly 4 names, what is the total number of unique name entries?

a)

24

b)

16

c)

20

d)

9

3.

Assume the positions listed form a hierarchy: one director, three coordinators, and five authors. If a meeting committee requires choosing 1 director, 2 coordinators, and 3 authors, how many distinct committees can be formed?

a)

C(1,1)·C(3,2)·C(5,3)

b)

1·2·3

c)

C(9,6)

d)

C(3,1)·C(5,3)·C(2,2)

4.

Suppose each listed role has a unique badge number from 1001 to 1010. What is the sum of all badge numbers if there are exactly 10 roles?

a)

10070

b)

10065

c)

10060

d)

10055

5.

If the printing press at the bottom processes 240 pages per hour, how long will it take to print 600 pages?

a)

2 hours 30 minutes

b)

2 hours 10 minutes

c)

2 hours 20 minutes

d)

2 hours 15 minutes

6.

Assume the image lists 8 staff members. If two staff must sit next to each other in a row of 8 seats, how many seating arrangements are possible?

a)

2·6·6!

b)

2·7·7!

c)

2·7·6!

d)

2·7!

7.

If a secretary sends emails to all listed people and each recipient forwards the email to exactly 2 new people not on the list, after one forwarding round from 10 initial recipients, how many total people have received the email?

a)

40

b)

30

c)

20

d)

10

8.

The website at the bottom has two parts: domain and subdomain. If the probability a random visitor types the domain correctly is 0.9 and the subdomain correctly is 0.8 independently, what is the probability both are typed correctly?

a)

0.62

b)

0.70

c)

0.72

d)

0.80

9.

Assume each heading in the image corresponds to a department. If the director schedules 3 meetings per department and there are 4 departments, how many meetings are scheduled?

a)

10

b)

12

c)

9

d)

7

10.

Consider the list of roles as nodes in a network, with an edge between roles that collaborate. If the network is complete with n=10 roles, how many collaboration edges exist?

a)

100

b)

10

c)

90

d)

45

11.

Let f(x)= x3−3xx^3−3x . How many critical points does f(x) have on the real line?

a)

One point total

b)

Two points total

c)

Three points total

d)

No critical points

12.

Solve for x: ln(x) + ln(2) = 3.

a)

x=3e2x = 3e^2

b)

x=2e3x = 2e^3

c)

x=e3/2x = e^{3/2}

d)

x=e3−2x = e^{3-2}

13.

Given A is a 2×2 matrix with eigenvalues 2 and −1, what is det(A)?

a)

Determinant equals 1

b)

Determinant equals −1

c)

Determinant equals −2

d)

Determinant equals −3

14.

If g(x)= e2xe^{2x} , compute g'(0).

a)

Derivative value equals 2

b)

Derivative value equals 0

c)

Derivative value equals 1

d)

Derivative value equals e^2

15.

Compute the limit: lim_{x→0} (sin x)/x.

a)

Limit equals 0

b)

Limit equals 1

c)

Limit equals −1

d)

Limit equals does not exist

16.

A sequence is defined by a_n=1/n. What is lim_{n→∞} a_n?

a)

Limit equals does not exist

b)

Limit equals 0

c)

Limit equals ∞

d)

Limit equals 1

17.

For vector v=(1,2,2) and w=(2,−1,0), compute v·w.

a)

Dot product equals 4

b)

Dot product equals 2

c)

Dot product equals 0

d)

Dot product equals −1

18.

If the derivative of h(x) is positive on (a,b), which statement is true?

a)

h has a maximum on (a,b)

b)

h is constant on (a,b)

c)

h is decreasing on (a,b)

d)

h is increasing on (a,b)

19.

Solve: ∫013x2dx\int_0^1 3x^2 dx .

a)

Integral equals 3

b)

Integral equals 1/3

c)

Integral equals 0

d)

Integral equals 1

20.

If P(A)=0.4 and P(B)=0.5 with A,B independent, compute P(A∩B).

a)

Probability equals 0.4

b)

Probability equals 0.9

c)

Probability equals 0.2

d)

Probability equals 0.1

21.

Which unit title corresponds to pages 1–13 in the table shown?

a)

पृथ्वी और आकाश

b)

मृदा तथा फसलें

c)

सरल मशीनें

d)

कार्य व ऊर्जा

22.

