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Overview and Functions of Blood

Total questions: 48

Worksheet time: 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes blood as a tissue?

a)

A nervous tissue specialized for impulses

b)

An epithelial tissue lining organ surfaces

c)

A muscular tissue containing actin and myosin

d)

A fluid connective tissue with living cells

2.

What is the main function of blood emphasized in this overview?

a)

Energy storage in adipose deposits

b)

Electrical signaling between tissues

c)

Mechanical support for internal organs

d)

Transport of substances throughout the body

3.

Blood cells (formed elements) are suspended in which nonliving component?

a)

Stroma, the structural mesh

b)

Plasma, the liquid matrix

c)

Myelin, the lipid sheath

d)

Interstitium, the tissue space

4.

Which set lists primary transport roles of blood?

a)

Generating ATP in mitochondria

b)

Producing cartilage and bone

c)

Transporting hormones to target organs

d)

Removing cellular wastes like CO2

e)

Carrying oxygen and nutrients

5.

Which mechanisms help blood regulate homeostasis?

a)

Initiating nerve impulses

b)

Maintaining fluid volume

c)

Secreting digestive enzymes

d)

Acting as buffers to maintain pH

e)

Absorbing and distributing heat

6.

Match each blood function category with an example role.

a)

Transport

1.

Moving hormones to organs

b)

Regulation

2.

Acting as buffers for pH

c)

Protection

3.

Clotting to prevent blood loss

7.

Which process illustrates blood’s protective role against infection?

a)

Delivering glucose to hepatocytes

b)

Absorbing heat in skeletal muscle

c)

Exchanging gases in alveolar sacs

d)

Carrying antibodies and white blood cells

8.

Which scenario best explains how blood contributes to temperature homeostasis?

a)

Storing heat within red blood cells

b)

Redistributing heat through blood flow

c)

Increasing oxygen solubility in plasma

d)

Blocking hormone receptors on cells

9.

When whole blood is centrifuged, which layer occupies about 55% of the volume?

a)

Red cell pellet at bottom

b)

Buffy coat in the middle

c)

Dissolved gases layer

d)

Plasma layer at the top

10.

Which statement best describes the buffy coat observed after centrifugation?

a)

Thin layer of leukocytes and platelets

b)

Region of plasma proteins only

c)

Thick band of erythrocyte aggregates

d)

Layer of dissolved nutrients and water

11.
Question Image

Match each blood component to its primary function.

a)

Plasma

1.

Carries dissolved proteins and solutes

b)

Leukocytes

2.

Defends against foreign substances

c)

Platelets

3.

Forms clots to stop bleeding

d)

Erythrocytes

4.

Transports O2 and CO2

12.

Plasma is mainly composed of which proportion of water and solutes?

a)

About 75% water, 25% solutes

b)

About 10% water, 90% solutes

c)

About 50% water, 50% solutes

d)

About 90% water, 10% solutes

13.

Which set correctly identifies formed elements of blood?

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Leukocytes

c)

Platelets

d)

Plasma

14.

Which component primarily transports oxygen between lungs and tissues?

a)

Plasma carrying clotting factors

b)

Platelets forming fibrin plugs

c)

Leukocytes with antibodies

d)

Erythrocytes containing hemoglobin

15.

During centrifugation, why do erythrocytes form the bottom layer?

a)

They have the greatest density

b)

They are attracted to the rotor

c)

They dissolve into plasma

d)

They are repelled by leukocytes

16.

Which components together make up less than 1% of whole blood by volume?

a)

Water and dissolved gases

b)

Plasma proteins only

c)

Erythrocytes alone

d)

Leukocytes and platelets

17.

Select all items primarily found dissolved in plasma.

a)

Plasma proteins

b)

Glucose

c)

Electrolytes

d)

Hemoglobin

18.

Which change would most directly increase the thickness of the buffy coat after centrifugation?

a)

Elevated leukocyte and platelet counts

b)

Higher plasma water content

c)

Reduced erythrocyte hemoglobin

d)

Lower blood temperature

19.

Which feature of erythrocytes most directly enhances gas exchange efficiency in capillaries?

a)

Spherical rigid shape reduces turbulence

b)

Flattened biconcave shape increases surface area

c)

Presence of nucleus improves metabolic control

d)

Thick cytoplasm slows oxygen diffusion

20.

What proportion of the protein content in mature red blood cells is hemoglobin?

a)

Approximately ninety-seven percent

b)

About half of total proteins

c)

Roughly one-quarter of proteins

d)

Nearly one hundred percent

21.

Which statement best explains why mature erythrocytes can squeeze through narrow capillaries?

a)

They actively divide to change their shape

b)

They store glycogen for rapid energy release

c)

They have abundant microtubules for pushing

d)

They lack organelles and are highly flexible

22.

Hemoglobin can bind oxygen effectively because it contains which essential element?

a)

Calcium in heme groups

b)

Iron in the ferrous state

c)

Sodium within globin chains

d)

Potassium bound to porphyrin

23.
Question Image

Match each term to its correct description.

a)

Hemoglobin

1.

Protein that binds and carries oxygen

b)

Erythrocyte

2.

Red blood cell specialized for transport

c)

Biconcave shape

3.

Geometry increasing surface area and flexibility

d)

Iron (Fe2+)

4.

Element in hemoglobin that binds oxygen

24.