Which unit spans pages 14–25 according to the index displayed?

a)

मृदा तथा फसलें

b)

जीवन की क्रियाएँ

c)

जीवों की संरचना

d)

मानव शरीर के अंग एवं कार्य

23.

What is the Hindi title associated with pages 26–37?

a)

पर्यावरण प्रदूषण

b)

कार्य व ऊर्जा

c)

सरल मशीनें

d)

अम्ल, क्षार व लवण

24.

Which section is listed for pages 38–41?

a)

पास-पड़ोस में होने वाले परिवर्तन

b)

मानव शरीर के अंग एवं कार्य

c)

जीवन की क्रियाएँ

d)

सरल मशीनें

25.

Identify the unit linked to pages 42–50 in the index.

a)

जीवों की संरचना

b)

कार्य व ऊर्जा

c)

रासायनिक सूत्र

d)

भोजन, स्वास्थ्य एवं रोग

26.

Which topic covers pages 51–93 as per the list?

a)

पर्यावरण प्रदूषण

b)

भोजन, स्वास्थ्य एवं रोग

c)

मानव शरीर के अंग एवं कार्य

d)

जीवन की क्रियाएँ

27.

Which unit occupies pages 94–127?

a)

रासायनिक अभिक्रियाएँ

b)

मानव शरीर के अंग एवं कार्य

c)

जीवन की क्रियाएँ

d)

सरल मशीनें

28.

What is the unit title for pages 128–158?

a)

भोजन, स्वास्थ्य एवं रोग

b)

अम्ल, क्षार व लवण

c)

पास-पड़ोस में परिवर्तन

d)

मृदा तथा फसलें

29.

Which section spans pages 159–190?

a)

सरल मशीनें

b)

पर्यावरण प्रदूषण

c)

अम्ल, क्षार व लवण

d)

रासायनिक सूत्र, रासायनिक अभिक्रियाएँ एवं तत्वों का वर्गीकरण

30.

Which unit corresponds to pages 210–232 in the index?

a)

पृथ्वी और आकाश

b)

अम्ल, क्षार व लवण

c)

पास-पड़ोस में होने वाले परिवर्तन

d)

पर्यावरण प्रदूषण

31.

Which planet shown between the Sun and Earth is labeled as Mercury in the diagram?

a)

A distant icy world beyond Uranus

b)

The smallest inner planet near Sun

c)

An asteroid belt object between Mars

d)

A ringed gas giant with many moons

32.

In the diagram, which region between Mars and Jupiter is identified as Asteroids?

a)

Neptune’s dark outer ring

b)

A belt of small rocky bodies

c)

A storm on Jupiter’s surface

d)

Saturn’s bright ring system

33.

Which planet in the diagram is farthest from the Sun among the labeled outer planets?

a)

Uranus closer than Neptune

b)

Saturn with prominent rings

c)

Jupiter near the asteroid belt

d)

Neptune at the outermost track

34.

According to the layout, which four planets are the inner terrestrial planets?

a)

Mercury Venus Earth Mars

b)

Venus Earth Saturn Neptune

c)

Jupiter Saturn Uranus Neptune

d)

Earth Jupiter Mars Saturn

35.

Which statement best describes Jupiter’s position relative to the asteroid belt in the diagram?

a)

Beyond the asteroid belt outward

b)

Inside the belt near Mars

c)

Between Earth and Mars

d)

At the center replacing the Sun

36.

Which body is at the center of all planetary orbits in the diagram?

a)

The Sun at the center

b)

Earth as central anchor

c)

Jupiter controlling motions

d)

Neptune guiding the orbits

37.

Which planet is shown with prominent rings in the illustration?

a)

Earth with faint rings

b)

Saturn with visible rings

c)

Venus with wide rings

d)

Mars with icy rings

38.

Which pair represents adjacent planets just outside Earth’s orbit?

a)

Uranus and Neptune

b)

Venus and Mercury

c)

Jupiter and Saturn

d)

Mars and the asteroid belt

39.

Which labeled planet is positioned between Saturn and Neptune in the diagram?

a)

Mercury between Sun Venus

b)

Venus between Earth Mars

c)

Earth between Mars Jupiter

d)

Uranus between Saturn Neptune

40.

Which feature distinguishes inner planets from outer planets in the figure?

a)

Inner massive gas rings

b)

Outer tiny metal surfaces

c)

Inner small rocky orbits

d)

Outer central fiery cores

41.

Which planets are classified as terrestrial (स्थलीय) planets?

a)

Mercury Venus Earth Mars

b)

Jupiter Saturn Uranus Neptune

c)

Earth Mars Jupiter Saturn

d)

Mercury Earth Jupiter Neptune

42.

Which group consists of gas giants (विशाल गैसीय ग्रह)?

a)

Saturn Uranus Neptune Pluto

b)

Mercury Venus Earth Mars

c)

Jupiter Saturn Uranus Neptune

d)

Venus Earth Jupiter Mars

43.

What lies between Mars and Jupiter according to the diagram?

a)

Cometary cloud area

b)

Kuiper belt zone

c)

Asteroid belt region

d)

Interstellar medium

44.

Which items are listed as part of the Kuiper Belt (विवर्तन बेल्ट)?

a)

Triton Oberon Titan

b)

Ceres Vesta Pallas

c)

Pluto Charon Haumea

d)

Io Europa Ganymede

45.

Which statement correctly contrasts stars and planets as described?

a)

Stars emit their own light energy

b)

Planets emit strong nuclear light

c)

Stars do not produce any energy

d)

Planets fuse hydrogen in cores

46.

Which equation relates mass and energy in the text?

a)

F equals m a linear

b)

E equals m c squared

c)

V equals I R Ohm

d)

p equals m v scalar

47.

According to the content, which process powers the Sun’s energy output?

a)

Radioactive decay only

b)

Gravitational potential fall

c)

Chemical combustion flames

d)

Hydrogen fusion reactions

48.

Which dwarf planet category decision was made in 2006?

a)

Pluto classified as dwarf planet

b)

Ceres moved to gas giant

c)

Mars defined as ice giant

d)

Neptune made terrestrial

49.

Which is the closest planet to the Sun?

a)

Mercury closest inner orbit

b)

Earth third inner orbit

c)

Mars fourth inner orbit

d)

Venus second inner orbit

50.

Which are examples of small solar system bodies between Mars and Jupiter?

a)

Meteors atmospheric streaks

b)

Moons natural satellites

c)

Comets icy tails

d)

Asteroids rocky fragments

51.

Which constellation is commonly recognized by a W-shaped asterism in the night sky?

a)

Polaris shows a W-shaped pattern

b)

Orion shows a W-shaped pattern

c)

Cassiopeia shows a W-shaped pattern

d)

Ursa Major shows a W-shaped pattern

52.

What feature makes Orion easy to identify for observers?

a)

Its seven bright stars in a dipper form

b)

Its distinctive three-star belt alignment

c)

Its symmetric W pattern of five stars

d)

Its single brightest star near the pole

53.

Ursa Major is often used to locate which notable star?

a)

Betelgeuse near Orion

b)

Polaris near the north

c)

Sirius near Cassiopeia

d)

Rigel near the south

54.

Why do most stars appear to change position over the night while Polaris seems fixed?

a)

Polaris is much closer than other stars

b)

Stars move randomly at high speeds

c)

Earth rotates about an axis aligned with Polaris

d)

Earth orbits the Sun causing parallax

55.

Which statement about constellations is most accurate?

a)

They are planets reflecting sunlight

b)

They are single stars with multiple names

c)

They are visual patterns seen from Earth

d)

They are physical groups bound strongly

56.

Which pair correctly matches constellation and identifying feature?

a)

Polaris — Constellation with seven stars

b)

Cassiopeia — Dipper with a long handle

c)

Ursa Major — Orion’s belt of three stars

d)

Orion — Three aligned belt stars

57.

What is the primary reason some stars look faint while others are bright?

a)

Brightness depends only on color hue

b)

Brightness depends only on Earth’s seasons

c)

Brightness depends on distance and intrinsic luminosity

d)

Brightness depends only on telescope type

58.

Which step is best to locate Polaris using Ursa Major?

a)

Extend the line through the two pointer stars

b)

Find the three-star belt then move eastward

c)

Locate the W pattern and move southward

d)

Draw a line from Sirius to Betelgeuse

59.