What is hematopoiesis?

a)

Formation of blood cells from stem cells

b)

Immune response to foreign antigens

c)

Destruction of old blood cells

d)

Clotting cascade activation in vessels

25.

Where are stem cells that replace most blood cells primarily located?

a)

Yellow bone marrow cavities

b)

Red bone marrow niches

c)

Cardiac muscle tissue

d)

Peripheral lymph nodes

26.

Which hormone regulates the formation of red blood cells and is mainly produced in the kidneys?

a)

Erythropoietin released by kidneys

b)

Thrombopoietin secreted by spleen

c)

Calcitonin produced by thyroid

d)

Aldosterone from adrenal cortex

27.

Which physiological trigger increases erythropoietin release?

a)

Elevated body temperature during fever

b)

Increase in plasma glucose concentration

c)

Drop in normal blood oxygen levels

d)

Rise in blood calcium levels

28.

Select all statements that are true about mature red blood cells.

a)

Their shape optimizes gas exchange

b)

They primarily consist of hemoglobin proteins

c)

They have no nucleus or other organelles

d)

They divide frequently in circulation

29.

Which event happens first when a blood vessel is injured?

a)

Smooth muscle contracts to narrow vessel

b)

Fibrin creates a stabilizing mesh

c)

Red cells seal the wound opening

d)

Platelets form an adhesive plug

30.

During vascular spasm, what directly causes reduced blood flow at the injury site?

a)

Vasoconstriction of smooth muscle

b)

Conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin

c)

Platelet adhesion to exposed collagen

d)

Endothelial dilation of the vessel wall

31.

Select all steps that primarily involve platelets rather than fibrin.

a)

Polymerization forming a mesh-like clot

b)

Release of factors that activate more platelets

c)

Aggregation to form a temporary plug

d)

Initial vessel narrowing after injury

32.

Match each hemostasis step to its key outcome.

a)

Vascular spasm

1.

Vessel narrows to slow blood loss

b)

Platelet plug formation

2.

Temporary plug of adhered platelets

c)

Coagulation

3.

Fibrin mesh stabilizes final clot

33.

Which statement best describes coagulation in hemostasis?

a)

Red blood cells trigger vasoconstriction

b)

Smooth muscle dilates to increase flow

c)

Fibrin proteins form a mesh-like clot

d)

Platelets attach and close the wound quickly

34.

Which statement best describes antigens on red blood cells?

a)

Enzymes that digest clots inside vessels

b)

Proteins secreted by plasma to fight infection

c)

Surface markers that trigger immune responses

d)

Molecules that neutralize pathogens in plasma

35.

Antibodies cause agglutination by doing what to foreign cells?

a)

Activating platelets to form a clot

b)

Binding antigens and clumping cells together

c)

Tagging red cells for liver filtration

d)

Breaking cell membranes with enzymes

36.

In blood typing, what are agglutinogens specifically?

a)

Plasma antibodies against A or B

b)

RBC antigens determining ABO types

c)

Rh factors on white cells

d)

Serum proteins enhancing clotting

37.

Which blood type has both A and B agglutinogens on RBCs?

a)

Type A has only A antigens

b)

Type AB has A and B antigens

c)

Type O lacks A and B antigens

d)

Type B has only B antigens

38.

A person with type A blood will have which antibodies in plasma?

a)

No anti-A or anti-B

b)

Both anti-A and anti-B

c)

Anti-A antibodies present

d)

Anti-B antibodies present

39.

Which blood type has no anti-A or anti-B antibodies in plasma?

a)

Type AB lacks both antibodies

b)

Type A lacks anti-A only

c)

Type B lacks anti-B only

d)

Type O lacks neither antibody

40.

Who can receive blood from all ABO types?

a)

AB recipients accept A, B, AB, O

b)

B recipients accept B and O

c)

A recipients accept A and O

d)

O recipients accept only O

41.

Which donor can give to all ABO recipients?

a)

Type O donors to all types

b)

Type AB donors to AB only

c)

Type A donors to A and AB

d)

Type B donors to B and AB

42.

Match each ABO blood type to its antibodies in plasma.

a)

Type AB

1.

None

b)

Type A

2.

Anti-B

c)

Type B

3.

Anti-A

d)

Type O

4.

Anti-A and Anti-B

43.

Match each ABO blood type to agglutinogens found on RBCs.

a)

Type AB

1.

A and B

b)

Type A

2.

A

c)

Type B

3.

B

d)

Type O

4.

None

44.

Rh positive individuals can accept which Rh status safely?

a)

Both positive and negative units

b)

Only positive units safely

c)

Only negative units safely

d)

Neither status safely

45.

Why can Rh negative individuals not receive Rh positive blood?

a)

They lack anti-Rh antibodies

b)

They neutralize all Rh antigens

c)

They have Rh antigens already

d)

They form anti-Rh antibodies

46.

Which statement about Rh antigens is accurate?

a)

Absence allows receiving positive blood

b)

Absence prevents any agglutination

c)

Presence means anti-Rh produced

d)

Presence means no anti-Rh made

47.

How many distinct blood types result from independent ABO and Rh sorting?

a)

Eight unique combinations exist

b)

Four unique combinations exist

c)

Six unique combinations exist

d)

Ten unique combinations exist

48.

Select all donors compatible for a recipient with B− blood.

a)

B− donors are compatible

b)

AB− donors are compatible

c)

B+ donors are compatible

d)

O− donors are compatible