What describes Earth’s motion relevant to apparent star movement?

a)

Earth precesses hourly around the Sun

b)

Earth translates monthly through constellations

c)

Earth rotates daily on its axis

d)

Earth vibrates annually causing twinkle

60.

Which constellation from the diagram contains the star Betelgeuse?

a)

Ursa Major

b)

Cassiopeia

c)

Orion

d)

Polaris

61.

In the diagram, a star appears with a long tail pointing away from the Sun. Which phenomenon best explains the tail’s direction relative to the Sun?

a)

Gravitational pull focusing dust toward the Sun

b)

Radiation pressure pushing dust away from the Sun

c)

Magnetic field trapping gas toward the Sun

d)

Tidal forces dragging debris toward the Sun

62.

A comet’s tail length increases when it is near the Sun. What is the primary cause of this increase?

a)

Shadowing blocks solar radiation

b)

Heating causes sublimation of ices

c)

Cooling of nucleus reduces gas release

d)

Collisions compress tail material

63.

Which statement correctly distinguishes a comet’s tail from its nucleus?

a)

Tail is rocky core, nucleus is metallic

b)

Tail is dense, nucleus is diffuse gas

c)

Tail is ionized and dusty, nucleus is solid

d)

Tail is solid, nucleus is ionized plasma

64.

Sometimes a comet appears to break apart. Which mechanism most plausibly causes fragmentation near perihelion?

a)

Thermal stress from intense heating

b)

Low solar flux reducing sublimation

c)

Uniform cooling of the entire nucleus

d)

Stable rotation preventing cracks

65.

In an atmosphere, small particles heated by sunlight can burn or evaporate. Which process primarily governs their disappearance?

a)

Adiabatic expansion cooling particles

b)

Elastic scattering preventing heating

c)

Radiative heating causing ablation

d)

Isothermal compression protecting particles

66.

A planet with a strong atmosphere shows a glowing trail when small meteoroids enter. What causes the glow?

a)

Fusion reactions in meteoroids

b)

Absorption of starlight by dust

c)

Electrostatic discharge with ground

d)

Frictional heating from air drag

67.

Which factor most increases the curvature of a comet’s path around the Sun?

a)

Stronger gravitational acceleration

b)

Higher tangential speed at perihelion

c)

Longer tail length

d)

Lower mass of the comet nucleus

68.

Shadows form when light travels in straight lines and is blocked by an object. Which term describes the fully dark region behind the object?

a)

Antumbra

b)

Penumbra

c)

Umbra

d)

Albedo

69.

A partial shadow where some light reaches the region is called what?

a)

Antumbra

b)

Penumbra

c)

Umbra

d)

Eclipse zone

70.

During daylight, you see your shadow on the ground. What immediate cause determines the shadow’s direction?

a)

Speed of Earth’s rotation

b)

Temperature of the ground surface

c)

Position of the Sun relative to you

d)

Orientation of Earth’s magnetic field

71.

In the diagram, rays SA and SB define a shadow region PQ on a screen XY for an opaque object AB. Which term best describes the fully dark region where no light reaches?

a)

Umbra region with complete darkness

b)

Diffraction zone with bright fringes

c)

Penumbra region with partial light

d)

Antumbra region with reversed image

72.

When the distance between the object and the screen increases while keeping the point light source fixed, what happens to the shadow’s size on the screen?

a)

Shadow stays constant in size

b)

Shadow becomes smaller and sharper

c)

Shadow splits into multiple parts

d)

Shadow becomes larger and more spread

73.

For a point light source S and opaque object AB, if only part of light reaches region DC–EF while DE is dark, what does DC–EF represent in shadow terminology?

a)

Caustic with focused rays

b)

Umbra with no illumination

c)

Penumbra with partial illumination

d)

Antumbra with reduced size

74.

If the point light source moves closer to the object while the screen position is fixed, how does the umbra on the screen change?

a)

Umbra increases and becomes wider

b)

Umbra decreases and narrows

c)

Umbra remains unchanged

d)

Umbra disappears completely

75.

In the second diagram, lines through S to the object edges form boundaries meeting the screen at P and Q. What do these boundary lines represent physically?

a)

Normal vectors to the surface

b)

Iso-intensity contour lines

c)

Extremal rays defining shadow limits

d)

Reflected rays from the screen

76.

When the opaque object is small and the source is relatively large, which shadow feature is more prominent on the screen?

a)

Umbra region dominates area

b)

No shadow forms anywhere

c)

Caustic bright band appears

d)

Penumbra region dominates area

77.

As the screen moves farther from both the source and the object, what happens to the divergence and apparent size of the shadow boundaries?

a)

Boundaries curve due to refraction

b)

Divergence stays the same always

c)

Divergence decreases and size shrinks

d)

Divergence increases and size enlarges

78.

In constructing shadows from a point source, why do regions like DE appear dark while nearby regions like DC–EF are partially lit?

a)

Geometry blocks rays to DE

b)

Material absorbs all colors

c)

Screen reflects less light

d)

Source intensity fluctuates randomly

79.

Which procedure correctly builds a shadow diagram for a point source and an opaque block?

a)

Draw rays from source to object edges

b)

Draw normals from screen to source

c)

Draw equal intensity circles around source

d)

Draw reflected rays from screen to source

80.

Which region of shadow causes a total solar eclipse for an observer on Earth?

a)

Diffuse scattered sunlight

b)

Penumbra region of the Moon

c)

Umbra region of the Moon

d)

Antumbra beyond the Moon

81.

As distance from the obstructing object increases, how do umbra and penumbra sizes change?

a)

Umbra widens, penumbra narrows

b)

Both decrease uniformly in size

c)

Both remain constant in size

d)

Umbra narrows, penumbra widens

82.

During a lunar eclipse, what casts the shadow causing darkness on the Moon?

a)

Moon’s shadow on Earth

b)

Sun’s shadow on the Moon

c)

Earth’s shadow on the Moon

d)

Clouds blocking moonlight

83.

When the Sun, Earth, and Moon are nearly collinear and the Moon is between Earth and Sun, which event is possible?

a)

Solar eclipse observable on Earth

b)

Transit of Earth across Sun

c)

No eclipse can occur

d)

Lunar eclipse observable on Earth

84.

What alignment prevents sunlight from reaching a portion of Earth during a solar eclipse?

a)

Sun lies between Earth and Moon

b)

Moon lies behind Earth’s orbit

c)

Earth lies between Sun and Moon

d)

Moon lies between Sun and Earth

85.

Which factor explains why a solar eclipse is visible only from limited regions on Earth at a given time?

a)

Small umbra footprint on Earth

b)

Uniform penumbra coverage globally

c)

Moon emits its own light

d)

Sun’s light bends around Earth fully

86.

If the Moon’s penumbra reaches Earth but the umbra does not, what will observers in the penumbra see?

a)

No eclipse at all

b)

Annular lunar eclipse

c)

Total solar eclipse

d)

Partial solar eclipse

87.

Which statement best describes why the apparent size of a shadow changes with distance from the light source?

a)

Refraction in Earth’s atmosphere

b)

Conservation of angular momentum

c)

Divergence of light rays

d)

Rotation of the light source

88.

When Earth is between the Sun and Moon and all three are nearly in one line, what type of eclipse occurs?

a)

Lunar eclipse

b)

No eclipse occurs

c)

Solar eclipse

d)

Annular solar event

89.

In the diagram with Sun, Moon, and Earth, what region labeled PQ most likely represents for observers on Earth?

a)

Area seeing no eclipse

b)

Area seeing total eclipse

c)

Area seeing partial eclipse

d)

Area seeing annular eclipse

90.

Which configuration causes a lunar eclipse as shown in the diagram where Earth’s shadow falls on the Moon?

a)

Sun–Earth–Moon aligned with Earth between

b)

Sun–Moon–Earth aligned with Moon between

c)

Earth–Sun–Moon aligned with Sun between

d)

Moon–Earth–Sun aligned with Moon closest

91.

In a total lunar eclipse, which part of Earth’s shadow covers the Moon?

a)

Penumbra outer zone

b)

No shadow region

c)

Antumbra tapered zone

d)

Umbra central region

92.

Why are lunar eclipses visible to more people than solar eclipses?

a)

Both shadows cover equal areas on Earth

b)

Visibility depends only on local weather

c)

Moon’s shadow is larger than Earth’s shadow

d)

Earth’s shadow is larger than Moon’s shadow

93.

Which condition must hold for any eclipse to occur regarding orbital nodes?

a)

Sun below ecliptic plane away from nodes

b)

Earth at perihelion far from node

c)

Moon at apogee opposite node

d)

Sun, Earth, Moon near the same node

94.

During full Moon, the alignment permits which eclipse under suitable node conditions?

a)

Lunar eclipse can occur

b)

Solar eclipse can occur

c)

Neither eclipse can occur

d)

Only penumbral solar eclipse

95.

Which statement explains why solar eclipses are shorter in duration than lunar eclipses?

a)

Earth’s penumbra on Moon is wide and stationary

b)

Moon’s penumbra on Earth is wide and stationary

c)

Earth’s umbra on Moon is small and moves fast

d)

Moon’s umbra on Earth is small and moves fast

96.

The diagram marks DAY and NIGHT on Earth. During a total lunar eclipse, observers must be located where?

a)

Anywhere on Earth equally

b)

Only within penumbral zone

c)

On the night side of Earth

d)

On the day side of Earth

97.

Which phenomenon corresponds to the Moon passing through only Earth’s penumbra?

a)

Total solar eclipse

b)

Annular solar eclipse

c)

Partial solar eclipse

d)

Penumbral lunar eclipse

98.

If the inclination between the Moon’s orbit and the ecliptic is about 5°, what is the consequence for eclipse frequency?

a)

Eclipses never occur due to misalignment

b)

Eclipses are infrequent because alignments are rare

c)

Eclipses occur monthly without fail

d)

Eclipses happen daily near the equator

99.

Which factor increases the count of observed lunar eclipses compared to solar eclipses over time?

a)

Weather controls eclipse numbers strictly

b)

Smaller Earth shadow limits observation

c)

Large Earth shadow allows global visibility

d)

Moon’s brightness prevents eclipse detection

100.

Which hypothesis describes early Earth’s atmosphere enabling organic molecules through natural processes?

a)

Abiogenesis via chemical evolution

b)

Divine creation without chemistry

c)

Panspermia from cometary delivery

d)

Steady-state eternal life theory

101.

According to the text, which scientist’s experiments supported chemical evolution by producing amino acids?

a)

Stanley Miller and Harold Urey

b)

Albert Einstein and Niels Bohr

c)

Louis Pasteur and Robert Koch

d)

Isaac Newton and Robert Boyle

102.

In prebiotic chemistry, which molecules are primary building blocks for proteins?

a)

Monosaccharides forming starch

b)

Amino acids forming polypeptides

c)

Phospholipids forming membranes

d)

Nucleotides forming DNA

103.

What evidence suggests life could originate from simple molecules under early Earth conditions?

a)

Laboratory synthesis of organics

b)

Instant creation events observed

c)

Exclusive divine testimonies

d)

Only fossils of modern species

104.

Which statement best explains why natural selection requires variation among replicators?

a)

Variation increases molecular weight

b)

Variation prevents chemical bonding

c)

Variation allows differential survival

d)

Variation guarantees immediate complexity

105.

Why are comets and meteorites relevant to origin-of-life studies, according to common hypotheses?

a)

They produce stable continents

b)

They may deliver organic compounds

c)

They heat oceans uniformly

d)

They remove atmospheric gases

106.

Which term refers to life beyond Earth in the search programs mentioned?

a)

METI measures mountain erosion

b)

PETI studies plate tectonics

c)

LETI maps lunar eclipses

d)

SETI focuses on intelligent signals

107.

What is the Fermi paradox concerned with in astrobiology?

a)

Formation of silicate minerals

b)

Lack of evidence despite high probabilities

c)

Cooling rates of planetary cores

d)

Exact age of Earth’s oceans

108.

Which process could plausibly link simple organics to complex biopolymers on early Earth?

a)

Instantaneous nuclear fusion

b)

Polymerization on mineral surfaces

c)

Permanent atmospheric freezing

d)

Spontaneous crystal teleportation

109.

If early Earth had lightning, volcanic activity, and reducing gases, what outcome is most consistent with experiments?

a)

Destruction of all chemical bonds

b)

Creation of modern vertebrates

c)

Immediate formation of complex cells

d)

Synthesis of amino acids and organics

110.

Which Indian space centre is located at Thiruvananthapuram?

a)

The Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre

b)

The Space Applications Centre

c)

The ISRO Satellite Centre

d)

The SHAR Launch Centre

111.

Where is the SHAR centre situated?

a)

Ahmedabad city in Gujarat

b)

Bengaluru city in Karnataka

c)

Sriharikota Island in Andhra Pradesh

d)

Thiruvananthapuram in Kerala

112.

Which unit is based at Ahmedabad for development and educational communication?

a)

DECU development unit

b)

VSSC testing unit

c)

ISAC satellite unit

d)

SHAR launch unit

113.

Which organisation is referred to as ISRO?

a)

International Space Research Office

b)

Interstellar Space Research Operation

c)

Indian Space Research Organisation

d)

Indian Science Research Order

114.

Which purpose is NOT listed among satellite class uses?

a)

Remote sensing experiments

b)

Art preservation services

c)

Weather accurate information

d)

Telecommunication broadcasting

115.

Identify the misconception about SETI mentioned.

a)

Radio signals always reach Earth strongly

b)

Signals may be too weak or delayed

c)

Scientists search for extraterrestrial life

d)

Electromagnetic waves travel through space

116.

Which question among the listed fundamental questions concerns measuring distance?

a)

Why has life not arisen anywhere?

b)

How is distance to space objects measured?

c)

What is life’s probability on planets?

d)

Which signals are sent to planets?

117.

Which city hosts the ISRO Satellite Centre (ISAC)?

a)

Bangalore in Karnataka

b)

Thiruvananthapuram in Kerala

c)

Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh

d)

Ahmedabad in Gujarat

118.

Which centre focuses on applications like remote sensing at Ahmedabad?

a)

Space Applications Centre

b)

ISRO Satellite Centre

c)

Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre

d)

SHAR Launch Centre

119.

Which statement best reflects the rationale for using electromagnetic signals in SETI?

a)

They are blocked by Earth’s ionosphere

b)

They decay instantly in space

c)

They cannot move through vacuum

d)

They can traverse cosmic distances

120.

A spacecraft travels 712 million kilometers in 9.09 years at constant speed. What is the average speed in million kilometers per year?

a)

71.2 million km/year

b)

85.5 million km/year

c)

62.3 million km/year

d)

78.3 million km/year

121.

A probe covers 300 million kilometers in 21.01 years uniformly. How many million kilometers does it travel per year, rounded to one decimal?

a)

12.5 million per year

b)

13.7 million per year

c)

14.3 million per year

d)

15.0 million per year

122.

One mission lists mass 28.7 tons and travel 20.04 years before a milestone. If fuel consumed per year is proportional to mass with rate 0.5 tons/year per 10 tons, estimate total fuel used (in tons) over 20.04 years assuming initial mass constant.

a)

(28.7/10)*0.5*20.04 ≈ 28.7 tons

b)

28.7 × 1.002 ≈ 28.8 tons

c)

20.04 tons used

d)

28.7 tons used

123.

A mission traveled 714 million kilometers in 30.06 years. What fraction of 1 billion kilometers is this distance?

a)

0.500 of a billion

b)

0.714 of a billion

c)

0.600 of a billion

d)

0.830 of a billion

124.

Two missions list distances: 148 and 74 million kilometers over identical durations. What is the ratio of their average speeds (first to second)?

a)

1 to 1 ratio

b)

1 to 2 ratio

c)

3 to 2 ratio

d)

2 to 1 ratio

125.

A probe lists travel 15 million kilometers in 09.09 years. What is the average speed in kilometers per day? Use 1 year = 365 days.

a)

≈4,520 km/day

b)

≈3,020 km/day

c)

≈1,800 km/day

d)

≈2,300 km/day

126.

A mission covered 106 million kilometers in 11.04 years. If another mission covers 116 million kilometers in 12.07 years, which has higher average speed?

a)

Insufficient information

b)

First mission higher

c)

Second mission higher

d)

Both equal speeds

127.

Given a list where one item shows 7 million kilometers over 28.04 years, what inference best explains such a small distance for long duration?

a)

It orbited near launch point

b)

It traveled faster than others

c)

It used more fuel per year

d)

It followed a straight path

128.

A mission reports 350 million kilometers over 23.04 years. If speed increases by 10%, how long would it take to cover the same distance?

a)

≈25.34 years

b)

≈23.04 years

c)

≈18.00 years

d)

≈20.95 years

129.

One entry shows 712 million kilometers and another shows 714 million kilometers. If both took approximately 30 years, what percent difference in average speed do they have?

a)

About 2.8 percent

b)

About 0.28 percent

c)

About 1.4 percent

d)

About 4.0 percent

130.

Which space research center is located in Washington, D.C. and was established in 1958?

a)

National Aeronautics Space Administration

b)

European Space Agency

c)

German Aerospace Center

d)

Association of Universities for Research in Astronomy

131.

The Association of Universities for Research in Astronomy (AURA) is listed with which location and year?

a)

Washington D.C., 1957

b)

Germany, 1969

c)

Cambridge, 1973

d)

Paris, 1975

132.

Center for Astrophysics corresponds to which place and year of establishment?

a)

Netherlands, 1983

b)

Swindon, 1985

c)

Cambridge, 1973

d)

Mojave, 1977

133.

Which organization is noted with Paris as location and 1975 as year?

a)

International Space University

b)

Netherlands Institute for Space Research

c)

Space Studies Institute

d)

European Space Agency

134.

British National Space Centre is associated with which location and year?

a)

Oxford, 1987

b)

London, 1983

c)

Swindon, 1985

d)

Polaris House, 1985

135.

NASA Goddard Institute of Space Studies is listed with which city and year?

a)

New York, 1961

b)

Washington, 1958

c)

Germany, 1969

d)

Paris, 1975

136.

Space Studies Institute is associated with which location and year?

a)

Mojave, 1977

b)

Florida, 1999

c)

France, 1987

d)

Switzerland, 1995

137.

Which entry matches Florida as location and 1999 as year?

a)

Florida Space Research Institute

b)

International Space University

c)

National Authority for Remote Sensing

d)

Netherlands Institute for Space Research

138.

ESA (European Space Research and Technology Center) appears with which country and year?

a)

Netherlands, 1983

b)

Germany, 1969

c)

France, 1964

d)

The Netherlands, 1975

139.

Which organization is tied to Germany and established in 1969?

a)

German Aerospace Center

b)

Center for Astrophysics

c)

European Space Agency

d)

International Space University

140.

Korea Aerospace Research Institute is shown with which country and year?

a)

South Korea, 1994

b)

South Korea, 1989

c)

Netherlands, 1983

d)

Japan, 1989

141.

National Authority for Remote Sensing and Space Sciences is matched with which country and year?

a)

Nigeria, 1998

b)

Argentina, 1961

c)

Peru, 1974

d)

Egypt, 1994

142.

International Space University corresponds to which location and year?

a)

Paris, 1964

b)

Switzerland, 1995

c)

France, 1987

d)

Netherlands, 1983

143.

European Space Research Organization is listed with which city and year?

a)

Berlin, 1969

b)

London, 1983

c)

Cambridge, 1973

d)

Paris, 1964

144.

Commonwealth Scientific and Industrial Research Organization is associated with which country and year?

a)

France, 1987

b)

Netherlands, 1983

c)

Australia, 1926

d)

Germany, 1969

145.

International Space Science Institute is matched with which nation and year?

a)

Netherlands, 1975

b)

Switzerland, 1995

c)

France, 1987

d)

Germany, 1969

146.

Netherlands Institute for Space Research is listed with which country and year?

a)

Germany, 1969

b)

The Netherlands, 1975

c)

France, 1987

d)

Netherlands, 1983

147.

Space Research and Remote Sensing Organization is shown with which country and year?

a)

Argentina, 1961

b)

Bangladesh, 1980

c)

Peru, 1974

d)

Nigeria, 1998

148.

National Space Research and Development Agency is matched with which country and year?

a)

Netherlands, 1983

b)

Germany, 1969

c)

Nigeria, 1998

d)

Egypt, 1994

149.

National Commission for Space Research appears with which country and year?

a)

Argentina, 1961

b)

Peru, 1974

c)

France, 1987

d)

Australia, 1926

150.

What is the Sun categorized as in basic astronomy?

a)

Star

b)

Planet

c)

Galaxy

d)

Deity